DNA Replication Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the three theories of DNA Replication?

A

Dispersive, Conservative, Semi Conservative

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2
Q

What phase and specific phase does DNA Replication occur in?

A

Interphase, specifically the S Phase.

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3
Q

In a diploid cell, what forms? Also, how many copies of what are made?

A

Tetrads form. Four copies of genomes are made.

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4
Q

Which cells have half of ______ information? What are they similar to?

A

Haploid cells have half of the genetic information, whereas diploid cells have the other half. They are similar too sperm cells.

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5
Q

In each gene, there is an amount of mBP. What is this amount?

A

50,000,000-250

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6
Q

What’s the error rate for DNA replication happening every few hours?

A

1 per billion nucleotide

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7
Q

For every DNA molecule formed, what else is made? What type of pair does it come up to?

A

An extra strand of each is made. This creates a homologous pair.

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8
Q

What are the theories of DNA replication?

A

Conservative, Semi-Conservative, Dispersive

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9
Q

What are the steps of conservative DNA Replication?

A
  1. Parental strands are copied
  2. Two original strands reform into parent molecule
  3. These copies reform into a new DNA molecule
  4. One parental strand is conserved
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10
Q

What are the steps of semi-conservative DNA replication?

A
  1. Original strands are copied
  2. The daughter molecules are contained of one parental strand and one new strand
  3. Half of the parental strand is conserved.
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11
Q

What are the steps of dispersive DNA replication?

A
  1. The original strands are copied
  2. The new and parental strands are broken into fragments.
  3. These fragments reform.
  4. Daughter molecules consist of an assortment of new strands and parental strands
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12
Q

Why can’t DNA -> Protein? Why have RNA?

A

DNA is too big to leave the nucleus. It’s too precious

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13
Q

What happens if the photocopy of DNA get messed up?

A

It’s okay. The original is preserved

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14
Q

What strand makes the photocopy of DNA

A

3’-5’ as RNA Polymerase synthesizes in the 5’-3’ direction

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15
Q

With RNA, A matches with what? Why?

A

It matches with U due to complimentary base pairings.

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16
Q

What is the bottom strand called? What direction does it go in?

A

Antisense. 3’-5’

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17
Q

What is the top strand called? What direction does it go in?

A

Sense strand. 5’-3’

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18
Q

Are there any leading or lagging strand in transcription? Why?

A

No, as only one strand is being synthesized.

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19
Q

What are the three stages of transcription?

A

Initiation, Elongation, Termination

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20
Q

What are the steps of initiation? (Transcription)

A
  1. Helicase not required
  2. RNA polymerase binds to a promotor
  3. Occurs 25 nucleotides upstream
  4. It is rich in Adenine and Thymine (TATA Box)
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21
Q

How many hydrogen bonds does A-T have? What about C-G? Why?

A

A-T has 2 hydrogen bonds, C-G has 3. A and T has two bonds, therefore less bonds to break. C-G has more so that’s more work for no reason.

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22
Q

What are the steps of Elongation? (Transcription)

A
  1. No primer needed
  2. Bases get added (40-60 nucleotide per second)
  3. The synthesis of many mRNA strands occur at once.
  4. A new strand of mRNA is made from the 5’3’ direction on the Antisense strand (bottom)
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23
Q

Explain the concept of proofreading in transcription/elongation for RNA. Compare it to the transcription of DNA.

A

There is no proof reading in RNA, allowing transcription to occur quicker. If a mistake is made, the wrong amino acid can be made. DNA transcription going wrong allows genetic material to be mis-made, making it worse. DNA transcription takes much longer for this reason.

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24
Q

If the nucleus is the university, what’s the real world?

A

Cytoplasm

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25
Q

What are the steps of Termination? (transcription)

A
  1. A pre mRNA gets made.
  2. Post transcriptional modification
  3. Only occurs in eukaryotes as it has a nucleus
  4. Modifications: #1, 5’ cap protects from degrading enzymes; #2, 3’ is capped with AAAA, creates poly A tail; #3 contains introns (small sequences which aren’t important) and extrons (bigger sequences). Introns are in the way and get spliced out
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26
Q

Why does post-transcriptional modification only occur in eukaryotes? (transcription)

A

Prokaryotes have no nucleus, therefore it already happens at once in the same place.

27
Q

How does transcription differ from DNA replication?

A

DNA replication makes copies of DNA strands, whereas in transcription, DNA gets converted into mRNA.

28
Q

Compare DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase. How are they similar?
How are they different?

A

Differences: DNA polymerase creates double stranded DNA molecules, RNA polymerase creates single stranded RNA molecules. DNA Polymerase is used during replication. RNA Polymerase is used during transcription.
Similarity: they both catalyze something (dna: dna replication, rna: formation of phosphodiester bonds)

29
Q

What is the promoter region? Why are promoter regions necessary for
transcription?

A

The promotor region is a sequence of nucleotides located 25 nucleotides upstream of where transcription takes place. It is necessary for transcription because it initiates transcription when the RNA Polymerase binds to it

30
Q

In prokaryotes, protein synthesis can occur at the same time as
transcription. Why is this not the case for eukaryotes?

A

Eukaryotic mRNA undergoes modifications within the nucleus before entering the cytoplasm, whereas prokaryotes don’t consist of a nucleus

31
Q

The following DNA sequence is a fragment from the antisense strand
that codes for a protein involved in cell cycle regulation:
3’ – ATACTAGTG – 5’
a) Write the complementary sense strand.
b) Which strand will RNA polymerase use in transcription?
c) What is the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA strand transcribed?
d) What is the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide produced from the
mRNA strand?

A

a) 5’ - TATGATCAC - 3’
b) Antisense strand, but will go in the direction of 5’ - 3’
c) 5’ - AUACUAGUG - 3’
d) Ile-Ser-Thr

32
Q

What ribosomes are in eukaryotic cells? What about prokaryotic cells?

A

80S: Eukaryotic
70S: Prokaryotic

33
Q

How many nucleotides are in mRNA? What are they called

A
  1. A Site, P site, E site (codon)
34
Q

What does each codon have? What does it do?

A

tRNA Molecule. The bottom has anti codon brings in a specific amino acid.

35
Q

What are you looking at when you look at the genetic code?

A

Codon (mRNA Strand)

36
Q

What are the three sites of Ribosome?

A

A site, E site, P site.

37
Q

What is the function of the A site?

A

It accepts the tRNA molecule and gets bonded with it.

38
Q

What is the function of the P site?

A

Forms peptide bonds.

39
Q

What causes the termination of the peptide growth?

A

A stop codon enters the A site, causing a release factor to enter the A site, causing the termination. After this happens, the protein is released to the Golgi body.

40
Q

Explain how the three sites work together.

A

One tRNA will be latched to both the A site and the P site. The P site will unlatch the peptide and move to the e site, exiting.

41
Q

What direction does mRNA go in?

A

5’-3’

42
Q

What is the first amino acid that starts initiation of translation?

A

Methionine, AUG

43
Q

What is an easy way to read sequences given to you?

A

Split them into three. Eg; AUCGCTAG = AUC GCT TAG

44
Q

What direction does the ribosome shift in? What is this shifting called?

A

Shifts in the 5’ - 3’ direction (toward the 3’ end). The shifting is called translocation.

45
Q

Describe termination in translation.

A

There are three STOP Codons; UAG, UGA, UAA. There are no tRNA therefore no amino acid.

46
Q

Out of all DNA, which percentage codes?

A

2%

47
Q

If there are three base pairs of a codon, and 4 possibilities. What is the total number of possibilities for codons?

A

4^3 = 64

48
Q

What are three examples of non coding sequences?

A

Introns, telomeres, regulatory sequences

49
Q

What are telomeres?

A

They are sequences of DNA that get added to the end of the strand. As DNA gets replicated, telomeres get shorter.

50
Q

What happened with Dolly the Sheep?

A

They took an egg cell from her and an adult cell, and they got fused. It became an embryo which got planted. She died fast; it is a theory that it was because of the short telomeres.

51
Q

What is the role of meditation with telomeres?

A

It allows for the increase of telomeres (becoming younger)

52
Q

What determines whether a gene could be turned on or off?

A

Regulatory sequence

53
Q

What are operons? What are they controlled by?

A

They are usually found in prokaryotic cells. They are controlled by regulatory protein, promoter + operator sequence.

54
Q

What is a LAC Operon?

A

It consists of lactose. It is a disaccharide.

55
Q

If there is no lactose in the LAC Operon, what happens? What does this thing do?

A

The active repressor protein turns on and binds to the operator region, preventing RNA Polymerase from moving forward.

56
Q

If there IS lactose present, what does it do?

A

It binds to the active repressor and doens’t allow it to bind with the promoter. However, the RNA Polymerase can now bind the promoter and can continue with transcription.

57
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

The study of how the environment around you can change your DNA.

58
Q

When pregnant women smoke, what happens to them?

A

They get shorter and wider.

59
Q

During the Dutch Hunger Winter, there was no food. Pregnant women would eat less, the fetus would get less. What happens to these babies when they are born?

A

When the babies were born, they had a slow metabolism. Thus, when they finally get food, their body grew rapidly, leading to obesity.

60
Q

What is hypomethylation?

A

It’s when all genes turn on, leading to more cell division. Thus, it leads to cancer.

61
Q

What is hypermethylation?

A

When the ability of tumour prevention turns off.

62
Q

Explain the role of lactose in the expression of the gene for lactose production.

A

The presence of lactose determines if the repressor protein will be used or no.

63
Q

State one reason that identical twins may show different methylation patterns as they grow older.

A

Trauma, diet, environment