DNA Repair Flashcards

1
Q

Explain how the genome can be stable, but DNA is not.

A

On an evolutionary scale, the genome is stable (the pool of organisms maintains the same genes). DNA, however, is a relatively transient molecule that can be degraded, damaged, mutated, etc.

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2
Q

What are 6 sources of DNA damaging agents? hint: 5 are natural.

A

SUN, oxygen, medical drugs, cellular metabolism, DNA polymerase, tobacco smoke and other pollutants.

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3
Q

How many mutations are sunlight responsible for, and how do these form?

A

Up to 100,000 UV products in DNA per cell per day. Nucleotides readily absorb UV light and are excited, causing the formation of unwanted bonds that cause kinks in DNA structure, stalling DNA and RNA pol.

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4
Q

How is 8-oxoguanine formed and describe its pairing.

A

It is formed from reactive oxygen species. Carbonyl formation on 5-member ring of guanine. Disrupts aromaticity. 8-oxoguanine pairs with adenine.

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5
Q

How are reactive oxygen species generated?

A

1% of oxygen in electron transport chain is converted to ROS. Superoxide ion is only partially reduced, and premature release can cause it to cause DNA mutations.

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6
Q

How might anti-cancer drugs harm normal cells?

A

Anti-cancer drugs act by causing DNA damage to cancer cells so they can’t divide, but sometimes noncancerous cells are damaged as well.

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7
Q

How can topoisomerase II inhibitors and cisplatin cause DNA damage?

A

Topoisomerase II inhibitors cause double strand DNA breaks. Cisplatin causes intrastrand cross links.

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8
Q

How does ionizing radiation damage DNA?

A

Ionizing radiation causes double strand breaks. This is why it is popular to use against cancer.

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9
Q

How does DNA polymerase damage DNA?

A

Some DNA polymerases have lower fidelity than others.

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10
Q

How does intrinsic DNA instability cause damage to DNA?

A

Bases can be lost by deamination (breakage of glycosidic bond) which gets in the way of polymerases. Cytosine can spontaneously be deaminated to uracil (amino group is hydrolyzed), which pairs with adenine.

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11
Q

What is the most frequent mutation in in human tumors?

A

C -> T transition is the most common mutation in human tumors. This occurs when C is deaminated to form U.

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12
Q

Which mutation is a signature of smoking-related lung cancer?

A

A G –> T transversion (purine to pyrimidine)

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13
Q

Which mutations are commonly found in colorectal, kidney, liver, and prostate cancers?

A

short deletions and insertions (1-3bp)

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14
Q

What type of mutation is responsible for truncation of a protein?

A

A chromosome deletion.

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15
Q

How can chromosome mutations be identified?

A

Cytologically using a microscope (karyotype)

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16
Q

How are chimeric proteins formed?

A

When nonhomologous chromosomes exchange material and are expressed. These proteins may have altered exprssion/activity.

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17
Q

Describe the Philadelphia chromosome and how it is fomred.

A

It is a translocation of chromosome 9 to chromosome 22, so that the transcription product is a fusion protein with the C-end of ABL (tyrosine kinase) and the N-end of BCR. The fusion protein has constitutive tyrosine kinase activity, so the cells in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) proliferase excessively.

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18
Q

Describe Down Syndrome and the type of mutation which causes it.

A

It is caused by genome mutation, in which there is the loss or gain of an entire chromosome. In down syndrome, there is the gain of chromosome 21. The gain or loss of larger chromosomes is embryonically lethal.

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19
Q

What is the difference between DNA damage and DNA mutation?

A

DNA damage is reversible if DNA repair machinery gets to the damage in time. DNA mutation is fixed in the genome (i.e. permanent).

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20
Q

When are mutations desirable?

A

Antibodies.

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21
Q

How often do DNA damage events result in a DNA mutation?

A

1 in 1000 DNA damage events result in DNA mutation.

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22
Q

What are the two cellular protection mechanisms that provide genome stability?

A

Damage avoidance and DNA repair (as a last resort option)

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23
Q

How are ROS removed from the cell?

A

ROS such as superoxide in the mitochondria is further reduced to hydrogen peroxide by superoxide dismutase, followed by full reduction to water by peroxidases catalase.

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24
Q

What is glutathione, and what role does it play in preventing DNA damage?

A

It is an antioxidant that prevents damage caused by ROS. It works by confering radioresistance to cells (i.e. cancer cells are often radioresistant).

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25
Q

How are cells shielded from UV radiation?

A

The melanin in skin dissipates 99.9% of UV as heat. This is why blondes and redheads are more susceptible to cancer (less melanin).

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26
Q

What are the 3 R’s of DNA repair?

A

Recognition, removal, replacement.

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27
Q

When does DNA mismatch repair take place?

A

Often right after replication, when proofreading does not catch the mismatch.

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28
Q

By how much does MMR increase the fidelity of DNA replication?

A

By 100-fold compared to DNA polymerase + exonucleolytic proofreading.

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29
Q

What role does MutS play in MMR in prok?

A

It is a homodimer that searches for mismatched DNA base pairs along the DNA (S = slide). Only one dimer subunit interact with the DNA. At the mismatch, the homodimer pauses, changes conformation, and forms a stable complex with other repair proteins.

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30
Q

How are MutL and MutS recruited to sites of MMR?

A

They are recruited when MutS finds a mismatch on the DNA.

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31
Q

What role do MutH and MutL play in MMR in prok?

A

MutL binds MutH to MutS, and MutH introduces a nick in one DNA strand.

32
Q

How do the Mut proteins in prok MMR know which base to remove?

A

Daughter and parent strands are differentiated based on methylation. The parent strand is methylated on adenine of GATC sites, but newly synthesized daughter DNA is not yet methylated by Dam (DNA adenine methylase).

33
Q

Describe the removal and replacement of the mismatch in prok MMR.

A

After the nick is introduced in the daughter strand, exonuclease I (5’->3’), helicase, and ssBP chew away at the DNA up until the site of the mismatch. Then DNA pol III fills in the gap and DNA ligase seals it.

34
Q

Describe the effect of MMR deficiency in humans.

A

MMR deficiency causes cancer predisposition. It causes genome instability in the TGF-beta receptor gene, leading to hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC).

35
Q

What are the differences between euk and prok MMR?

A
  • Euk have MutS homolog (Msh) and MutL homolog (Mlh)
  • Euk has no Dam and no MutH
  • Euk Msh covers endonuclease activity of MutH
  • Euk have no methylation to show parent vs daughter strands. Instead, nciks and gaps in newly synthesized DNA strand (termini of Okazaki fragments or 3’ terminus of leading strand) may provide basis for strand discrimination.
36
Q

Describe direct reversal of DNA damage (i.e. lesions not removed)

A

Photoreactivation, only found in prok and non-placental mammals. Intrastrand dimers formed between adjacent pyrimidines which introduces a kink to stall DNA pol is directly reversed by DNA photolyase. Recognition of the dimer by photolyase occurs independently of light, but reversal requires adsorption of light by pterin and FADH chromophores.

37
Q

Describe the base pairing of O-methyl guanine.

A

It can pair with C or T, causing mutations if it replicates after pairing with T.

38
Q

How can O-methyl guanine be directly reversed to guanine?

A

It is repaired by direct reversal of aberrant methylation, using an alkyltransferase to remove the methyl group.

39
Q

How can wrongly alkylated DNA in prokaryotes be detoxified?

A

Ada (alkyltransferase protein) binds methyl group of O-methyl guanine to its cysteine active site. Methylation of Ada permanently inactivates the protein, causing it to “commit suicide.” Thus, for protein activity to be restored, the protein needs to be expressed from scratch.

40
Q

Which type of DNA repair is described below?

  • highly efficient
  • usually requires a single enzyme
  • essentially error-free
  • no excision of bases or nucleotides
  • usually only applicable to a single lesion
A

Direct reversal of damage.

41
Q

What type of damage is repaired by Base Excision Repair (BER)?

A

BER has a broad range of specificity. It can repair modified bases such as oxidative damage (8-oxoguanine), deamination (cytosine deamination), and alkylation (3-methyladenine).

42
Q

What is the function of DNA glycosylase?

A

It cleaves the N-glycosidic bond of nucleotides with aberrant modifications.

43
Q

Describe the mechanism of BER.

A
  • DNA glycosylase cleaves the modified base.
  • The AP site is released due to activity of AP endonuclease (nicks the 5’ end of the site) and AP exonuclease (nicks 3’ after the site).
  • The single nucleotide gap is filled in by DNA pol beta, and the nick is sealed by DNA ligase I
44
Q

How do we know that BER deffects are incompatible with life?

A

In mice, knockouts of APE endonuclease, DNA polymerase beta, or DNA ligase are embryonic lethal.

45
Q

Which type of repair can perform MMR if the daughter strand is already methylated?

A

BER, as it can recognize the most common types of mismatch.

46
Q

Descrbie the mild BER defects that can cause cancer.

A
  • 30% of all cancers have pol beta variant.
  • glycosylase mutations increase the risk for cancer.
47
Q

Bulky adducts on guanine and pyrimidine dimers in eukaryotes are repaired by what mechanism?

A

Nucleotide excision repair.

48
Q

Describe the mechanism of NER

A

Recognition protein binds to unaffected strand and slides along until it reaches the dimer or adduct

helicase unwinds the dna

exonuclease cuts out the affected strand

DNA pol and ligase fill in and seal the gap

49
Q

In euk, which proteins conduct NER?

A

XP (xeroderma pigmentosum) proteins.

50
Q

In prok, which proteins conduct NER?

A

uvrABCD

51
Q

Describe the problems with xeroderma pigmentosum disease.

A
  • extreme sunlight sensitivity
  • risk of skin cancer increased 2000x
52
Q

What are the two NER pathways and how do they differ?

A
  • Global genomic repair (GGR) scans the entire genome for lesions regardless of whether genes are transcriptionally active.
  • transcription-coupled repair (TCR) recognizes lesions when RNA pol is stalled and must dissociate from the template. Base damage is specifically recognized by two TCR-specific proteins, Cockayne syndrome group B (CSB) and CSA.
53
Q

What is the effect of CSA and CSB mutations?

A

It can cause Cockayne syndrome:

  • sensitivity to sunlight
  • growth and developmental arrest (no cancer-cells die rather than mutate)
  • neurological degeneration
54
Q

Why does homologous recombination rely on homologous chromosome?

A

Because there is no DNA template for one strand within the same molecule when one strand is damaged.

55
Q

What type of damage is repaired by homologous recombination?

A

Double-stranded DNA breaks

56
Q

What are the three most important genes in HR?

A

Rad51, Rad52, Rad54 (determined from yeast mutants)

57
Q

How do double stranded breaks arise?

A

2-end double strand breaks caused by X-rays and chemicals. 1-end ds breaks are caused by persistent ssDNA breaks during replication.

58
Q

Describe the steps of repair of dsDNA breaks by HR.

A
  • dsDNA break is ressected in both directions by 5’->3’ exonuclease
  • Rad51 searches for homologous sequence in sister chromatid and allows strand invasion of the 3’ ressected end with the homologous strand.
  • New DNA synthesis ensues with the 3’ ressected end as a “primer” and the homologous strand as the template.
  • The newly synthesized strand unwinds from the template and acts as the template for its partner DNA strand.
  • DNA ligase seals.
59
Q

Which type of recombination is error-free?

A

HR recombination, because a homologous sequence is used as a template.

60
Q

What is RecA?

A

It is a homolog of human Rad51 (finds dsDNA breaks). It is a helical filament that slides along DNA and is highly conserved.

61
Q

Which type of DNA repair are BRCA1 and BRCA2 involved in, and what can deficiency in them cause?

A

They are involved in HR. 50% of familial breast cancer have a mutation in these genes.

62
Q

How much energy is required to repair a dsDNA break by HR?

A

~10,000 ATP molecules.

63
Q

Only one type of DNA repair is error-prone. Which type of dsDNA repair is error-prone?

A

Non-homologous repair.

64
Q

Describe the mechanism of dsDNA repair by non-homologous end-joining.

A
  • Ku70, Ku80, and DNA-PK join the DNA ends together.
  • Ends are resected until there is microhomology by exonuclease,
  • gaps are filled in with DNA pol.
  • bonds are sealed using XRCC4 and DNA ligase IV.
65
Q

Does non-homologous end-joining repair 1-end or 2-end dsDNA breaks?

A

only 2-end dsDNA breaks

66
Q

What type of disease results from deficiencies in the non-homologous end-joining pathway?

A

Lymphomas.

67
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle can HR occur?

A

Only in S and G2 phases, because a homologous sister chromosome is needed.

68
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle can non-homologous end-joining occur?

A

It operates in G1 phase, as no template is needed.

69
Q

Describe the upregulation of homologous recombination proteins during S phase.

A

CDK-cyclin complex is activated, E2F2 is released from Rb, and E2F2 allows the transcription of Rad51, Rad54, Bard1, MSH2, MLH1.

70
Q

How does the cell determine whether to repair dsDNA breaks by HR or by non-homologous end-joining?

A

If CDK-cyclin complex is activated as it is in S phase, CtIP will be activated and will allow for HR. If CDK-cyclin complex is not activated and 53BP1 is expressed, CtIP activity will be inhibited and non-homologous end-joining will take place (G1 phase).

71
Q

What is the cell’s last resort when DNA damage cannot be repaired?

A

Translesion DNA synthesis is performed just to keep the cell alive. It is a mechanism of damage tolerance.

72
Q

Describe TLS DNA polymerases.

A

They are error-prone polymerases which bypass lesions and DNA conformational changes. They are responsible for damage-induced mutations.

73
Q

Describe the error rate of TLS DNA poylmerase on undamaged DNA template.

A

It has a 50-20,000x higher error rate than regular DNA pol. It also lacks 3’-5’ proofreading activity, and exhibits non-processive polymerase activity.

74
Q

Describe the role of ATM kinase in DNA damage response.

A

Cell cycle arrest is needed for DNA repair to take place. If the damage is too much, the cell will undergo apoptosis.

-ATM kinase phosphorpylates p53 which alone, causes apoptosis. If p53 goes on to activate p21, CDK-cyclin will be inhibited and the damage will be repaired

75
Q
A