DNA Damage and Repair Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the different base modifications that prevent replication or cause mutations

A

Spontaneous deamination:

  • Removal of the somewhat unstable primary amino group of nucleic acid bases => ketogroups
    e. g. cytosine to uracil, adenine to hypoxanthine, guanine to xanthine, and 5-methyl cytosine to thymine.

Chemical damage:

  • Hyper-reactive oxygen species generated by ionising radiation or as byproducts during normal oxidative metabolism can modify DNA bases, e.g. thymine to thymine glycol
  • Many environmental chemicals can modify DNA bases by addition of methyl/alkyl groups (alkylation); addition of larger molecules defines ‘adducts’

Photodamage:
- UV light induces covalent bond formation between adjacent pyrimidines within one strand => pyrimidine dimer

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2
Q

Summarise the different causes of DNA damage

A
Chemicals (carcinogens):
dietary
lifestyle
environmental
occupational
medical
endogenous

Radiation:
ionizing
solar
cosmic

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3
Q

State some different types of DNA damage caused by carcinogens.

A
Base dimers and chemical cross-links
Base hydroxylations
Abasic sites
Single strand breaks
Double strand breaks
DNA adducts
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4
Q

What are abasic sites?

A

During the repair process, the entire DNA base has been removed so the sugar backbone is maintained but we have removed the base from the mutagenic molecule

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5
Q

Why is DNA the target for many carcinogens?

A

Chemical carcinogens are usually metabolically activated and converted into electrophiles;
DNA is very electron rich (many double bonds, ring structure)

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6
Q

What are the consequences of bulky DNA adducts?

A

The electrophiles bind and form a covalent bond
The binding of these adducts causes problems, particularly during replication because it interferes with the ability of DNA polymerase to recognise the base

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7
Q

Give a brief overview of phase 1 and phase 2 metabolism

A

Phase I

  • addition of functional groups via e.g. oxidations, reductions, hydrolysis
  • mainly cytochrome p450-mediated

Phase II

  • conjugation of Phase I functional groups
    e. g. Glucuronidation, Acetylation, Sulphation, Methylation, Amino acid conjugation, Glutathione conjugation
  • Generates polar (water soluble) metabolites.
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8
Q

What are polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons?

A

They are environmental pollutants formed from the combustion of fossil fuels and tobacco

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9
Q

Describe the two-step oxidation of benzo[a]pyrene. How does lead to DNA damage?

A

B[a]P is a substrate for CYP450, which converts it to B[a]P-7,8-oxide (this is an electrophile)
The body has a defence mechanism – epoxide hydrolase converts the oxide to a dihydrodiol (B[a]P-7,8-dihydrodiol)
This is inactive
However, this dihydrodiol is also a substrate for CYP450, which converts it to another oxide (B[a]P-7,8-dihydrodiol-9,10-oxide)
This even more reactive than the previous oxide – it goes on to form DNA adducts

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10
Q

Where does aflatoxin B1 come from? What type of carcinogen is it, and it which countries do you find the greatest cancer incidences?

A
  • Formed by Aspergillus flavus mould which is common on poorly stored grains and peanuts
  • It is a potent human liver carcinogen, especially in Africa and Far-East
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11
Q

Describe the metabolism/epoxidation of aflatoxin B1

A

Converted to aflatoxin B1, 2,3-epoxide by CYP450.

This metabolite then reacts with the guanine bases at the N7 position => DNA adduct formation

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12
Q

State two past components of dyestuffs that are potent carcinogens. State also the type of carcinogen

A

Benzidine and 2-naphthylamine

Potent human bladder carcinogens

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13
Q

Describe and explain the mechanism by which 2-naphthylamine is metabolised to become a bladder carcinogen.

A
  • 2-naphthylamine is converted by CYP450 to a reactive hydroxylamine derivative
  • In phase II (also in liver) it is then inactivated by glucuronidation (catalysed by glucuronyl transferase)
  • The inactive metabolite is excreted by the liver and then it goes to the bladder where it mixes with the urine

The ACIDITY of the urine => hydrolysis of the glucuronides and subsequent formation of a nitrenium ion
=> This is electrophilic so it leads to the formation of DNA adducts

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14
Q

What does UV radiation lead to the formation of in DNA?

A

Pyrimidine (thymine) dimers

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15
Q

What does ionising radiation generate?

A

Free radicals in cells

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16
Q

Name 2 oxygen free radicals. What makes them so dangerous?

A
Superoxide radical (O2.)
Hydroxyl radical (HO.)

They possess unpaired electrons so are electrophilic and therefore seek out electron-rich DNA

17
Q

What are the consequences of oxygen free radical attack on DNA?

A
  • Single and Double strand breaks
  • Apurinic and apyrimidic sites

Base modifications:

  • Ring-opened guanine and adenine
  • Thymine and cytosine glycols
  • 8-hydroxyadenine and 8-hydroxyguanine (mutagenic)
18
Q

What is the p53 gene?

A

The p53 gene lies on chromosome 17 and codes for a nuclear phosphoprotein having three major roles:

  1. It can activate DNA repair proteins when DNA has sustained damage
  2. It can arrest growth by holding the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoint allowing time for repair proteins to fix the damage
  3. Participation in initiating apoptosis.
19
Q

What are the p53 mediated responses to mild/physiological and severe cellular stress (described earlier)?

A

Mild – repair the damage and restore the normal function of the cell
Severe – apoptosis

20
Q

What are the main mechanisms of DNA repair?

A

Direct reversal of DNA damage
Base excision repair
Nucleotide excision repair
During- and post-replication repair

21
Q

Describe two examples of direct reversal of DNA damage.

A
  1. Photolyase splits cyclobutane-pyrimidine dimers

2. O6 methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase or MGMT (and alkyltransferases) remove alkyl groups from the bases

22
Q

Describe the process of base excision repair (BER)

A

DNA glycosylase hydrolyses between the base and the sugar (removes base and adduct)
AP endonuclease causes a break in the DNA backbone (where the removed base was)
DNA polymerase then fills in the missing base (using the complementary strand as template)
DNA ligase then fixes the DNA backbone

23
Q

Describe the process of nucleotide excision repair (NER)

A

Endonuclease makes two cuts in the DNA on either side of the site of damage (this demarcates a patch of DNA on the one strand)
Helicase then removes this patch
DNA polymerase replaces the missing bases
DNA ligase joins the DNA up

24
Q

What comes under during and post replication repair?

A

Mismatch repair

Recombinational repair

25
Q

Describe the process of DNA mismatch repair

A

Mismatch Repair involves scrutinisation of DNA for apposed bases that do not pair properly => ‘bulge’ in DNA

  • Mismatches that arise during replication are corrected by comparing the old and new strands [proof-reading].
  • Recognition of a mismatch requires several different proteins including one encoded by MSH2.
  • Cutting the mismatch out also requires several proteins, including one encoded by MLH1.
  • Note the preference for newly synthesised strand.
26
Q

In what 3 ways are DNA double strands made?

A

Under physiological conditions during somatic recombination and transposition. e.g. V(D)J recombination

During Homologous Recombination.

As a result of ionizing radiation and oxidative stress induced DNA damage.

27
Q

State the main mechanism of repair of double-strand breaks

A

Nonhomologous End-Joining (NHEJ), which involves direct joining of the broken ends.

A protein called Ku is essential for NHEJ.

28
Q

State 3 Human Genetic Diseases Involving NER defects

A

Xeroderma Pigmentosum
Trichothiodystrophy
Cockayne’s syndrome

29
Q

Describe the possible fates of carcinogen-DNA damage.

A

Low level of damage => effective repair => return to being a normal cell

Severe damage => apoptosis

Carcinogen causing altered DNA => incorrect repair/altered primary sequence => DNA replication and cell division with a fixed mutation => transcription and translation giving aberrant proteins or carcinogenesis if oncogenes/TSGs mutated

30
Q

Describe the process of testing whether a chemical can cause carcinogenesis.

A

Look at structure of compound
Test in vitro on bacteria
Test in vitro on mammalian cells
Test in vivo on mammals

31
Q

Describe the bacterial (Ames) test for mutagenicity of chemicals.

A

This test usually uses Salmonella strain
The bacterium is genetically engineered so that it can’t produce histidine, so it can only survive and grow on a culture medium that has exogenous histidine
The compound to be tested is, firstly, incubated with rat liver enzymes containing CYP450 enzymes to metabolise the chemical into an active form that can be carcinogenic
The bacteria are mixed with the active chemical and then placed on a culture medium with NO histidine
Any colonies that survive will have become mutated by the chemical so that it regains the ability to produce its own histidine and hence can grow in the absence of histidine
Any bacteria that hasn’t been mutated will die on the dish
The greater the DNA damaging capability of the chemical, the more colonies will grow in the absence of histidine

32
Q

What are the two in vitro assays on mammalian cells to test for carcinogenicity?

A
  1. Detecting Chromosomal abberations

2. Micronucleus assays.

33
Q

How would you detect chromosomal abberations?

A

Treat mammalian cells with chemical in presence of liver S9.
Look for chromosomal damage

34
Q

Describe the use of in vitro micronucleus assays.

A

This is trying to measure the ability of a chemical to break up DNA into fragments
Cells treated with chemical and then allowed to go through one replication cycle then stop it when it’s at the binucleus stage – this is when you check for the presence of micronuclei

35
Q

What is used to block cytokinesis and hold the cell in the binucleate stage in the micronucleus assay?

A

Cytochalasin-B

36
Q

What are the two types of chromosomal damage that can be detected by the micronucleus assay? How do you determine this?

A

Can stain the kinetochore proteins to determine if chemical treatment caused clastgenicity (chromosomal breakage) or aneuploidy (chromosomal loss)

37
Q

Explain the reasoning behind the use of bone marrow micronucleus assay to test the mutagenicity of a chemical.

A

Bone marrow is pluripotent
The animals are treated with the chemical and their bone marrow cells and peripheral erythrocytes are examined for the presence of micronuclei
Erythrocytes normally remove the nucleus during development, but it CANNOT remove small fragments of DNA e.g. a micronucleus
So the presence of micronuclei in erythrocytes indicates DNA damage