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NEUR 2700 Tests > DNA and DNA sequencing -Test 2 > Flashcards

DNA and DNA sequencing -Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between purines and pyramidines?

A

Purines have a two-ring structure, whereas pyramidines have a single-ring structure

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2
Q

How many carbon atoms are present in the ribose sugar, molecule, a component of RNA?

A

5

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3
Q

What is the main structural difference between deoxyribose and ribose sugars, which are components of DNA and RNA, respectively?

A

Deoxyribose has one less oxygen atom than ribose

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4
Q

Which histone proteins are part of the nucleusome core particle?

A

H2A, H2B, H3, H4

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5
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle do nucleusomes undergo significant reorganization?

A

S phase

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6
Q

What is the primary role of histones in the structure of nucleusomes?

A

Form complexes with DNA, aiding in its package and organization

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7
Q

How do histones interact with DNA in the nucleosome structure?

A

Histones carry positive charges, and bind to the negatively charged DNA in a specific conformation

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8
Q

Which amino acids are particularly rich in positive charges and are commonly found in the histone proteins that interact with DNA in nucleosomes?

A

Arginine and Lysine

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9
Q

What is the primary role of the histone H1 in the nucleosome structure?

A

Mediate interactions between adjacent nucleosomes

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10
Q

Which of the following is an example of an epigenetic modification of histones?

A

Methylation

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11
Q

What is the most accurate definition of epigenetics?

A

Heritable changes in gene function that do not involve alterations to the underlying DNA sequence

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12
Q

How do histone epigenetic changes impact nucleosome structure?

A

They involve post-translational modifications to histone proteins, influencing chromatin structure and gene expression

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13
Q

What is the role of chromosome compaction during metaphase in cell division?

A

Aiding in chromosomes segregation

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14
Q

What characterizes the genetic code, making it nearly universal with only rare variations reported?

A

Uniformity in the arrangement of nucleotide triplets (codons) that code for amino acids

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15
Q

Which cellular process involves the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template?

A

Transcription

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16
Q

Which subcellular organelle/particle is involved in the process of translation within the cell?

A

Ribosome

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17
Q

What is the primary factor that determines the migration of DNA fragments during gel electrophoresis?

A

Size of the DNA fragments

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18
Q

In DNA gel electrophoresis, which direction do DNA fragments migrate in the gel?

A

Towards the positive electrode (anode)

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19
Q

What is the primary function of Tris in TAE buffer used for DNA electrophoresis?

A

Stabilize the pH of the buffer

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20
Q

Why is EDTA included in TAE buffer for DNA electrophoresis?

A

Chelate divalent cations, preventing nucleases activity

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21
Q

What is a potential advantage of using TAE buffer over TBE buffer in DNA electrophoresis?

A

TAE provides better resolution of small DNA fragments

22
Q

What is a notable advantage of using TBE buffer compared to TAE buffer in DNA electrophoresis?

A

TBE provides higher gel resolution for large DNA fragments

23
Q

When separating PCR products, which buffer system is commonly preferred to achieve optimal resolution and sharp banding?

A

TAE buffer

24
Q

In the separation of genomic DNA, which buffer system is often chosen to minimize DNA degradation, getting better resolution and achieve consistent results?

A

TBE buffer

25
Q

What is the definition of a karyotype in genetics?

A

The visual representation of an individual’s complete set of chromosomes

26
Q

What is an idiogram in the context of cytogenetics?

A

A graphical representation of chromosome, morphology and banding patterns

27
Q

Which of the following contributes to the characteristic light and dark band seen in a chromosome’s banding pattern?

A

Alternating regions of condensed and decondensed chromatin

28
Q

How is the banding pattern of chromosomes typically detected in cytogenetic analysis?

A

Staining with specific dyes that highlight the pattern of condensed and decondensed regions

29
Q

Cytogenetics, how is the banding pattern of chromosomes utilized for identification and analysis?

A

It aids in the visualization of chromosomal abnormalities and structural variations

30
Q

In which DNA sequencing method is the incorporation of labeled nucleotides detected through the release of pyrophosphate, leading to a measurable light signal?

A

Pyrosequencing

31
Q

What is the primary function of apyrase in pyrosequencing technology?

A

Removes excess nucleotides from the sequencing reaction

32
Q

What is a key difference between Sanger sequencing and Maxam-Gilbert sequencing?

A

Sanger sequencing involves DNA synthesis using labeled nucleotides, while Maxam- Gilbert sequencing relies on chemical cleavage of DNA at specific bases

33
Q

In which sequencing method is the DNA ladder produced by chain-termination, resulting in fragments of varying lengths?

A

Sanger sequencing

34
Q

What is the fundamental basis of nanopore DNA sequencing?

A

Detection of electrical changes as DNA passes through a nanopore

35
Q

Arrange the following DNA sequencing technologies in chronological order based on their development, starting from the earliest:
A) Next-generation sequencing (NGS)
B) Sanger sequencing
C) Maxam-Gilbert sequencing
D) Nanopore sequencing

A

B, C, A, D

36
Q

In modern science, how does the application of DNA sequencing technology contribute to research and discovery?

A

Facilitating rapid and accurate identification of genetic variations

37
Q

How have human genome projects contributed to research and understanding neuroscience?

A

By providing insights into the genetic basis of neurological disorders

38
Q

Which of the following genome data browsers is hosted by the university of California, Santa Cruz, providing a comprehensive collection of genomic data?

A

UCSC Genome browser

39
Q

What is the correct sequence of the central dogma of molecular biology?

A

DNA to RNA to protein

40
Q

During transcription, what is the primary function of RNA polymerase?

A

Synthesizing RNA from DNA

41
Q

Which of the following components is not directly involved in the process of transcription?

A

Ribosome

42
Q

Which cellular structure is primarily responsible for carrying out the process of translation?

A

Ribosome

43
Q

During translation, what is the role of transfer RNA (tRNA)?

A

Carrying amino acids to the ribosome

44
Q

In translation, what is the purpose of the anticodon on tRNA?

A

Recognizes the mRNA codon

45
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for the removal of introns and the splicing together of exons during mRNA processing?

A

Spliceosome

46
Q

Which of the following accurately describes some aspects of Intron in eukaryotic genes?

A

They are spliced out during RNA processing

47
Q

What is the degeneracy of the genetic code?

A

Some amino acids are coded by multiple codons

48
Q

Which of the following statements about the start codon is correct?

A

The star codon codes for the amino acid methionine

49
Q

Where does the process of RNA splicing predominantly take place within eukaryotic cells?

A

Nucleus

50
Q

What is the primary function of RNA splicing in eukaryotic cells?

A

Removal of introns from pre-mRNA

NEUR 2700 Tests (2 decks)

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