DLM Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Can husband and wife at same Lab use FMLA for child?

A
  • Employees are eligible for leave if they have worked for their employer at least 12 months, at least 1,250 hours over the past 12 months, and work at a location where the company employs 50 or more employees within 75 miles. The 12 months of employment do not have to be consecutive.
  • including a joint employer or successor in interest to a covered employer
  • An eligible employee may also take up to 26 workweeks of leave during a “single 12-month period” to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness, when the employee is the spouse, son, daughter, parent, or next of kin of the servicemember.
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2
Q

Who does FMLA apply to?

A
  • FMLA applies to all public agencies, all public and private elementary and secondary schools, and companies with 50 or more employees. These employers must provide an eligible employee with up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave each year for any of the following reasons:
  • for the birth and care of the newborn child of an employee;
  • for placement with the employee of a child for adoption or foster care;
  • to care for an immediate family member (spouse, child, or parent) with a serious health condition; or
  • to take medical leave when the employee is unable to work because of a serious health condition.
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3
Q

What are the phases of testing implementation?

A

Initial

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4
Q

How many hours constitute a full time employee?

A
  • Full-time employees that work at least 30 hours per week in any month are counted as one full-time employee. Must work 120 days per year.
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5
Q

How are FTEs determined?

A
  • Full-time employees that work at least 30 hours per week in any month are counted as one full-time employee. Must work 120 days per year. This amount is added to the number of part-time employees.
  • Part-time employees are calculated by taking the hours worked by all part-time employees in a week and dividing that amount by 30.
  • Seasonal employees aren’t counted in the calculation for those working up to 120 days in a year.
  • An FTE of 1.0 (40 hours/week x 52 weeks/year = 2080 / year)
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6
Q

How many additional FTEs are needed given the following information?
Current workload = 5,000,000 Current staff = 50 FTE
Current productivity = 48 units per hour per FTE
Next years expected workload = 6,000,000 units
Next years expected productivity = 50 units per hour per FTE

A

Workload/Productivity = 6,000,000/50 = 120,000 required hours
Required hours/2080 (hrs/FTE/Yr) = 120,000/2080 = 57.7 FTEs required
*Need 8 additional FTEs (50+8)= 58

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7
Q

What are the 5 budget components

A
Capital 
Income
Personnel
Operating budget
Indirect expenses
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8
Q

Capital

A

Budget component that:

  • This is the purchase of asset that has expected useful life of more than one year.
  • The purchase is reflected on the hospital’ s balance sheet.
  • The actual purchase is not calculated into profit or loss for the year.
  • It does, however, appear in the operational budget of the laboratory and is an expense item listed as Depreciation.
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9
Q

Instrument cost breakdown

A
  • How much will it cost (depreciation, QC, calibration, utilities)
    • Labor Costs
    – Direct
    – Indirect
    • Material Costs: Reagents, Pipettes, Paper, Indirect
    • ROI = (gain from investment minus cost of investment) divided by cost of investment
    • Acquisition Options ( financing decisions)
      – Purchase – Lease
      – Reagent Rental (Cost per test)
      – Used Equipment
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10
Q

ROI Calculation

A

ROI = (gain from investment minus cost of investment) divided by cost of investment
Example:
Initial cost of equipment = 200,000
Useful life in months= 60 months
Savings per month 3500= 3500x12= 42,000 per year or 42,000x5= 210,000 years
ROI= (210,000-200,000)/200,000= 0.05 or 5%

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11
Q

Income sources in budget

A
Sources of revenue:
Medicare (In/Out Pt, A/B)
– Medicaid
– Private Insurance
– Managed Care including ACO
– Professional (Management) Fee
– Other (Incentives, HIT, PQRS, etc )
– MINUS Discounts and contractual allowances
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12
Q

Personnel component of budget

A

Relevant factors:
• Evaluation of current workload and productivity
• Expected workload
• Changes in productivity
• Changes in staffing/scheduling
• Changes to accommodate new or expanded programs
Justification:
• Increased workload and productivity
• Improved service (e.g., decreased TAT)
• Decreased length of stay
• Increased revenue or decreased cost (e.g., reference test in house)

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13
Q

Operating Budget (Supply & Expense) Components

A
  • Reagents - leases
    • Supplies - transfers to other departments
    • Purchased services (blood, reference lab)
  • rent and other utilities for satellite lab
    • Maintenance - marketing
    • Physician fees - transportation and communication costs
    • Education/travel - computer costs
    • QA - safety
  • Depreciation
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14
Q

Projected Operating Budget Calculation

A

Current Operating Budget X % Change in Workload X % Change in Inflation Rate=
Projected Operating Budget
Example:
Current operating budget = 6,000,000 Assume a 5% increase and 3% inflation:
**Projected operating budget =
6,000,000x.05=300,000+6,000,000=6,300,000
6,300,000x.03=189,000
6,000,000+189,000+300,000=
6,489,000

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15
Q

Indirect Expense Budget Component (Overhead)

A

Common overhead expenses allocated to the laboratory:
• Space (Buildings and maintenance). Based on square feet.
• Utilities - based on square feet
• Hospital Administration - based on % of revenue
• Personnel Services - based on % of Personnel budget
• Purchasing services - based on % of Operating budget

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16
Q

Cost Driven Pricing Model

A

– Gross expected revenue - deductions and allowances - budgeted direct and indirect expenses = net revenue
– Net revenue plus profit (5-10%) = adjusted gross revenue
– Adjust current fees to meet new adjusted gross revenue

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17
Q
How much should fees be adjusted by given the following information:
Deductions & allowances= 20,000,000
Direct Expense=22,000,000
Indirect expense=8,000,000
Expected profit = 5,000,000
A

Example:
Anticipated gross Revenue (current fees)=50,000,000
Net revenue =Expenses-Net revenue= 20+22+8=50-50=0
Expected profit=5,000,000
Required gross revenue=50+5=55,000,000
Increase fee by 10%
(55,000,000-5,000,000)/55,000,000=.99%

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18
Q

Costs to consider when implementing new tests

A
Prime costs
Indirect costs
Lab overhead cost
Hospital allocated overhead
Total test cost equals 4 above costs
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19
Q

Prime Costs

A

– instrument cost including maintenance
– direct material costs
– direct labor costs

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20
Q

Indirect costs

A

– general laboratory supplies
– indirect labor (supervision/training)
– other indirect (research)

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21
Q

Laboratory overhead

A

Specimen collection & processing
– Result reporting
– Laboratory Information System
– Laboratory management and direction
– Continuing Education- School of Medical Technology
– Quality Assurance
– Marketing
– Communication
- Depreciation

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22
Q

Does the ADA require an employee to be hired or considered?

A
  • The ADA does not require that an employer hire an applicant with a disability over other applicants because the person has a disability. The ADA only prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability.
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23
Q

Who is covered by the ADA?

A

The part of the ADA enforced by the EEOC outlaws job discrimination by:

  • all employers, including State and local government employers, with 25 or more employees after July 26, 1992, and
  • all employers, including State and local government employers, with 15 or more employees after July 26, 1994.
  • Under the ADA, you have a disability if you have a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits a major life activity.
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24
Q

What constitutes a substantial impairment?

A
  • To be protected under the ADA, you must have, have a record of, or be regarded as having a substantial, as opposed to a minor, impairment. A substantial impairment is one that significantly limits or restricts a major life activity such as: major life activities include, but are not limited to, caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, communicating, and working.
  • An employer is required to provide a reasonable accommodation to a qualified applicant or employee with a disability unless the employer can show that the accommodation would be an undue hardship – that is, that it would require significant difficulty or expense.
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25
Q

The ADA makes it unlawful to discriminate based on:

A

The ADA makes it unlawful to discriminate in all employment practices such as:

  • recruitment
  • firing
  • hiring
  • training
  • job assignments
  • promotions
  • pay
  • benefits
  • lay off
  • leave
26
Q

ADA prohibited questions and subjects

A
  • If you are applying for a job, an employer cannot ask you if you are disabled or ask about the nature or severity of your disability.
  • An employer cannot require you to take a medical examination before you are offered a job.
  • Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (Pub. L. 90-202) (ADEA), prohibits employment discrimination against persons 40 years of age or older
  • Alcoholism is a disability, so don’t ask, “Are you an alcoholic?” You may ask, “Do you drink?” but not, “How much do you drink each week?”
  • Use caution when asking about drug use. You may ask, “Have you ever used illegal drugs?” But don’t ask, “How often have you used drugs illegally in the past?” Don’t ask, “Have you ever been treated for drug addiction?” The ADA does not prohibit an employer from asking about arrests or convictions relating to drugs
  • You can ask, “How many days of work did you miss last year?” But don’t ask, “How many sick days did you take last year?” If the applicant says, “I was absent six months last year,” you cannot ask why.
  • Don’t try to circumvent these rules by calling the applicant’s former employer. If you can’t ask the applicant something, you can’t ask anyone else.
  • Tests designed to measure an applicant’s mental health or impairment are not permitted. You may give a test to see if an applicant is likely to lie. But if you work with a psychologist to look for a pattern of answers suggesting a psychological impairment, the test is not permissible.
  • Drug tests are legal at the pre-offer stage. But the employer may not ask questions about drug use at the time of the test.
27
Q

INTERVIEW QUESTIONS THAT VIOLATE THE ADA

A

How many sick days did you take last year?
Have you ever been injured on the job or filed a workers’ compensation claim?
Are you in good health?
Do you have cancer [or AIDS, epilepsy, diabetes, etc.]?
How much do you drink each week?
Have you ever been treated for alcohol or drug addiction?
Have you ever been treated for mental illness?
Do you have a disability that would affect your job performance?
What kind of prescription drugs do you take?
When are you planning on having kids?
Will you need any religious holidays off?
What country are you from?
How often are you on reservist duty?
Will you be deployed any time soon?”
“What type of discharge did you receive from the military
Are you married?
How old are you?
No questions about outstanding debt.
Employers have to have permission before asking about your credit history. Similar to a criminal background history, they can’t disqualify you from employment unless it directly affects your ability to perform the position you’re interviewing for.
- You Cannot Ask: Have you ever had a speeding ticket? (Unless the job requires a clean driving record
- Can’t ask if in a union
- Questions related to Age, religion, nationality, marital status, gender, health and physical abilities, do you live nearby, how far is your commute, were you honorably discharged,

28
Q

Are drugs a disability?

A

No.

  • Anyone who is currently using drugs illegally is not protected by the ADA and may be denied employment or fired on the basis of such use. The ADA does not prevent employers from testing applicants or employees for current illegal drug use.
  • No Discrimination against: has successfully completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program and is no longer engaging in the illegal use of drugs, or has otherwise been rehabilitated successfully and is no longer engaging in such use; is participating in a supervised rehabilitation program and is no longer engaging in such use.
  • may hold an employee who engages in the illegal use of drugs or who is an alcoholic to the same qualification standards for employment or job performance and behavior that such entity holds other employees, even if any unsatisfactory performance or behavior is related to the drug use or alcoholism of such employee
29
Q

Capitated managed contract

A
  • In a capitated managed contract is up for the provider or the patients who assumes the risk
  • The healthcare provider is paid by an HMO or managed care organization a set dollar amount per month to see patients regardless of how many treatments or the number of times the physician or clinic sees the patient.
  • The agreement is that the provider will get a flat, prearranged payment in advance per month. Whether or not the patient needs services for a particular month, the provider will still get paid the same fee. The more treatment a patient needs, the less money a health provider makes.
  • Providers who work under such plans focus on preventive health care, as there is a greater financial reward in the prevention of illness than in the treatment of the ill. Such plans divert providers from the use of expensive treatment options.
30
Q

Bundled payment, also known as episode-based payment, episode payment, episode-of-care payment, case rate, evidence-based case rate, global bundled payment, global payment, package pricing, or packaged pricing definition.

A
  • Reimbursement of health care providers (such as hospitals and physicians) “on the basis of expected costs for clinically-defined episodes of care. It has been described as “a middle ground” between fee-for-service reimbursement (in which providers are paid for each service rendered to a patient) and capitation (in which providers are paid a “lump sum” per patient regardless of how many services the patient receives), given that *risk is shared between payer and provider. Bundled payments have been proposed in the health care reform debate in the United States as a strategy for reducing health care costs, especially during the Obama administration. Commercial payers have shown interest in bundled payments in order to reduce costs.
  • Bundled payment discourages unnecessary care, encourages coordination across providers, and potentially improves quality.
  • Unlike capitation, bundled payment does not penalize providers for caring for sicker patients.
31
Q

CLIA requirements test for competency

A

The following six (6) procedures are the minimal regulatory requirements for assessment of competency for all personnel performing laboratory testing:

  1. Direct observations of routine patient test performance, including patient preparation, if applicable, specimen handling, processing and testing;
  2. Monitoring the recording and reporting of test results;
  3. Review of intermediate test results or worksheets, quality control records, proficiency testing results, and preventive maintenance records;
    * TQ 4. Direct observations of performance of instrument maintenance and function checks;
  4. Assessment of test performance through testing previously analyzed specimens, internal blind testing samples or external proficiency testing samples; and
  5. Assessment of problem solving skills.
32
Q

Who requires competency assessment?

A
  • Documented competency assessment is required for individuals fullling the following personnel responsibilities outlined in Subpart M of the CLIA regulations: clinical consultant (CC), technical consultant (TC), technical supervisor (TS), general supervisor (GS) and testing personnel (TP). Clinical consultants, technical consultants, technical supervisors, and general supervisors who perform testing on patient specimens are required to have the six required procedures in their competency assessment in addition to a competency assessment based on their federal regulatory responsibilities.
33
Q

Who is responsible for performing the competency assessment?

A
  • Technical Consultant for moderate complexity testing
  • Technical Supervisor for high complexity testing (42 CFR 493.1451(b)(8)) is responsible for performing and documenting competency assessments. This responsibility can be delegated, in writing, to a General Supervisor as long as the GS meets the regulatory qualifications as a GS for high complexity testing.
  • Documentation of training does not satisfy the requirement for documented competency assessment.
  • Competency assessment is not required by CLIA for non-testing personnel (e.g., phlebotomists, accessioning personnel, etc).
34
Q

IQCP

A
  • IQCP stands for Individualized Quality Control Plan and is the alternative CLIA quality control (QC) option that will provide for equivalent quality testing to meet the CLIA regulations for nonwaived tests.
  • IQCP is voluntary. However, if you do not participate in IQCP, your laboratory must perform 2 levels of external controls on each test system for each day of testing and also follow all specialty/subspecialty requirements in the CLIA regulations for nonwaived tests.
35
Q

3 Components of IQCP

A
  1. Risk Assessment
    Risk Assessment (RA)
    Risk Assessment is the means of identifying and evaluating potential problems or errors that may occur in your testing process. e testing process begins with the specimen collection (preanalytic) and continues through the analysis of the specimen (analytic) until the nal test result is reported (postanalytic).
    There are five components you must evaluate in your Risk Assessment (RA):
    • Specimen
    • Test System
    • Reagents
    • Environment
    • Testing Personnel
    2.Quality Control Plan
    Your data must support the rationale for the number, type and frequency of testing. It’s possible that you may nd your customized QCP will be less than the CLIA control requirements, but more than the manufacturer’s instructions for controls. However, at a minimum, your QCP must not be less stringent than the manufacturer’s instructions for testing QC. e QCP may also describe the use of electronic controls, procedural controls, training and competency assessment and all other QC activities.
  2. Quality Assessment
    • Proficiency testing records (test score, testing failures, trends),
    • Patient results review,
    • Specimen rejection logs,
    • Turnaround time reports,
    • Records of preventive measures,
    • Corrective actions and follow-up and, • Personnel competency records.
36
Q

What is covered by Medicare Part B?

A

Part B covers 2 types of services:

  • Medically necessary services: Services or supplies that are needed to diagnose or treat your medical condition and that meet accepted standards of medical practice.
  • Preventive services: Health care to prevent illness (like the flu) or detect it at an early stage, when treatment is most likely to work best.

Part B covers things like:

  • Clinical research
  • Ambulance services
  • Durable medical equipment (DME)
  • Mental health
    • Inpatient
    • Outpatient
    • Partial hospitalization
  • Getting a second opinion before surgery
37
Q

Medicare Part A covers

A

In general, Part A covers:

  • Hospital care
  • Skilled nursing facility care
  • Nursing home care (as long as custodial care isn’t the only care you need)
  • Hospice
  • Home health services
  • Private health insurance, Medicare, and Medicaid do not pay for autopsy examinations.
38
Q

What does the fair labor standard act cover

A
  • The FLSA establishes minimum wage, overtime pay, recordkeeping, and youth employment standards affecting employees in the private sector and in Federal, State, and local governments. Covered nonexempt workers are entitled to a minimum wage of not less than $7.25 per hour effective July 24, 2009. Overtime pay at a rate not less than one and one-half times the regular rate of pay is required after 40 hours of work in a workweek.
  • There is no limit on the number of hours employees 16 years or older may work in any workweek. The FLSA does not require overtime pay for work on weekends, holidays, or regular days of rest, unless overtime is worked on such days.
39
Q

The FLSA does not require:

A
  1. vacation, holiday, severance, or sick pay;
  2. meal or rest periods, holidays off, or vacations;
  3. premium pay for weekend or holiday work;
  4. pay raises or fringe benefits; or
  5. a discharge notice, reason for discharge, or immediate payment of final wages to terminated employeeS
40
Q

Retention Requirements

A

a) The laboratory must retain its records and, as applicable, slides, blocks, and tissues as follows:
(1) Test requisitions and authorizations. Retain records of test requisitions and test authorizations, including the patient’s chart or medical record if used as the test requisition or authorization, for at least 2 years.
(2) Test procedures. Retain a copy of each test procedure for at least 2 years after a procedure has been discontinued. Each test procedure must include the dates of initial use and discontinuance.
(3) Analytic systems records. Retain quality control and patient test records (including instrument printouts, if applicable) and all analytic systems activities specified in Sec. Sec. 493.1252 through 493.1289 for at least 2 years.
Proficiency testing records. Retain all proficiency testing records for at least 2 years.
(5) Laboratory quality systems assessment records. Retain all laboratory quality systems assessment records for at least 2 years.
- Pathology test reports for at least 10 years after the date of reporting. (7) Slide, block, and tissue retention–
(i) Slides.
(A) Retain cytology slide preparations for at least 5 years from the date of examination (see Sec. 493.1274(f) for proficiency testing exception).
(B) Retain histopathology slides for at least 10 years from the date of examination.
(ii) Blocks. Retain pathology specimen blocks for at least 2 years from the date of examination.
- Preserve remnants of tissue for pathology examination until a diagnosis is made on the specimen

41
Q

Change management is the process of managing changes based on:

A

Developmental: planned process change
Transitional: professional practice change.
Transformational: Responding to a forced change

42
Q

Models for Change

A

Models for change:
Bridges 3-stage transitional:
Addresses human dynamics involves change, step change announced, transition path.
1. Ending, losing and letting go
2. The neutral zone (uncertainty, slow path to acceptance, quick criticism, step towards understanding)
3. The new beginning (acceptance, embrace change)

Kotters 8 stage change model:
8 stage process to assist with implementation

43
Q

Divergent thinking:

A

nonconformist, risk taking

44
Q

Convergent thinking

A

Convergent thinking: logical, black and white, linked to knowledge

45
Q

STEEP

A

Analysis areas for developing a strategic plan and performing a environmental scan: social, technological, economic, environmental, political agendas

46
Q

5 C’s of communication

A
Clarity of a message
completeness in understanding with no ambiguity
conciseness of message
concreteness by avoiding idioms
correctness ensuring factual information
47
Q

ISO 15189

A

ISO 15189 addresses QM

48
Q

CVa

CVi

A

CVa is the analytical variant
CVi is the intra-individual variant

The factors which combine to give the variability in individual results taken from a healthy population are the CVa, the within-person biological CV (CVi) and the between-person biological CV (CVg). All three of these factors are combined to give the spread of results found in a population (CVp).
The factors which combine to give the variability of results in a patient in steady state are the CVa and the CVi.

49
Q

Index of Individuality

A

Ratio of less than 0.6% are good candidates for Delta checks as they don’t vary a lot within an individual from test to test. Therefore big changes could show specimen issue. EX. ALKP, TBil, Creatinine, MCV

50
Q

Red flag results that point to specimen not patient

A
Serum K greater than 11
Creatinine very abnormal, but normal BUN
Dbil much greater than Tbil. 
Albumin  greater than TP (analytical bubble or short sample, etc)
AST and ALT very discordant
51
Q

Test for nutritional status

A

1-25 dihydroxy is not appropriate for nutrition testing. Test for vit d nutritional status using 25-hydroxy D instead.

52
Q

ESR utility

A

Cancel if have another one within 48 hours. Changes very little over course of a few days.

53
Q

Control policy for non-waived testing

A

Must run two levels of liquid QC each day of testing or have an IQCP.

54
Q

How simulated internal QC works

A

Simulated internal QC – Diagnostic check of the edge connector , internal electronics, and analyte circuitry. Internal QC simulates electronic signals produced by the sensors during a cartridge test. Is automatically performed by the instrument every 8 hours.

55
Q

IQCP

A

IQCP QC cannot be done less often than the manufacturer’s recommendation.

56
Q

Interfering Substances on Glucose Meters

A

Chose meter that can detect interfering substances.

ACTM falsely increases results on glucose dehydrogenase and false decreases results on some glucose oxidase meters.

Vitamin C falsely increases results on some glucose dehydrogenase and falsely decreases results on glucose oxidase meters.

Some Maltose glucose dehydrogenase PQQ detection systems used in glucose meters falsely increase results. The maltose is added to the glucose value thus giving an elevating result.

57
Q

RISK

A

From the ISO the frequency is used to estimate risk. Risk can be estimated through a combination of the probability of occurrence and harm and the severity of that harm.

58
Q

Lab utilization

A

Lab accounts for about 4% of hospital budget, but 60-70% of medical decisions come from lab

59
Q

Total cost of a test

A

Preanalytic: Phleb labor and supplies

Analytic: All fixed and variable direct and indirect costs.

Postanalytic: Cost of reporting and downstream medical costs

60
Q

Variable vs Fixed costs

A

For high volume automated testing, it is best to eliminate tubes as opposed to removing one test from a panel performed on a single instrument. Removing one test only changes variable costs, not fixed cost.

61
Q

Delta Checks

A

Delta checking is a process of identifying errors in individual patient results by reviewing the difference from previous results of the same patient. This process is generally used to detect individual results which may be affected by various errors, either preanalytical or analytical.
The AOD is similar to the AON except that rather than taking the average of a number of results from individual patients, an average of a number of delta values from individual patients is made and this value tracked over time.

62
Q

Average of Normals

A

An alternative method for identifying changes in assay performance is the average of normals (AON), where the average of a number of patients’ results is used to identify
assay changes.This process is used most commonly on routine hematology analysers and referred to as Bull’s algorithm