Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DIT Questions > DIT 1 > Flashcards

DIT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

MC malignancy in children

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MC solid tumor location in children

A

brain tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2 MC brain tumors in children

A

1 astrocytoma and #2 medulloblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MC supratentorial brain tumor in children

A

craniopharyngioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MC malignant bone tumor in children

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MC malignant bone tumor overall

A

Multiple Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2nd MC primary bone malignancy overall

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MC tumor of adrenal medulla in children

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MC renal tumor in children

A

Wilms tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MC primary cardiac tumor in kids

A

rhabdomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Calf pseudohypertrophy is assoc with

A

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gower maneuver is characteristic of

A

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Subluxation of lenses is seen in

A

Marfans syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lung CAs assoc w/ NON-smokers & their location

A

MC is bronchial adenocarcinoma; also mesothelioma and bronchioalveolar adenocarcinoma; All located in PERIPHERY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lung CAs assoc w/ SMOKERS & their location

A

Squamous cell and small cell carcinomas; both located CENTRALLY (C is for central and cigarettes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Proto-oncogene MC assoc with Hirschsprung disease

A

RET gene mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fungal infection that causes diaper rash

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

OPPORTUNISTIC mold with SEPTATE hyphae that branch at <45deg angle

A

Aspergillus fumigatus (A is Acute Angles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

OPPORTUNISTIC mold with irregular NONSEPTATE hyphae that branch at angles >90deg

A

Mucor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dimorphic fungi common to SW USA or “valley” fever

A

Coccidioides immitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fungal infection that causes thrush in immunocompromised pts

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fungal infection that causes vulvovaginitis in women

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dimporphic fungi with Broad-Based Budding yeast

A

Blastomycosis (B B B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fungal infection known for causing pneumonia in AIDS pts

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Prophylaxis for P jirovecii in AIDS pts

A

Start TMP-SMX when CD4 < 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fungal infection common to Mississippi and Ohio river valleys; found in bird and bat feces

A

Histoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dimorphic fungi that causes a skin infection in those pricked by a thorn

A

Sporothrix schenckii (SporoTHORN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Yeast known for causing meningitis in AIDS pts

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MC cause of Osteomyelitis

A

S. aureus (always assume S. aureus causes osteomyelitis if no other info is available)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cause of osteomyelitis in SEXUALLY ACTIVE pt

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (rare), N. gonorrhoeae is more likely to cause septic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cause of osteomyelitis in DIABETICS and IV DRUG users

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa & Serratia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cause of osteomyelitis in SICKLE CELL pts

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cause of osteomyelitis in PROSTHETIC REPLACEMENT pts

A

S. aureus and S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cause of osteomylitis in pts with VERTEBRAL DISEASE

A

TB (Pott’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cause of osteomyelitis in pts with CAT AND DOG bites or scratches

A

Pasteurella multocida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Classic findings in OSTEOMYELITIS

A

Elevated CRP and ESR (not specific); most often occurs in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Peripheral smear finding in LEAD POISONING

A

BasoPhilic stippling of RBCs (Pb –> BP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tx for LEAD POISONING in KIDS

A

Succimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Tx for LEAD POISONING in ADULTS

A

EDTA and Dimercaprol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Systemic SE of Atropine

A

Antichol effects - Hot as a hare (increased temp), dry as a bone (dry mouth and decreased secretions), red as a beet (flushing), blind as a bat (cycloplegia, mydriasis), mad as a hatter (confusion, disorientation), bloated as a toad (constipation, urinary retention) and heart runs alone (rapid pulse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ophthalm SE of Atropine

A

Mydriasis and Cycloplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Function of Vitamin A

A

Vit A = RETINOL –> CONSTITUENT OF VISUAL PIGMENTS (retinal), antioxidant, essential for normal differentiation of epithelial cells into specialized tissue, prevents squamous metaplasia, treats measles and AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Function of Vit B3

A

Vit B3 = NIACIN –> Constituent of NAD+; B3 = 3 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Function of Vit B2

A

Vit B2 = RIBOFLAVIN –> Cofactor in oxidation and reduction - FADH2 and FMN (B2 = 2 ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Function of Vit B5

A

Vit B5 = Pantothenate (PENTOthenate); essential component of CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MC Renal malignancy in adults & assoc gene deficiency

A

RENAL CELL CARCINOMA - gene deletion in chromosome 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Classic presentation of RENAL CELL CARCINOMA

A

HEMATURIA, PALPABLE MASS, FLANK PAIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Enzyme responsible for Glucose –> Sorbitol

A

Aldose reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Enzyme responsible for Sorbitol –> Fructose

A

Sorbitol Dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Diabetic complications assoc with SORBITOL INDUCED OSMOTIC DAMAGE

A

Osmotic damage to Schwann cells –> diabetic NEUROPATHY; damage to lenses –> CATARACTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MC locations of LUNG CA METS

A

Liver, bones, adrenal glands and brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Toxin in fugu sashimi?

A

Tetrodotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Tetrodotoxin MOA?

A

binds voltage-gated Na channels and prevents depolarization –> coma, respiratory arrest, or cardiovascular collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When is a fetus most susceptible to damage from teratogens?

A

wks 3-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Anti-hypertensives that are also teratogens?

A

ACE inhibitors and ARBs –> fetal kidney damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do SERTOLI CELLS RELEASE to prevent formation of female structures in male fetus?

A

they release MULLERIAN INHIBITORY FACTOR which acts on paramesonephric ducts (Mullerian ducts) to prevent the formation of fallopian tubes, uterus and proximal vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Innervation of SERRATUS ANTERIOR

A

Long thoracic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Injury to LONG THORACIC NERVE

A

WINGED SCAPULA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

40yo male presents with MI, receives normal meds and a few days later his platelets are down to 30,000. Why?

A

Acute MI pts get aspirin, beta blockers, statins and heparin (or LMWH) - platelet level likely caused by HEPARIN-INDUCED THROMBOCYTOPENIA; d/c heparin and switch to Lepirudin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Anatomy of FEMORAL SHEATH

A

tube of fascia deep to inguinal ligament - CONTAINS FEMORAL ARTERY AND VEIN; DOES NOT CONTAIN FEMORAL NERVE; from lateral –> medial: NAVEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which drugs cause GYNECOMASTIA?

A

Some Drugs Cause Awesome Knockers - Spironolactone, Dig, Cimetidine, Alcohol, Ketoconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which ANTIFUNGAL causes GYNECOMASTIA? And its MOA?

A

Ketoconazole; MOA - inhibits desmolase in first step of steroid synthesis preventing cholesterol –> pregnenolene; this will decrease testosterone –> GYNECOMASTIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which DIURETIC causes GYNECOMASTIA? And its MOA?

A

Spironolactone; MOA - Aldosterone antagonist and K+ sparing diuretic; Spironolactone increases conversion of testosterone –> estradiol and blocks testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What cell type releases IFN-gamma?

A

TH1 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the Z value for 95% CI? 99%?

A

Z = 1.96 for 95% CI and Z=2.58 for 99% CI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Standard Error of the Mean Equation

A

SEM = SD/sqrt(n)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Toxic SIDE EFFECTS of PHENYTOIN?

A

Lupus-like syndrome, induces p450, megaloblastic anemia, GINGIVAL HYPERPLASIA, HIRSUTISM, STEVENS-JOHNSON SYNDROME, Fetal hydantoin syndrome; neuro - diplopia, sedation, ataxia, nystagmus, and dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is responsible for VENOUS A WAVE?

A

ATRIAL contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is responsible for VENOUS C WAVE?

A

VENTRICULAR contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is responsible for VENOUS V WAVE?

A

ATRIAL FILLING AGAINST CLOSED TRICUSPID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

NARCOLEPTIC SLEEP EPISODES begin during which STAGE OF SLEEP?

A

REM sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Order of stages of normal sleep?

A

Awake(alert) –> Awake(relaxed) –> N1(light sleep) –> N2(deeper sleep) –> N3(slow-wave sleep) –> REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

EEG Findings in AWAKE(ALERT) stage of sleep?

A

BETA waves (high frequency, low amplitude)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

EEG Findings in AWAKE (RELAXED) stage of sleep?

A

ALPHA waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

EEG Findings in N1 (light sleep) stage?

A

THETA waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

EEG Findings in N2 (deeper sleep) stage?

A

SLEEP SPINDLES and K COMPLEXES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

EEG Findings in N3 (slow-wave) stage?

A

DELTA waves (low frequency, high amplitude)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

EEG Findings during REM?

A

BETA waves (high frequency, low amplitude)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

LUNG CA assoc with COIN-SHAPED LESION

A

Bronchogenic adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Appearance of ASBESTOS FIBERS in lung

A

Golden-brown rods that resemble dumbbells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Arnold-Chiari Malformation

A

HERNIATION OF CEREBELLUM THROUGH FORAMEN MAGNUM; Type I - mild, incidental; Type II- more significant, possible syringomyelia

82
Q

Syringomyelia

A

Central canal of spinal cord is compressed –> dilation of the canal distal to the compression

83
Q

SYRINGOMYELIA Sx

A

LOSS OF PAIN & TEMP SENSATION in CAPE-LIKE distribution; Spinal cord is compressed –> dilation of central canal distally –> dilation will compress crossing fibersof spinothalamic tract in anterior commissure; may also see UMN Sx (motor deficits) if anterior horn cells are affected

84
Q

What BRANCIAL ARCH derivative abnormality causes facial abnormalities by affecting MECKEL’S CARTILAGE?

A

MECKEL’S CARTILAGE arises from 1st BRANCHIAL ARCH

85
Q

Abnormality to 1st BRANCHIAL ARCH will affect

A

MECKEL’s CARTILAGE and CN V2 and V3

86
Q

What is the DERIVATIVE of BRANCHIAL ARCHES?

A

Branchial arches derive from MESODERM (gives rise to MUSCLES & ARTERIES) and NEURAL CREST (gives rise to BONES & CARTILAGE)

87
Q

Structures involved in UNHAPPY TRIAD

A

MCL, ACL and MENISCUS (classically medial but lateral is more common) - usually from lateral blow

88
Q

Target of RITUXIMAB

A

Monoclonal Ab against CD20 on B-cell surface - used for B-cell lymphomas and also RA

89
Q

Which non-Benzo hypnotic is often avoided in elderly due to undesirable SE of confusion?

A

ZOLPIDEM

90
Q

Where are B cells located in a LYMPH NODE?

A

CORTEX

91
Q

Where are T cells located in a LYMPH NODE?

A

PARACORTEX (between follicle and medulla)

92
Q

Where are PLASMA cells located in a LYMPH NODE?

A

MEDULLARY CORDS

93
Q

Where are MACROPHAGES located in a LYMPH NODE?

A

MEDULLARY SINUS

94
Q

Which CYTOKINES are secreted by Th1 cells?

A

IL-2, IFN-gamma

95
Q

Which CYTOKINES are secreted by Th2 cells?

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-10

96
Q

Classic EKG finding of TORSADES de POINTES?

A

VENTRICULAR TACHY w/ SHIFTING SINUSOIDAL WAVEFORMS

97
Q

CAUSES of TORSADES de POINTES?

A

Anything increasing QT interval - drugs (antibiotics, antiarrhythmics), HYPOKALemia, HYPOMAGnesia, congenital long QT syndromes (Na or K channel defects)

98
Q

Classic presentation of GRANULOMA ANNULARE

A

ASx, non-scaly & erythematous plaque, annular, irregular but well-defined edges, thick rope-like border; starts small and grows out (centrifugally); usually localized - wrists, ankles and dorsal surfaces of hands or feet

99
Q

EXTRAPULMNOARY causes of RESTRICTIVE Lung Disease

A

Mechanical/Structural - OBESITY, SCOLIOSIS; Neuromuscular disease -MYASTHENIA GRAVIS, POLIO

100
Q

What medications can cause ED?

A

Antidepressants (esp SSRIs), ANTIPSYCHOTICS, SPIRONOLACTONE, KETOCONAZOLE, CIMETIDINE (but not all H2 blockers), BP drugs (CLONIDINE, METHYLDOPA, GUANETHIDINE, THIAZIDES, _ BLOCKERS)

101
Q

1st line Tx for ED?

A

FIL it up using PHOSPHODIESTERASE INHIBITORS: sildenaFIL (Viagra), vardenaFIL, tadalaFIL (Cialis); use testosterone if hypogonadism is present

102
Q

Leading cause of TERATOGENICITY in the US

A

ALCOHOL –> FAS

103
Q

Characteristic FETAL COMPLICATION assoc with LITHIUM

A

EBSTEIN ANOMALY - tricuspid valve leaflets are displaced down into right ventricle –> RV is “atrialized” –> tricuspid regurg or stenosis

104
Q

FETAL COMPLICATIONS assoc with CARBAMAZEPINE

A

IUGR (intrauterine growth restriction), NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS, CRANIOFACIAL DEFECTS, DEVELOPMENTAL DELAY, HYPOPLASTIC FINGERNAILS

105
Q

FETAL COMPLICATIONS assoc with VALPROATE

A

INHIBITS MATERNAL ABSORPTION OF FOLATE –> neural tube defects

106
Q

FETAL COMPLICATIONS assoc with LAMOTRIGENE

A

Reduces folate levels

107
Q

FETAL COMPLICATIONS assoc with ARIPIPRAZOLE & RISPERIDONE

A

EXTRAPYRAMIDAL Sx

108
Q

ClOPIDOGREL and TICLOPIDINE MOA

A

Block platelet activation by IRREVERSIBLY BLOCKING PLATELET ADP receptors

109
Q

Region of brachial plexus affected in THORACIC OUTLET SYNDROME

A

C8, T1

110
Q

MUSCLES affected in THORACIC OUTLET SYNDROME

A

C8,T1 –> atrophy of THENAR & HYPOTHENAR eminences, also INTEROSSEOUS MUSCLES between metacarpals

111
Q

Type of DIABETES assoc with OBESITY

A

II

112
Q

Type of DIABETES that can cause KETOACIDOSIS

A

I (more common)

113
Q

Type of DIABETES with strong GENETIC PREDISPOSITION

A

II

114
Q

Type of DIABETES assoc with HLA DR 3 & 4

A

I

115
Q

Which cells contain CD4 molecules?

A

Helper T cells

116
Q

Which cells contain CD8 molecules?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

117
Q

What do CD8+ cells accomplish?

A

They bind to target cells and INDUCE APOPTOSIS; target cells include virus-infected cells, neoplastic cells, and transplant donor cells

118
Q

MC causes of SEIZURES in CHILDREN

A

Gentic and Febrile seizures (infection)

119
Q

MC cause of SEIZURES in ADULTS

A

Tumors

120
Q

MC cause of SEIZURES in ELDERLY

A

Stroke

121
Q

Night terrors, sleepwalking and enuresis occur in which stage of sleep?

A

Stage N3 Sleep

122
Q

Medication that can shortern N3 Stage sleep

A

Benzodiazepines - can reduce occurrences of night terrors, sleepwalking and enuresis

123
Q

NEGATIVE Sx assoc with SCHIZOPHRENIA

A

Lack of motivation and flat affect

124
Q

POSITIVE Sx assoc with SCHIZOPHRENIA

A

Delusions, hallucinations, and DISORGANIZED SPEECH

125
Q

Tx for SCHIZOPHRENIA that addresses both POSITIVE and NEGATIVE Sx

A

ATYPICAL ANTIPSYCHOTICS

126
Q

ATYPICAL antipsychotics MOA

A

Affects serotonin, dopamine, histamine and _-adrenergic receptors

127
Q

TYPICAL antipsychotics MOA

A

block D2 receptors –> increases cAMP downstream

128
Q

Conditions assoc with OLIGOHYDRAMINOS

A

Placental insufficiency, B/L renal agenesis, posterior urethral valves (males) - Can’t PEE

129
Q

Conditions assoc with POLYHYDRAMINOS

A

Esophageal/duodenal atresia, anencephaly - Can’t SWALLOW

130
Q

POTTER SYNDROME

A

Oligohydraminos –> other complications; Pulm hyperplasia, Oligohydraminos, Twisted skin (excessive, wrinkled skin), Twisted face (facial abnormalities), Extermities (limb deformities), Renal agenesis

131
Q

EISENMENGER SYNDROME pathophys

A

Uncorrected VSD, ASD or PDA –> increased right heart pressures, –> progressive pulm HTN –> flow reversal –> R to L shunt –> cyanosis, clubbing

132
Q

Synovial Fluid Aspirate findings in GOUT

A

Uric acid crystals, needle shaped and NEGATIVELY birefringent (yellow under parallel polarized light)

133
Q

Synovial Fluid Aspirate findings in PSEUDOGOUT

A

Calcium PyroPhosPhate crystals, rhomboid shaped and Positively birefringed (blue under parallel polarized light) - All P’s

134
Q

Spooning of the nails (KOILONYCHIA) assoc with what NUTRIENT DEFICIENCY

A

Fe deficiency

135
Q

Function of Surfactant

A

Prevents collapse of terminal air-spaces in the alveoli –> decreases surface tension

136
Q

What cells secrete SURFACTANT?

A

Type II PNEUMOCYTES

137
Q

Preterm birth complication arising from SURFACTANT DEFICIENCY

A

Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome (NRDS)

138
Q

Tx of Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome

A

CORTICOSTEROIDS - will help mature type II pneumocytes –> surfactant

139
Q

MC VIRAL causes of MYOCARDITIS

A

COXSACKIE A & B, ECHOVIRUSES; other causes include influenza, HIV, CMV

140
Q

Pt experiencing CONFUSION, VOMITING, ABD PAIN, FRUITY BREATH ODOR, RAPID BREATHING with high blood glucose

A

DKA

141
Q

Rapid, deep breaths assoc with DKA are called?

A

Kussmaul’s breathing

142
Q

What KETONE BODY causes the FRUITY BREATH ODOR in DKA?

A

ACETONE

143
Q

Which KETONE BODIES are detected by URINE TEST in DKA?

A

ACETONE and ACETOACETATE

144
Q

Which KETONE BODY is NOT detected by URINE TEST in DKA?

A

_-hydroxybuturate

145
Q

GHON complex (focus)

A

X-ray findings found in TB - PERIHILAR LYMPHADENOPATHY and LOWER LOBE GRANULOMATOUS FORMATION

146
Q

Besides TB, what other MYCOBACTERIUM species can cause PULMONARY DISEASE?

A

M. kansasii and M. avium

147
Q

EXTRAPULMONARY findings in TB

A

CNS - parenchymal tuberculoma, meningitis; Vertebral body - Pott’s disease; lymphadenitis; GI issues; renal issues

148
Q

Physical findings (internal and external) found in 5_-reductase deficiency

A

AMBIGUOUS GENITALIA UNTIL PUBERTY but at puberty external genitalia develop along with secondary sex characteristics; Internally (vas deferens, epididymis and prostate) are NORMAL

149
Q

RISK FACTORS for DIC

A

Sepsis, Trauma, Obstetric complications, Pancreatitis, Malignancy, Transfusion (STOP Making Thrombi mnemonic)

150
Q

LAB FINDINGS in DIC

A

THROMBOCYTOPENIA, INCREASED BLEEDING TIME, INCREASED PT & PTT, DECREASED FIBRINOGEN, DECREASED FACTORS V & VIII, INCREASED D-Dimers

151
Q

Pt presents with weakness, pallor, CRAVING for ICE CHIPS, and tachycardia with Hx of chronic hemorrhoids

A

Dx: Pica - Fe DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, Tx: Fe replacement

152
Q

AZTREONAM is effective for which pt populations?

A

Good choice for pts with PENICILLIN ALLERGIES, pts with RENAL INSUFFICIENCY or those who can’t tolerate aminoglycosides

153
Q

Which bugs does AZTREONAM treat?

A

Gram NEGATIVE RODS - used for penicllin-allergy pts

154
Q

MANIFESTATIONS of DiGEORGE SYNDROME

A

CATCH 22 - Cleft palate, Abnormal facies, Thymic aplasia (–> recurrent infection), Cardiac defects, Hypocalcemia (–> tetany)

155
Q

Underlying cause of DiGEORGE Syndrome

A

Thymic and parathyroid aplasia (failure of 3rd and 4th pouches to form)

156
Q

Phase 1 of CLINICAL TRIAL

A

Is drug safe?

157
Q

Phase 2 of CLINICAL TRIAL

A

Does the drug work?

158
Q

Phase 3 of CLINICAL TRIAL

A

Head to head vs placebo or other tx

159
Q

Phase 4 of CLINICAL TRIAL

A

Post-Marketing Surveillance

160
Q

Diseases assoc with BELL’s PALSY

A

AIDS, Lyme, HSV, Sarcoidosis, tumor, Diabetes

161
Q

How is body affected by a prolonged stay in space at zero gravity?

A

Decreased blood volume, decreased RBC mass, decreased muscle strength/work capacity, decreased maximum cardiac output, loss of bone mass

162
Q

Tx for ADRENAL PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA

A

_-adrenergic antagonists: PHENOXYBENZAMINE & PHENTOLAMINE; the adrenal pheochromocytoma secretes catecholamines –> sympathetic activities (tachy, anxiety, diaphoresis)

163
Q

Function of Vit C

A

Facilitates Fe absorption, hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis, and conversion of dopamine –> NorEPI

164
Q

TMJ Syndrome

A

3rd or 4th decade, 2nd MC cause of facial pain (behind HA), commonly exacerbated by stressful life events, nocturnal bruxism (teeth clenching or grinding) or unconscious jaw clenching

165
Q

Clinical definition of CHRONIC BRONCHITIS

A

Productive cough for at least 3 months in at least 2 CONSECUTIVE YEARS

166
Q

GUBERNACULUM Remnant in MALES

A

Fibrous Band attached between each testis and the scrotum that aids in normal testicular descent

167
Q

GUBERNACULUM Remnant in FEMALES

A

Ovarian ligament & round ligament of the uterus

168
Q

Nerve injured in ANTERIOR HIP DISLOCATION

A

OBTURATOR nerve

169
Q

Nerve injured in KNEE TRAUMA

A

TIBIAL nerve

170
Q

LAB FINDINGS in POLYCYTHEMIA VERA (plasma volume, RBC count, O2 sat, EPO level)

A

INCREASED Plasma volume, INCREASED RBC mass, NORMAL O2 sat, LOW EPO (don’t need stimulation, clonal abnormality leads to RBC production)

171
Q

INTENSE ITCHING after SHOWER is evident of:

A

Polycythemia Vera

172
Q

Which DRUGS regulate GASTRIC ACID secretion?

A

Proton-pump inhibitors (ex: Omeprazole), H2 blockers (Cimetidine), Antimuscarinic drugs, Somatostatin analogues

173
Q

Which HORMONES STIMULATE GASTRIC ACID secretion?

A

HIStamine, Gastrin, Acetylcholine (STIMULATE HIS Gastric Acid)

174
Q

Which HORMONES INHIBIT GASTRIC ACID secretion?

A

PGs, somatostatin, secretin, GIP

175
Q

Effect of TMP-SMX on bacteria

A

They both prevent bacteria from making THF which is then used to make Thymidine. Without Thymidine bacteria can’t make DNA and thus can’t replicate

176
Q

MOA of SULFONAMIDES

A

Inhibit DIHYDROPTERATE SYNTHETASE

177
Q

MOA of TRIMETHOPRIM

A

Inhibit DIHYDROFOLATE REDUCTASE

178
Q

Which drug has a similar MOA to TRIMETHOPRIM in CANCER CELLS?

A

METHOTREXATE - inhibits DIHYDROFOLATE REDUCTASE

179
Q

Which proteins are used as OPSONINS?

A

IgG and C3b

180
Q

Which COMPLEMENT protein aids in NEUTROPHIL CHEMOTAXIS?

A

C5a

181
Q

Which COMPLEMENT proteins form the MEMBRANE ATTACK COMPLEX?

A

C5b, C6-9

182
Q

Type 1 (_) ERROR

A

aka FALSE +; Study shows a difference or effect but in reality there is NO difference or effect; Ex: Convicting an innocent man; _ = the probability of making Type 1 error

183
Q

First Line Tx for ABSENCE SEIZURES

A

Ethosuximide

184
Q

Tx for STATUS EPILEPTICUS

A

Acute - Benzodiazepines like LORAZEPAM and Prophylaxis - PHENYTOIN

185
Q

What EMBRYOLOGICAL DERIVATIVE are the DRGs derived?

A

NEURAL CREST (ectoderm); neural crest is responsible for peripheral nervous system structures

186
Q

Effects of discontinuing digoxin

A

Digoxin increases contractility and thus increases CO so stopping use would decrease CO –> back up of blood in LA and pulm vasculature –> pulm edema –> DYSPNEA

187
Q

Composition of NUCELOSOME

A

DNA wrapped around 8 CORE HISTONE PROTEINS (H2A, H2B, H3, H4 - two of each)

188
Q

Which HISTONE TIES NUCLEOSOMES together?

A

H1

189
Q

Which HISTONE is NOT in NUCLEOSOME CORE?

A

H1

190
Q

Manner by which Iodide enters Thyroid Follicular Cells

A

Na/I symporter

191
Q

Enzyme responsible for Iodide –> Iodine

A

Thyroid Peroxidase (TPO)

192
Q

In what disease are Abs against THYROID PEROXIDASE (anti-TPO Abs) generated?

A

HASHIMOTO’S

193
Q

Which DRUGS BLOCK THYROID PEROXIDASE?

A

PTU and METHIMAZOLE

194
Q

What is the REID INDEX?

A

Used in pulmonary disease as GLAND DEPTH/THICKNESS OF BRONCHIAL WALL

195
Q

In which Pulmonary disease would you see an INCREASED REID INDEX?

A

COPD and CHRONIC BRONCHITIS

196
Q

MOA of VARENICLINE

A

Partial agonist at nicotinc ACh receptors

197
Q

INDICATION for using VARENICLINE

A

Smoking Cessation

198
Q

What are the DERIVATIVES of 2nd BRANCHIAL ARCH?

A

S’ derivatives: Stapes, Styloid process, leSSer horn of hyoid, Stylohyoid ligament, CN Seven, Stapedius, Stylohyoid and poSterior belly of digastric muscles

199
Q

What fetal blood vessels are closed in adult circulation?

A

Ductus arteriosus, Umbilical vein, Umbilical artery, Ductus arteriosus, Ductus venosus, Foramen ovale

200
Q

Which CLASS of DRUGS is used to treat ESTROGEN RECEPTOR + BREAST CA?

A

SERMs - Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators - specifically TAMOXIFEN and RALOXIFENE

DIT Questions (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions