Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

asn disputes > disputes > Flashcards

disputes Flashcards

1
Q

Within what timescale of service must a defence to a Part 20 claim be served, and what is the consequence of failing to do so?

A

Within 14 days of service of the counterclaim. Failing that, the original defendant can obtain default judgment on the counterclaim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where additional claims are brought by the defendant, what must the additional party do where (1) they are already a party to the case, and (2) they are not already a party to the case?

A
  1. File a defence, if already a party
  2. File an acknowledgement and/or defence, if not already a party
    Same rules apply to them as the original defendant at the beginning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a party wishes to make a request for information from the other side, do they need to go through the court for this?

A

Only if the party does not adequately respond within a reasonable time
If a party objects to a request for information, they should respond providing reasons why

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are five grounds for objecting to a request for information?

A
  1. Unnecessary, irrelevant, or improper
  2. Unable to provide information/clarification
  3. Insufficient time to reply
  4. Disproportionately expensive to reply
  5. Privilege
    Something is relevant if it relates to matters which are disputed by the parties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is required to amend a Statement of Case before it has been served, and after it has been served?

A

Before: Can be amended at any time without permission
After: Written consent of all parties or court permission required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What must the court be convinced of to add a party to a case?

A

Adding the party will allow the court to resolve all the matters in the case or resolve a connected matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two requirements which must be satisfied for a court to grant an application substituting a party?

A
  1. Existing party’s interest or liability has passed to the new party (e.g. assignment, merger) and
  2. Desirable to substitute the new party, so the court can resolve all matters in dispute
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is required to add or substitute a party after the limitation period has expired?

A
  1. Relevant limitation period must have been live when proceedings were started, and
  2. The addition or substitution is necessary

Necessary can come from: new party substituting for a party named in the claim by mistake; or original party has died or is bankrupt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In determining the value of the claim, what four things will the court ignore?

A
  1. Sums not in dispute
  2. Interest
  3. Costs
  4. Contributory negligence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

To reiterate, what are the thresholds on the small claims track for:
(1) claims generally
(2) road traffic accidents
(3) personal injury if the value of pain, suffering and loss of amenity is below a threshold, and
(4) personal injury generally?

A
  1. £10k
  2. £5k
  3. £5k
  4. £1k
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When might the court allocate claims with a higher value than the small claims track threshold, to the small claims track?

A

Parties agree, or less than £10,000 is actually in dispute even if the claim is for more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Unless the other side has behaved unreasonably, what costs can be recovered on the small claims track, and what is the upper limit for expert fees?

A

Fixed costs and reasonable expenses.
Expert fees limited to £750.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the range/threshold on the fast track for:
(1) claims generally
(2) road traffic accidents, and
(3) personal injury generally?

What is the other category of case which can be dealt with on the fast track?

A
  1. £10k - 25k
  2. £5k - 25k
  3. £1k - 25k

Cases with no monetary value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a case is allocated to the fast track, within what time limit must the trial take place?

A

30 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In what two ways is evidence restricted on the fast track?

A
  1. Court prefers written rather than oral evidence
  2. Use of single joint expert is encouraged

Witness statement stands as evidence in chief meaning it has the same weight as if the witness had testified in court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the fast track, what must costs be in order to be recoverable?

A

Proportionate to the amount in dispute

Parties must submit cost schedules ahead of the costs hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the monetary threshold and what is the time threshold for a case to be put in the multi-track?

A
  • Claim exceeds £25k, or
  • Lesser value but trial will last more than one day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the Directions Questionnaire, and what does it ask?

Within what time limit must the parties complete and return it?

A

Questionnaire sent by the court with the Notice of Allocation in a fast track or multi-track case, which asks:
* Estimated trial length
* Estimated trial costs
* Whether parties complied with protocols
* Whether experts will be required
* Names of witnesses

28 days of receiving the Notice of Allocation, and cannot be extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At what stage is a Directions Order made?

A

Once the case is allocated to the small-claims or fast tracks

(Multi-track directions are usually given at the Case Management Conference)

The schedule for how the case will progress: disclosure, witness statement exchange, expert reports, trial, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are two notable directions which will be given on the small claims track?

A
  1. Documents to be exchanged 14 days before hearing
  2. No expert may be used without express permission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If a party is not happy with the directions given by the court, within what time limit must they apply for the directions to be varied?

A

14 days
Make an immediate application to the court for an unless order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When a Case Management Conference is listed on the multi-track, within what time limits before the conference must the parties file:
(1) disclosure reports, and
(2) costs budgets?

A
  1. Disclosure report: 14 days
  2. Cost budget: 7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where a party has defaulted on directions, and the innocent party has made an application to court about this, what is one type of order that the court will typically make which gives the party an opportunity to comply, and what is the impact of this?

A

The court will make an unless order, which specifies a penalty which will be imposed unless the party complies with the direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where a party has defaulted on directions, what are three other options available to the court?

A
  1. Impose a costs order, including indemnity costs, or increased interest
  2. Require the defaulting party to pay money into court
  3. Debar a party from relying on evidence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where a party has a good reason for non-compliance and applies for relief from sanctions, what two things will the courts consider?

A
  1. Seriousness of the breach, and
  2. Reasons for the breach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an interim application?

How soon should they be made?

A

Any pre-trial application made to the court which requires a judicial decision

As soon as it is apparent that it is necessary or desirable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is true of an interim application if there is already another hearing listed in the matter?

A

It should be raised at that hearing, if possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Unless there is good reason why notice should not be required, what notice of an interim application must be given to parties
(1) generally, and
(2) if over the telephone?

What is an example of a good reason?

A
  1. Three clear days
  2. Five clear days

Notice would provide the other party an opportunity to dispose of evidence or assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

It would be extremely unusual to not give notice of an interim application, except for which two types of orders?

Where an interim application is made without notice, what must it include?

A
  1. Freezing injunction
  2. Search order

Evidence explaining the good reason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What three things must be served on the non-applicant party if an order is granted based on a without-notice application?

A
  1. The order
  2. Application notice
  3. Supporting evidence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If an order is granted based on a without-notice application, within what time limit of being served must the non-applicant party apply to vary or set aside the order?

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If a party makes an interim application without notice erroneously, what type of order will the court dismiss it with, and what is the effect of this?

A

A wasted costs order, which requires the solicitor to pay the other side’s costs to the extent associated with the application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What should be true of evidence relied on in support of an interim injunction?

A

It should be in writing and filed at court within the relevant time limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What two things does the applicant have to file and serve on the court within 2 days of the hearing on the interim application?

A
  1. Case summary
  2. Proposed draft order
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the difference between default judgment and summary judgment?

A

Default judgment: Defendant has failed to acknowledge service or file a defence on time, not related to strength of defence

Summary judgment: Other party has weak case and there’s no other reason to have the trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two criteria which the applicant must satisfy when applying for summary judgment?

Before when can the claimant not make an application for summary judgment?

A
  1. Other party has no reasonable prospect of success, either their claim or defence, and
  2. No other compelling reason why the case should proceed

Before defendant receives particulars and serves either an acknowledgement or defence, i.e. claim must be live from defendant’s point of view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In an application for summary judgment, what are the three time periods before the hearing before which:

(1) Applicant must serve written evidence in support of the application on the other party

(2) Other party must serve evidence in response, and

(3) Applicant must serve any further evidence in response to (2)?

A
  1. 14 days
  2. 7 days
  3. 3 days

Same for interim payments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the difference between an application to strike and summary judgment?

A

Application to strike: goes to procedure
Summary judgment: goes to merits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are three things for which the court will grant an application to strike?

A
  1. Statement of case discloses no reasonable grounds for bringing/defending claim
  2. Statement of case is an abuse of court process
  3. Failure to comply with a rule, practice direction, or order
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the three conditions, one of which is required for an order of interim payment to be made?

Are interim payments mandatory or discretionary?

A
  1. Defendant has admitted liability
  2. Claimant has obtained judgment but the sum to be paid is not yet assessed; or
  3. The court is satisfied that if the action proceeded to trial, the claimant would obtain judgment for a substantial sum (and in cases with multiple defendants, from at least one of them and each carries insurance)

Discretionary, and the court will not grant one if it would cause an injustice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Before making an application for interim payment, what should the applicant do?

Before when can the claimant not make an application for interim payment?

A

Request that the defendant make a payment voluntarily

Before defendant receives particulars and serves either an acknowledgement or defence, i.e. claim must be live from defendant’s point of view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In an application for interim payment, what three things must the claimant’s written evidence contain?

Does claimant need to demonstrate need?

What additional thing should be included in a personal injury claim?

A
  1. Sum of money sought
  2. Items and matters in respect of which payment is sought
  3. An estimate of the final judgment

No

Medical records should be attached to estimate of judgment; and a schedule of loss with details of past and future loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In considering an application for interim payment, will the court consider contributory negligence, set off, counterclaims?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is an injunction?

What are the two types?

When is an injunction considered interim, and when is it considered final?

A

A court order that requires a party to do or stop doing something.

Mandatory and prohibitory

Interim if made before trial; final if at trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In the context of an injunction application, what is an undertaking in damages?

A

An undertaking by the person making the application that they will compensate the other party for any loss suffered if the court later determines that the injunction should not have been granted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How can a party apply to have the injunction discharged?

A

By applying on notice to a judge of the division where the claim is proceeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the three grounds that can be argued in support of an application to discharge an injunction?

A
  1. Applicant did not disclose all information when applying, or did not comply with its terms, or failed to prosecute claim with speed
  2. Relief is oppressive, or not justified
  3. Material change in circumstances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a freezing injunction?

To whom must an application for one be made?

A

A type of prohibitory injunction designed to freeze the assets of the defendant

A High Court judge only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the three requirements of which a court must be satisfied before granting a freezing injunction?

A
  1. Strong case on the merits
  2. Defendant has assets within the jurisdiction
  3. Real risk the defendant may dispose of or dissipate those assets before judgment can be enforced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What two things must be true of a freezing injunction?

When will a freezing injunction bind third parties?

A
  1. The assets frozen should not exceed the maximum amount of the claim, and
  2. The order must state the period of time it will be in effect

When they have knowledge of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What must a defendant offer in order to apply for discharge of a freezing injunction?

A

Security for the value of the claim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a search order?

To whom must an application for one be made?

A

A last resort order applied for without notice by the applicant if it is clear the defendant will not obey the rules relating to disclosure, or may seek to destroy evidence, which allows the claimant to search for and potentially seize this evidence

A High Court judge only; same as freezing injunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the three requirements of which a court must be satisfied before granting a search order?

A
  1. Strong case on the merits
  2. Defendant’s activities cause very serious potential or actual harm to the claimant’s interest, and
  3. Clear evidence that the property and documents are in the defendant’s possession and there is a real possibility the material may be destroyed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What three things will the independent supervising solicitor who oversees execution of a search order undertake to do?

A
  1. Offer to explain the meaning and effect of the order to the defendant
  2. Inform the defendant of their right to seek legal advice and right to apply to vary or discharge the order, and
  3. Prepare a written report on execution and provide it to the claimant’s solicitor and the court
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

In the context of a search order, what three things will the claimant’s solicitor undertake to do?

A
  1. Return original documents to the defendant within two days
  2. Deliver property in dispute to defendant’s solicitors, and
  3. Retain all other property securely until the court directs otherwise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does disclosure mean?

For how long does the duty to disclose run and when does it terminate?

A

Clearly identify and inform the other side of the existence of a relevant document

Continues through the whole case and concludes when the case is over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What two types of documents must be disclosed?

What must a solicitor do if the client makes it clear they will not comply with the disclosure requirements?

A

Documents which:
1. Support your case
2. Are adverse to your case

Cease to act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How far does the obligation to disclose go?

Does a party need to have possession?

A

A party’s obligation to disclose extends to any document within the party’s control

No, a right to control is sufficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What three criteria, one of which is enough, will determine if a party has control of a document?

A
  1. Physical possession
  2. Right to take possession, inspect or take copies, or
  3. Had the document in their possession but no longer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the obligation when a document is unavailable or has been destroyed?

Can the court draw an adverse inference from this?

A

Notify the court and other party of its existence, and provide reasons

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is standard that the court will expect a search for documents to meet?

A

The search must be reasonable and proportionate, depending on the nature of the case, its value, and its importance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the three sections of the disclosure list which is filed and served on the fast track, as well as personal injury on the multi-track?

A
  1. Documents a party controls that they do not object to the other party inspecting
  2. Documents a party controls that they do object to the other party inspecting (along with reasons)
  3. Documents that are no longer in a party’s control
63
Q

Who signs the disclosure statement detailing the extent of the search made?

What is declared in the disclosure statement?

A

The party, not their solicitor

Party understands the duty of disclosure, they have carried it out to the best of their knowledge, and that they believe the extent of the search was reasonable and proportionate; also explaining why a particular search was not carried out

64
Q

Under standard directions, within what time limit from that point must the disclosure lists be served?

Within what time limit should inspection occur?

A

28 days

7 days, for which the party seeking inspection must notify the party with the document

65
Q

What triggers a requirement for specific disclosure?

What are the two criteria, one of which the court must be satisfied of to grant an order?

What should a party do before making an application for specific disclosure?

A

Triggered by a party believing certain documents have not been disclosed.

Court must be convinced the party has documents that may:
1. Contain information that would assist the applicant’s case or damage the respondent’s case; or
2. Lead to a train of enquiry which has either of those consequences

Make a written request for the documents: describing the document and explaining why it is relevant, why it is reasonable and proportionate to disclose, grounds for believing the document exists, and safeguards that can be provided, e.g. redaction

66
Q

Unless challenged, what does disclosure of a document provide?

A

An automatic right to inspect it

67
Q

What are the three grounds for refusing inspection of a disclosed document?

A
  1. Privilege
  2. Document no longer in party’s control
  3. Disproportionate to allow inspection
68
Q

Instead of a disclosure list, what must be filed in non-personal injury cases on the multi-track?

Within what time limit of what event must this be filed?

A

Disclosure report

At least 14 days before the first Case Management Conference, or otherwise with the Directions Questionnaire.

69
Q

Must a document which is privileged still be disclosed?

A

Yes, but it can be withheld from inspection

70
Q

What are the four types of privilege ?

What is the one immunity which functions like a privilege?

Only whom can waive privilege?

A
  1. Legal advice privilege
  2. Litigation privilege
  3. Common interest privilege
  4. Without prejudice privilege

Public interest immunity

The client

71
Q

What does legal advice privilege protect?

A

Communication between a lawyer and a client in which advice is given or requested within a legal context

72
Q

What does litigation privilege protect?

Who bears the burden of proving litigation privilege?

A

Communication with third parties (e.g. barristers, experts) relating to preparation of pending or contemplated litigation

The party seeking to assert it

73
Q

If a document has multiple purposes one of which is preparation for litigation, is it still protected by litigation privilege?

A

Only if the court decides the dominant purpose is to prepare for litigation

74
Q

What is the common interest privilege?

A

common interest privilege enables the sharing of privileged documents with others with the same interest. Privilege will not be lost where privileged communications are passed to a person with a recognised common interest.

Examples of persons who may have a common interest include companies in the same group, insurer and insured, agent and principal or neighbours with the same complaint.

75
Q

What is the one requirement of the common interest for common interest privilege to apply?

Does common interest privilege subsist if there is a subsequent breakdown in the parties’ relationship?

A

The common interest must have been present at the time of disclosure between the parties

Yes

76
Q

If a solicitor accidentally sends a privileged documents to the other side, what is required for the other side to use the information?

A

Court permission

77
Q

What are the two types of witness evidence?

A
  1. Direct
  2. Circumstantial
78
Q

What is the general rule for what a witness must have done to be able to give evidence at trial?

A

Signed a previous witness statement setting out their evidence, which is endorsed by a statement of truth and served on the other party

79
Q

What is possible if a witness statement cannot be obtained?

A

Party can get court permission to serve a witness summary which identfies the witness and summarises the factual issues the witness will cover when testifying

80
Q

What happens if a witness statement is not served, and what is a way around this?

A

Party cannot call that witness, unless they receive court permission by showing good reason for the failure to serve

81
Q

If a witness is to be compelled to testify, within what time limit before the hearing must the witness summons be served by the party calling the witness?

A

7 days

Summons must contain conduct money or it is ineffective

82
Q

What can the other party do if a party decides not to call a witness who has had a witness statement served, and how will the court treat what they do?

A

Other party can refer to the statement, but the court will treat this as hearsay

83
Q

Although hearsay evidence can be oral or in writing, what are the two requirements for evidence to be hearsay?

A
  1. Statement must have been made out of court
  2. Statement must be used to prove the truth of what is being stated
84
Q

When will the contents of a witness statement cease to be hearsay?

A

When the witness thereafter comes to court, their statement plus their answers under cross-examination are all treated as if they were made in court and cease to be hearsay

85
Q

What six factors will the court consider when determining the weight to apply to a witness statement entered as evidence where the witness does not come to court?

A
  1. Reasonable/practicable to force witness to attend?
  2. Original statement made contemporaneous with the event?
  3. Single or multiple hearsay?
  4. Motive to misrepresent facts?
  5. Was original statement edited?
  6. Does the situation suggest attempt to prevent proper evaluation of evidence?
86
Q

If a party wishes to rely on hearsay evidence, what must they do?

What is the effect of the witness attending the trial on how this obligation must be satisfied?

If the other side wishes to have that witness attend court so that their credibility can be attacked, within what time limit must they make an application to the court?

A

Must serve notice on the other side.

If the witness is attending court, the witness statement itself constitutes notice.

14 days

87
Q

What is admissible in any civil case to prove the conduct occurred?

A

Details of a criminal conviction arising from the same events

88
Q

What are four types of evidence that is inadmissible?

Does the court have discretion to disallow evidence which would otherwise be admissible?

A
  1. Opinion evidence, except from experts
  2. Evidence that is privileged or protected by public interest immunity
  3. Communications that are without prejudice
  4. Any evidence which is irrelevant

Yes

89
Q

What evidence is a lay person allowed to give, even though it may appear to contradict the general rule that only experts can give opinion evidence?

A

Evidence of facts perceived by them, e.g. their perception of speed in a road traffic accident

90
Q

One of what three things must occur for a party to have their own witness declared as hostile by the court?

What is the effect of a witness being declared hostile?

A
  1. Witness is unfavourable to the side who called them
  2. Lack of cooperation to tell the truth on behalf of party who called them, or
  3. Evidence is entirely inconsistent with their witness statement

They can be cross-examined by the party who called them

91
Q

What is similar fact evidence?

What must it be to be admissible?

A

Evidence of previous incidents or conduct as evidence of similar conduct in the case in question, e.g. a driver having nine points on their license for three separate instances of running red lights is evidence that, on balance of probabilities, they ran the red light in this case

Must be relevant to be admissible

92
Q

What are the two requirements for an expert to give evidence?

A
  1. They must be qualified to give the opinion
  2. Their expert evidence must be reasonably required to resolve proceedings

Qualified does not mean a formal degree is needed; experience is sufficient

93
Q

If expert evidence is allowed, what are the three conditions it is still subject to?

A
  1. Opinion must stem from special knowledge, skill, or training that is not within the ordinary experience of a judge
  2. Expert must be reasonably certain of their opinion
  3. Expert must demonstrate the basis of their opinion and conclusions
    Judge will ultimately determine if the witness is truly an expert
94
Q

What is the duty owed to the court by an expert?

A

To exercise independence, integrity, and impartiality

This overrides their obligation to the person who instructed/paid them

95
Q

Is the default position that experts will attend court to give their evidence?

A

No, the default is a written report

96
Q

If a party wishes to have an expert testify in court rather than the default of preparing a written report, what four conditions must they satisfy?

A
  1. Expert oral evidence likely to have an impact on the outcome
  2. It will assist the judge
  3. Risk of injustice if expert evidence is not tested, and
  4. Cost of the expert attending is not disproportionate
97
Q

What is the difference between an agreed expert in a personal injury case, and a single joint expert generally?

A

An agreed expert is one chosen by a claimant in a personal injury case. The defendant does not have to agree to jointly instruct an agreed expert and the defendant retains the right to instruct their own.

A single joint expert is one where the court has imposed the obligation that parties share an expert, share the fees whilst the matter is ongoing, and then the losing party will assume responsibility for paying the expert after the trial.

98
Q

In what four instances may the court allow parties to have their own expert?

A
  1. Complex issues or high value case
  2. Parties already have their own expert from pre-action phase and most cost-effective to retain
  3. Number of different schools of thought concerning the issue requiring expert opinion
  4. Issue the experts are focusing on has huge significance to the outcome
99
Q

Is an expert’s report privileged?

A

Until disclosed

Expert’s report need only be disclosed if the party intends to rely on it

100
Q

What is the time limit from the expert sending the report that the parties can ask questions of the expert?

A

28 days

101
Q

If a case is settled before trial, other than via a Part 36 Order, what must the parties do?

A

Record the terms of the agreement in writing in an appropriately worded consent order

102
Q
A
102
Q

What is the usual order used to record settlement?

What is the consequence of not using an order?

A

Tomlin Order

If no order is used, there is no enforceable obligation regarding (i.e. automatic right to) payment.

103
Q

What are the two parts of a Tomlin Order?

What happens if a party defaults?

A
  1. The order, which confirms the parties have agreed settlement and that the case is stayed pending the settlement terms being carried out, and
  2. A schedule confirming the amount to be paid, by whom, and by what date

Proceedings can recommence

104
Q

What is the maximum word count for the case summary filed before the pre-trial review hearing, and what three things should it specify?

A

Case summary must not exceed 500 words and should specify:
1. Issues of fact
2. What is in dispute
3. Synopsis of the evidence

105
Q

How many trial bundles should the claimant’s solicitor prepare, and who bears the expense of this?

Within what time period before trial should the trial bundles be filed?

A

The claimant’s solicitor must prepare one bundle each for each party and witness, and the claimant bears the expense of this

Between 3 and 7 days before trial

106
Q

In what two circumstances will court permission be required to discontinue a case?

What is the costs consequence for the claimant of discontinuing a case?

A
  1. Court has granted an interim injunction
  2. Claimant has received an interim payment (unless paying party consents)
    Claimant liable to pay the defendant’s costs up until that point (subject to cost shifting applicable to personal injury)
107
Q

What is the destination of appeal where the judgment was delivered by:
(1) District Judge
(2) Circuit Judge
(3) Master of the High Court
(4) High Court Judge
(5) Lord Justice of Appeal?

Is there an automatic right to appeal in civil cases?

A
  1. Circuit Judge
  2. High Court Judge
  3. High Court Judge
  4. Lord Justice of Appeal
  5. Justice of Supreme Court

No

108
Q

To where can a party make an application for permission to appeal?

A
  1. Lower court where the decision was made
  2. To the appeal court
109
Q

What are the two grounds to appeal a decision of a lower court?

A
  1. Decision is wrong in fact, law, or the exercise of the court’s discretion; and/or
  2. Decision is unjust due to serious procedural or other irregularity
110
Q

Within what time limit must a party appeal and when does this time begin to run?

A

Within 21 days of the date the judgment or order they are seeking to appeal was handed down

Appeals can be made orally immediately after the judge makes the decision to be appealed

111
Q

What is the consequence of not seeking permission from a lower court, and not requesting a time extension?

A

After 21 days, they can no longer make an application to the court for permission to appeal

112
Q

In the case of not seeking permission from a lower court, and not requesting a time extension, such that application is barred, to what court can a party make a special case that permission should be applied retrospectively?

How will this court treat the application?

A

Court of Appeal

As a relief from sanctions, requiring the applicant to show good reason for the breach and that relief is reasonable in the circumstances

113
Q

What is an appeal hearing limited to?

Can a party rely on evidence that was not available in the original hearing?

A

A review of the decision of the lower court

Not without permission

114
Q

What does the indemnity principle provide?

A

A party can not recover more from an opponent than they are liable to pay their own legal representative

115
Q

What are the two bases of costs assessment?

A
  1. Standard basis
  2. Indemnity basis
116
Q

What occurs under the standard basis of costs assessment?

A

Court allows only proportionate costs and exercises doubt in favour of the paying party

117
Q

What triggers costs assessment on an indemnity basis, and what occurs under this?

A

Paying party incurring unnecessary costs by their conduct.

The court does not consider proportionality and the paying party cannot object as to costs unless they are claiming the solicitor shouldn’t have done the work at all.

118
Q

What are the two ways a party can file their costs budget on the multi-track, depending on the value of the case?

What is the possible consequence of not filing a budget?

A
  1. £50,000 and below: filed with Directions Questionnaire
  2. Over £50,000: filed 21 days before Case Management Conference

Costs may not be recoverable, beyond court fees

119
Q

What are inter-partes costs?

A

A term given to describe the other party’s costs when you are obligated to pay them, to be distinguished from a party’s own costs

120
Q

In lower value cases and interim applications, how soon before (1) a hearing, and (2) a trial must a statement of costs be filed?

A
  1. 24 hours
  2. Two days
121
Q

What is the starting point for a detailed assessment of costs in a larger value claim, and within what time limit must the receiving party file this document?

Within what time frame must the paying party file their points of dispute, if any?

A

The receiving party prepares a bill of costs and serves within three months of judgment or order

21 days

122
Q

How soon after the issuance of a costs certificate by the court must costs be paid?

A

14 days

123
Q

Who is the only party that can apply for a security of costs order, and what is the logic being precluding the other party?

A

Defendant, as they cannot stop the claimant bringing proceedings, but the claimant is free to continually assess whether the defendant is worth suing

124
Q

What are the five criteria, one of which is enough, which the defendant must satisfy to make an application for a security of costs order?

A

Claimant:
1. Resides outside jurisdiction
2. Has changed address since claim started with a view to evading consequences of litigation, or provided no/incorrect address on the claim form
3. Is suing for the benefit of a third-party
4. Is corporate entity and there is reason to believe they won’t be able to pay costs
5. Has taken steps regarding their assets that would make it difficult to enforce a costs order, e.g. moving them outside the jurisdiction

125
Q

What is qualified one-way costs shifting in personal injury claims, and what are the three situations where it will not apply?

When is qualified one-way costs shifting not available?

A

In an unsuccessful personal injury claim, the claimant does not pay the defendant’s costs unless:
1. Claim was fundamentally dishonest
2. Claim was made for the financial benefit of another, or
3. Claim was struck out for disclosing no cause of action, or abuse

Where a claimant refused a Part 36 offer to settle and fails to beat that amount at trial, the defendant can recover costs up to the level of damages awarded

126
Q

In addition to improper, unreasonable, or negligent conduct, what are the two criteria for a court to make a wasted costs order against a solicitor?

Within what time limit of a wasted costs order being made must a solicitor inform their client?

A
  1. Conduct caused unnecessary cost, and
  2. It is just to make the order

7 days

127
Q

What is a Part 36 offer?

Who can make a Part 36 offer and what must they specify in the offer?

A

A formal, without prejudice offer, to settle a claim

Either party can make a Part 36 offer, and they must specify the amount they would be prepared to pay/accept to settle

128
Q

What may the offeror be awarded if they make a Part 36 offer pre-issue and the parties settle the claim before proceedings begin?

A

Pre-issue costs that they incurred

129
Q

What may the offeror be awarded if they make a Part 36 offer pre-issue but it is rejected by the other party, and the offeror wins the case?

A

Costs related to pre-action work, in addition to the costs of the litigation

130
Q

Can a Part 36 offer be withdrawn?

A

After the expiry of the relevant period, as long as the offeree has not served notice of acceptance

131
Q

If a notice of withdrawal or to change the terms to ones less favourable for the offeree is served before the expiry of relevant period, when does the notice take effect?

A

When the relevant period expires, unless the offeror accepts within that time (in which case the offer cannot be withdrawn/amended in the usual way)

132
Q

What two things must the court be satisfied of to grant permission to withdraw or amend a Part 36 offer after it has accepted?

A
  1. Change of circumstances since the offer was made
  2. In the interests of justice to give permission
133
Q

How must a Part 36 offer be accepted?

A

In writing

134
Q

When can a Part 36 offer be accepted?

A

At any time within the relevant period with no limitations, and after the relevant period as long as the offeror has not withdrawn the offer

135
Q

If a Part 36 offer, made by either party, is accepted within the relevant period, up until when will defendant pay the costs of the claim, and on what basis will they be assessed?

A

The defendant will pay costs on the standard basis up to the point of acceptance

136
Q

If a claimant accepts a defendant’s Part 36 offer outside the relevant period, up until when will the defendant’s liability to pay the claimant’s costs run?

A

Until the end of the relevant period

137
Q

What is required to accept a Part 36 offer from a single defendant in a case with multiple defendants?

A

Court permission

138
Q

What are the two situations where a Part 36 offer might cause cost-related difficulty for a party?

A
  1. Claimant rejects defendant’s offer and fails to beat offer
  2. Defendant rejects claimant’s offer and claimant is awarded an amount equal to or greater than the offer
139
Q

What are the two situations where a Part 36 offer might will not cause cost-related difficulty for a party?

A
  1. Claimant rejects defendant’s offer and beats it
  2. Defendant rejects claimant’s offer and the claimant is awarded less
140
Q

Where a claimant rejects a defendant’s offer and fails to beat the offer, what is the consequence?

A

Defendant will have costs awarded on a standard basis from the date when the relevant period of acceptance expired

Defendant will usually still have to pay costs up to the expiry of the relevant period

141
Q

Where a defendant rejects a claimant’s offer and claimant is awarded an amount equal to or greater than the offer, what is the consequence?

A

Unless it is unjust, for the period after the time for acceptance expired, costs will be assessed on an indemnity basis and the claimant will be entitled to 10% interest on top of costs accrued within this period.

142
Q

What things will the court consider when determining whether an order for failure to accept a Part 36 is unjust, such that the court will exercise discretion not to make the order?

A
  1. Stage of proceedings when the offer was made
  2. Conduct of the parties
  3. Whether the offer was a genuine attempt to settle
143
Q

What is the annual interest rate of High Court judgments, from when does interest begin to accrue, and what is this interest in addition to?

A

8%, from the date of judgment, in addition to the any punitive interest the court may award on the value of the claim

144
Q

What is the monetary threshold in County Court, under which interest will not be payable, and what is the exception to this?

What is the interest rate on County Court judgments above this threshold?

A

£5,000, except for when the dispute is based in contract, and the contract provides for interest

8%, the same as the High Court

145
Q

What is the lower limit for a County Court judgment to be enforceable in the High Court?

A

£600

£600 is also the lower limit for a High Court enforcement officer to enforce a High Court judgment. County Court judgments are enforced by County Court enforcement officers

146
Q

Within what period must a judgment creditor (successful party) serve a court order on a judgment debtor (losing party), for a hearing to examine the debtors means and assets?

What must the judgment creditor also file 2 days before the hearing?

A

14 days

Affidavit providing details of service and how much remains unpaid

147
Q

What is a writ of control?

A

A document issued by the High Court where a judgment creditor has requested to execute a judgment, which is forwarded to the High Court enforcement officer

A warrant of control is the County Court version

148
Q

If the creditor wishes to take control of debtor’s goods, how much notice must they give?

Within what period of serving must they take control?

A

Seven days

12 months

149
Q

Where only can the creditor’s agent enter?

What must they do regarding goods seized?

A

Can only enter the address stated

Must provide an inventory of the goods, and sell them within 7 days and use the proceeds to discharge the debt and enforcement costs.

150
Q

What two categories of items can the creditor not seize?

A
  1. Equipment for use in the debtor’s trade
  2. Household items necessary for basic domestic needs
151
Q

What is a controlled goods agreement?

A

An agreement whereby the debtor retains custody of the goods on the understanding that the enforcement officer is taking control, but the debtor agrees not to dispose of them before the debt is paid

152
Q

What is a charging order on land?

A

Where the debtor has an interest in land (even if this is a joint interest), a creditor may obtain a charge on the property which will rank as an equitable mortgage and gives the creditor the right to apply for an order for sale

153
Q

What is an attachment of earnings order?

A

Where an individual debtor is in regular employment, the order compels an employer to make regular deductions from the earnings and pay them into court

Must be sought in County Court

asn disputes (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions