Dispute Resolution - Flashcards Full Deck

1
Q

What is the first requirement for a contract?

A

An agreement between parties who intended to be legally bound (includes an offer and an acceptance).

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2
Q

What is an “offer” in contract law?

A

A clear proposal made by one party to another, indicating a willingness to enter into a contract on specific terms.

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3
Q

What is “acceptance” in contract law?

A

An unequivocal agreement to the terms of the offer, communicated to the offeror.

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4
Q

What is the second requirement for a contract?

A

Consideration (something of legal value exchanged between the parties).

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5
Q

What is “consideration”?

A

The value that is exchanged in a contract, which can be money, services, or a promise to do (or not do) something.

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6
Q

What is a requirement for executing a deed?

A

A deed must be executed in the presence of a witness.

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7
Q

How must a deed be made effective?

A

A deed must be delivered to be effective.

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8
Q

Is a promise to make a gift enforceable?

A

Yes, a promise to make a gift is enforceable if made by deed.

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9
Q

How must land be conveyed?

A

A conveyance of land must be by deed.

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10
Q

What is the limitation period for a simple contract claim?

A

A claim under a simple contract must be brought within 6 years.

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11
Q

When does the limitation period for a contract claim start?

A

It runs from the accrual date (when the breach occurs).

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12
Q

What is the limitation period for a contract by deed?

A

A claim under a contract by deed must be brought within 12 years.

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13
Q

What is the limitation period for a tort claim?

A

A claim under tort must be brought within 6 years from the time the action accrued.

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14
Q

When does the limitation period for a tort claim start if not readily apparent?

A

It starts 6 years from when the claimant gained knowledge of the tort.

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15
Q

What is the limitation period for personal injury claims?

A

The limitation period is 3 years from accrual or knowledge of the injury.

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16
Q

What if the victim of a tort dies within 3 years of accrual?

A

The limitation period is 3 years from the date of death or from when the deceased’s personal representative gained knowledge of the tort.

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17
Q

What are the key components required for a contractual agreement?

A

An offer and acceptance.

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18
Q

What must an offer express to be considered valid?

A

An intent to be bound in a contract if accepted by the other party.

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19
Q

How must the terms of an offer be for it to be enforceable?

A

The terms must be definite and certain enough for a court to enforce.

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20
Q

What must the offeree have to accept an offer?

A

The offeree must have knowledge of the offer.

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21
Q

What is not considered an offer?

A

A statement made to request information.

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22
Q

What are invitations to treat?

A

Words or conduct that invite another party to make an offer.

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23
Q

When can an offeror revoke their offer?

A

An offeror can revoke most offers at any time before acceptance.

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24
Q

When cannot an offer be revoked?

A

If a collateral contract exists, if it’s a unilateral contract and performance has begun, or if it’s a bilateral contract with performance begun.

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25
Q

How can an offeree terminate an offer?

A

By expressly rejecting it or by impliedly rejecting it through failure to accept in a reasonable time.

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26
Q

What happens to an offer by operation of law?

A

It terminates if the offeror or offeree dies, the subject matter is destroyed, or if a condition isn’t met.

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27
Q

Who can accept an offer?

A

Usually, only the offeree to whom the offer is made.

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28
Q

How must acceptance be communicated?

A

Unless specified, any method of acceptance no less advantageous is valid; silence usually is not acceptance.

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29
Q

When is a unilateral contract accepted?

A

Not until completion of the requested act.

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30
Q

What is the postal rule?

A

Acceptance by post creates a contract at the moment of posting, unless conditions about addressing or receipt apply.

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31
Q

What controls in a battle of the forms situation?

A

Usually, the last set of terms that were not objected to controls.

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32
Q

What is required for a party to have capacity to contract?

A

A party must have legal capacity, meaning they are of legal age and mentally competent.

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33
Q

What is the status of a contract entered by a minor (under 18)?

A

It is voidable by the minor; they can enforce it but cannot be bound unless ratified upon turning 18.

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34
Q

When are minors bound by a contract?

A

When they enter a contract for necessary goods or services at a reasonable price.

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35
Q

Can minors enter employment contracts?

A

Yes, minors can enter into employment contracts.

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36
Q

What happens if a person without mental capacity enters a contract?

A

The contract is voidable by that person if the other party knew of their lack of capacity.

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37
Q

Are contracts for necessities binding for those without mental capacity?

A

Yes, contracts for necessities at a reasonable price are binding even if entered by someone lacking capacity.

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38
Q

What is required for a promise to be enforceable in a contract?

A

Each party must give consideration to make the other party’s promise enforceable.

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39
Q

What is consideration?

A

An act or forbearance from acting, or a promise to act or forbear.

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40
Q

What is executory consideration?

A

Consideration that is promised for the future; once performed, it becomes executed consideration.

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41
Q

How must consideration be valued?

A

It must have some value, but the courts are not concerned with whether it is adequate or equivalent.

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42
Q

What happens if consideration has no value?

A

It is considered illusory.

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43
Q

Is a promise to perform an existing duty valid consideration?

A

No, but if something additional is offered (e.g., finishing early), there is valid consideration.

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44
Q

Is a promise to perform a statutory duty valid consideration?

A

No, it is not valid consideration.

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45
Q

What is past consideration and is it valid?

A

Acts performed in the past before the promise are not valid consideration, except if payment was understood to be due.

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46
Q

Is a promise to accept part of a debt as full payment enforceable?

A

No, it is not enforceable for lack of valid consideration.

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47
Q

What are express terms?

A

Terms that are intended to be binding and incorporated into the contract.

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48
Q

How can express terms be incorporated into a contract?

A
  1. Signed written contract (binding even if unread).
  2. Incorporation by notice (reasonable steps to bring terms to attention).
  3. Incorporation by consistent and regular course of dealing.
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49
Q

What is the effect of signing a written contract?

A

It makes the express terms binding, even if the signer has not read the document.

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50
Q

What is incorporation by notice?

A

Reasonable steps must be taken to ensure the party is aware of the terms.

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51
Q

What does “consistent and regular course of dealing” mean?

A

Terms can be incorporated if parties have a history of dealing in a consistent manner that includes those terms.

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52
Q

What does the Sale of Goods Act 1979 apply to?

A

It applies whenever goods are sold.

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53
Q

What condition must the seller meet regarding ownership?

A

The seller has the right to sell the goods.

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54
Q

What does the seller guarantee about the description of the goods?

A

The goods must match any description applied by the seller.

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55
Q

What is meant by “satisfactory quality”?

A

Goods must be of satisfactory quality, meaning they are fit for the purpose for which they are used.

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56
Q

What is the requirement regarding special purposes?

A

The goods must be fit for any special purpose that the buyer tells the seller they will be used for.

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57
Q

Can the condition of title be excluded?

A

No, the condition of title cannot be excluded.

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58
Q

Can other implied conditions be excluded?

A

Yes, but whether they can be excluded depends on whether the exclusion was reasonable.

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59
Q

What does the Supply of Goods and Services Act 1982 apply to?

A

It generally applies to contracts for services supplied by a business and to goods supplied in relation to the service.

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60
Q

What type of term is implied in service contracts under the Act?

A

An innominate term is implied, meaning the remedy for breach depends on the impact of the breach.

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61
Q

What is required from suppliers in relation to service contracts?

A

Suppliers must carry out the service in a reasonable time and with reasonable care and skill.

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62
Q

What terms are implied regarding the supply of goods?

A

Terms similar to those implied under the Sale of Goods Act are applied.

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63
Q

Can implied terms under the Act be excluded?

A

Yes, but a contract may only exclude these implied terms if the exclusion is reasonable.

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64
Q

What does the Consumer Rights Act 2015 apply to?

A

It implies terms into sales contracts between a trader and a consumer, similar to those under the Supply of Goods Act.

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65
Q

What seller obligations are implied under the CRA regarding goods?

A

The seller has title, goods comply with description, quality, and fitness for purpose.

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66
Q

What terms are implied for service contracts under the CRA?

A

Services must be carried out with reasonable care and skill, completed according to consumer-reliant information, for a reasonable price, and within a reasonable timeframe.

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67
Q

Can terms implied by the CRA be excluded or limited?

A

No, the terms implied by the CRA cannot be excluded or limited.

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68
Q

When will a court imply a term into a contract?

A

If it is necessary to give the contract business efficacy.

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69
Q

How can terms be implied based on industry practices?

A

Terms may be implied based on custom and usage in the industry or market standard for the relevant field.

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70
Q

What else can lead to implied terms in a contract?

A

Terms may also be implied based on a regular and consistent course of dealings between the parties.

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71
Q

What happens if a contract is too vague or incomplete?

A

If a contract is so vague that a court cannot determine the parties’ intentions, the court will not enforce it.

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72
Q

Can a court enforce a contract if part of it is uncertain?

A

Yes, the court may sever the uncertain part and enforce the rest of the contract if it doesn’t affect the whole.

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73
Q

How can exclusion clauses be incorporated into a contract?

A
  1. Expressly in a signed contract.
  2. By notice if reasonable steps were taken to bring it to attention.
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74
Q

Can exclusion clauses be implied?

A

Yes, if there is an industry custom or a regular and consistent course of dealings that includes the exclusion.

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75
Q

What must an exclusion clause do to be enforceable?

A

It must clearly and unambiguously cover the loss suffered.

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76
Q

What does the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977 say about exclusion clauses?

A

It voids clauses that:
1. Exclude liability for death caused by negligence.
2. Exclude liability for breach of title.
3. Exclude liability for breach of description, quality, or fitness for purpose.

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77
Q

What is the purpose of damages in a breach of contract?

A

To put the innocent party in the position they would have been in if the contract had been performed properly.

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78
Q

What are expectation/loss of bargain damages?

A

Damages designed to put the nonbreaching party in the position they would be in if the contract had been performed.

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79
Q

What are reliance damages?

A

Damages that compensate the nonbreaching party for expenses incurred in reliance on the contract up to the time of the breach.

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80
Q

What are nominal damages?

A

Damages awarded when no loss has occurred as a result of the breach, typically amounting to £1.

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81
Q

What constitutes negligence?

A

When a person owes a duty of care to another, breaches that duty, and the breach causes damage.

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82
Q

When are damages not recoverable in a negligence claim?

A

If the harm suffered was not within the scope of the duty of care, damages are not recoverable.

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83
Q

What is the standard of care in negligence?

A

A duty to act with reasonable care, assessed objectively by considering the likelihood and seriousness of harm.

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84
Q

What special duties apply to skilled defendants and professionals?

A

They must act as a reasonably competent member of their profession would.

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85
Q

What are the components of causation in negligence?

A

1) Breach caused harm, 2) No new act intervened, 3) Harm was reasonably foreseeable (egg shell skull doctrine).

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86
Q

What is contributory negligence?

A

A partial defense where the claimant’s own negligence contributed to their injury.

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87
Q

What is voluntary assumption of risk?

A

A complete defense where the claimant knowingly and voluntarily assumes the risk of harm.

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88
Q

What is the goal of damages in tort?

A

To put the injured party in the position they would have been in had the tort not occurred.

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89
Q

What duty do tort victims have regarding their losses?

A

They have a duty to mitigate their loss to avoid avoidable damages.

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90
Q

What are recoverable pecuniary losses for a living claimant?

A

1) Loss of past income, 2) Loss of future income, 3) Past and future medical treatment expenses, costs of care, necessary equipment, or modifications.

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91
Q

What are recoverable non-pecuniary losses?

A

Past and future pain and suffering and loss of amenity.

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92
Q

How is damage to property typically measured?

A

By replacement costs or repair costs.

93
Q

What is negotiation in ADR?

A

Informal discussions between parties to resolve a dispute; conversations are without prejudice and not court-reliable.

94
Q

What does “without prejudice” mean in negotiation?

A

Statements made cannot be used as evidence in court.

95
Q

What is arbitration?

A

A semi-formal procedure where a neutral third party hears evidence and makes a legally binding decision.

96
Q

Do strict rules of evidence apply in arbitration?

A

No, strict rules of evidence do not apply.

97
Q

What is mediation?

A

An informal process where a neutral mediator helps parties reach a resolution; it’s confidential and not binding until an agreement is signed.

98
Q

What role does the mediator play?

A

The mediator facilitates discussion but does not rule on the merits of the case.

99
Q

Who bears the costs in mediation?

A

Costs are typically borne by both parties.

100
Q

What are pre-action protocols?

A

Steps parties should take before starting legal action; include dispute-specific protocols.

101
Q

What should the claimant do first?

A

Write to the defendant with concise details of the claim.

102
Q

What is the response time for the defendant?

A

14 days for straightforward claims; up to 3 months for complex claims.

103
Q

What should parties consider during pre-action?

A

Disclosing key documents, using a single joint expert, and considering Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR).

104
Q

What happens if a party fails to follow protocols?

A

Possible stay of proceedings, costs ordered against the non-compliant party, or restricted interest for the Claimant.

105
Q

How is a proceeding commenced?

A

By issuing a claim form that includes brief details of the claim.

106
Q

Where should claims be started?

A

In the County Court, unless the claim exceeds £50,000 for personal injury or £100,000 for other claims.

107
Q

Where can claims exceeding these amounts be filed?

A

In either the High Court or the County Court.

108
Q

What types of cases are handled in the Queen’s Bench Division?

A

Defamation, breach of contract, negligence/personal injury, land possession, non-payment of debt, TCC, Commercial Court.

109
Q

What types of cases are handled in the Chancery Division?

A

Equity and trusts, commercial fraud, taxes, intellectual property, contentious probate, business disputes, professional negligence (except TCC), bankruptcy, Companies Court.

110
Q

What information must be included in claims?

A

Full names and addresses of both claimant and defendant.

111
Q

What must the claim form include?

A

Brief details of the claim, value of the claim (excluding interest, costs, contributory negligence, counterclaims), preferred court, and court fee.

112
Q

How is the court fee calculated?

A

5% of the claim value if between £10,000 - £200,000; £10,000 if over £200,000.

113
Q

What are Particulars of Claim?

A

A formal written statement detailing the claim, typically served with the claim form or within 14 days after.

114
Q

What must the claim form include besides details?

A

A signed statement of truth.

115
Q

How does the claim start?

A

By issuing the claim form at the claimant’s request.

116
Q

What must the claimant serve with the claim form?

A

Witness evidence that includes a statement of truth.

117
Q

What does the court send to the claimant?

A

A notice of issue confirming the date the claim was issued.

118
Q

What happens if the defendant does not respond?

A

They cannot participate in the hearing unless the court grants permission.

119
Q

What is a Part 8 claim?

A

A claim involving no substantial dispute of fact, requiring a specific claim form stating the questions for the court and details of the claim.

120
Q

When must the claim form be served on the defendant?

A

Before midnight on calendar day 4 months after the date of issue; 6 months if outside the jurisdiction.

121
Q

What is required for service outside the jurisdiction?

A

Court permission, unless the defendant resides in Scotland or Northern Ireland.

122
Q

How does the court usually serve documents?

A

By first class post.

123
Q

Can the claimant serve documents themselves?

A

Yes, the claimant can serve by first class post.

124
Q

What must be included in the service?

A

Claim form, notice of funding, and the defendant’s response pack.

125
Q

How can service be made via document exchange?

A

If the party’s address for service includes a DX or there is a DX number available.

126
Q

When can service be made by email?

A

Only with express consent and if the party has provided their email address.

127
Q

When is a claim form deemed to be served?

A

On the second business day after it has been mailed, delivered, faxed, emailed, or sent by DX.

128
Q

What must the defendant do to contest service?

A

Indicate on the acknowledgment of service and apply to set the service aside within 14 days.

129
Q

What does the court issue if it serves the claim form?

A

A certificate of service sent to the claimant.

130
Q

What if particulars of claim are not served with the claim form?

A

The claimant must serve the particulars within 14 days and within 4 months of issuance.

131
Q

What can the court allow if service might not be achieved within the validity period?

A

Service by an alternative method or place on application if there is good reason.

132
Q

How long does the defendant have to respond to the claim?

A

14 days from the date the particulars of claim are deemed to have been served.

133
Q

What can the claimant do if the defendant doesn’t respond within 14 days?

A

The claimant can obtain summary judgment.

134
Q

What options does the defendant have to respond?

A
  1. Admit parts of or all of the claim. 2. File and serve a defence. 3. Acknowledge service and indicate intent to defend (giving an additional 14 days).
135
Q

How long can parties agree to extend the filing of the defence?

A

An additional 28 days (maximum 56 days from the deemed date of service).

136
Q

Can an admission be withdrawn?

A

Yes, with permission from the court.

137
Q

What can the claimant do after the defendant files an acknowledgment?

A

The claimant can apply for summary judgment or an interim payment.

138
Q

Can the defendant dispute the court’s jurisdiction?

A

Yes, the defendant may dispute the court’s jurisdiction when responding.

139
Q

What happens if the defendant fails to file a defence within the time limits?

A

The court may enter a default judgment against the defendant, preventing them from mounting a defence.

140
Q

What are the tracks for case allocation in the county court?

A

Small claims track, Fast track, and Multi-track.

141
Q

What is the monetary limit for the Small Claims Track?

A

Up to £10,000 in dispute.

142
Q

What costs are recoverable in the Small Claims Track?

A

Restricted to fixed costs and reasonable expenses in attending; expert fees are capped at £750.

143
Q

What is the monetary range for the Fast Track?

A

Between £10,000 and £25,000 in dispute.

144
Q

What is the trial timeline for the Fast Track?

A

Trial must occur within 30 weeks of allocation.

145
Q

How is evidence presented in the Fast Track?

A

Evidence is submitted in written form.

146
Q

How are costs assessed in the Fast Track?

A

Costs are summarily assessed at the conclusion of the trial.

147
Q

What is the minimum claim amount for the Multi-Track?

A

At least £25,000 in dispute, or lesser value cases that will last more than one day in trial.

148
Q

What is the primary purpose of disclosure?

A

To identify and inform the other side of the existence of all documents relevant to the litigation.

149
Q

What does the term “inspection” refer to?

A

The process of enabling the other side to view disclosed documents.

150
Q

What types of documents are included in disclosure?

A

Emails, Word documents, Excel sheets, databases, hard drives, photographs, and written documents.

151
Q

What is Standard Disclosure?

A

The obligation to identify and inform about documents on which a party intends to rely, adverse documents, and those supporting the other party’s case.

152
Q

What is the duty of a claimant regarding search?

A

They must make a reasonable and proportionate search for documents within their control that might be relevant.

153
Q

Define “specific disclosure.”

A

An application for additional disclosure when there’s reason to believe the initial disclosure was inadequate.

154
Q

What is the rule regarding privileged documents?

A

Their existence must be disclosed, but the documents can be withheld from inspection.

155
Q

What are the four types of privilege?

A
  1. Legal advice privilege 2. Litigation privilege 3. Common interest privilege 4. Without prejudice privilege
156
Q

Who holds the privilege over a document?

A

The client holds the privilege, and it can only be waived by the client.

157
Q

What must a Disclosure List include?

A
  1. Documents available for inspection 2. Documents withheld from inspection 3. Documents no longer in control, including their last known status.
158
Q

What is a Disclosure Statement?

A

A statement detailing the extent of the search for relevant documents, certified by the party making it.

159
Q

What is the timeline for inspection after disclosure?

A

The inspection must occur within 7 days following the disclosure of documents.

160
Q

What are the consequences if a solicitor fails to comply with disclosure obligations?

A

They must not continue to act for a client unwilling to comply; they must also inform the court of destroyed documents.

161
Q

What are the two types of evidence?

A

Direct evidence (oral from a witness) and circumstantial evidence (indirectly suggests a fact).

162
Q

What is required for evidence to be presented at trial?

A

Witnesses must provide a signed statement setting out their evidence.

163
Q

What must a witness statement include?

A

A statement of truth and must be served on the opponent per the directions order.

164
Q

What happens if a proponent does not call a witness?

A

The opponent can refer to the witness’s statement as hearsay.

165
Q

How can a witness be compelled to give evidence?

A

By serving a witness summons, issued at least 7 days before the hearing.

166
Q

What is required for a witness summons?

A

A separate summons for each witness, and witnesses are entitled to conduct money for travel.

167
Q

What happens if a summoned witness fails to attend?

A

They may be held in contempt of court.

168
Q

What is an affidavit?

A

A formal witness statement signed in the presence of a solicitor, who endorses it.

169
Q

Define hearsay evidence.

A

Evidence made out of court offered to prove the truth of what is said in the statement.

170
Q

What are the characteristics of hearsay evidence?

A

It can be oral or written, and the court gives it less weight than direct evidence.

171
Q

What must the proponent of hearsay do before relying on it?

A

Serve notice to the opponent of their intention to rely on the hearsay evidence.

172
Q

Who can give opinion evidence?

A

Only an expert with knowledge or experience in the relevant field.

173
Q

Is a formal degree necessary for an expert?

A

No, a formal degree is not necessary.

174
Q

What must expert opinion evidence be based on?

A

Specialist knowledge, skill, or training not within the ordinary experience of the judge.

175
Q

What is required of an expert’s opinion?

A

It must be reasonably certain and demonstrate the basis of their opinion and conclusions.

176
Q

What duty do experts owe to the court?

A

Experts owe a duty of independence, integrity, and impartiality, overriding any duty to the instructing party.

177
Q

In what form should expert evidence be presented?

A

In the form of a report addressed to the court.

178
Q

Do experts generally attend trial?

A

No, but they can give oral evidence if certain conditions are met.

179
Q

What conditions allow an expert to give oral evidence?

A
  1. Likely impact on the outcome, 2. Will assist the judge, 3. Risk of injustice if not tested, 4. Costs not disproportionate.
180
Q

What is the advantage of appointing a single joint expert?

A

Fees are shared between parties until the conclusion of the case.

181
Q

How long do parties have to send questions to an expert after receiving the report?

A

28 days.

182
Q

What is required when parties settle before trial?

A

They must confirm the settlement in a consent order, often using a Tomlin order.

183
Q

What is a Tomlin order?

A

A type of consent order that confirms a stay in proceedings and includes a schedule of payments.

184
Q

What is a Part 36 offer?

A

A formal, written offer to settle a claim that is without prejudice and can be made by either party.

185
Q

When can a Part 36 offer be made?

A

At any time during proceedings (except small claims) and even before proceedings are issued.

186
Q

What must a Part 36 offer state?

A

It must be in writing, specify it is a Part 36 offer, and state a relevant period during which it cannot be withdrawn.

187
Q

How long must the relevant period for a Part 36 offer be?

A

A minimum of 21 days.

188
Q

Can a Part 36 offer be withdrawn?

A

Yes, unless the offeree has served a Notice of Acceptance.

189
Q

How can a Part 36 offer be accepted?

A

Acceptance must be in writing and can occur anytime, even after the relevant period, if not withdrawn.

190
Q

What happens if a claimant accepts a Part 36 offer within the relevant period?

A

They are entitled to their costs up to the date of acceptance.

191
Q

What happens if a claimant accepts after the relevant period?

A

Costs are only available up to the end of the relevant period, not to the date of acceptance.

192
Q

What are the consequences of rejecting a Part 36 offer?

A

If a claimant secures more than the offer, there’s no cost penalty. If less, they pay the defendant’s costs post-offer period.

193
Q

What happens if a defendant rejects a claimant’s Part 36 offer?

A

If the claimant gets less than the offer, no effect on costs; if more, the defendant may owe interest and additional costs.

194
Q

What happens 10 weeks before a multi-track trial?

A

A pre-trial review hearing is set by the trial court.

195
Q

What does the judge set during the pre-trial review?

A

The judge sets the timetable for the trial, the number of experts allowed to give evidence, and the number of witnesses permitted.

196
Q

What must parties file before the pre-trial review?

A

An agreed case summary along with a list of issues.

197
Q

What is the general rule regarding costs?

A

The loser pays the costs (solicitor’s fees) and disbursements of the winner.

198
Q

On what basis are costs assessed by the court?

A

Standard basis (proportionate costs, doubt in favor of paying party) and indemnity basis (difficult to dispute costs).

199
Q

When must parties file a costs budget in multi-track cases?

A

At least 21 days before the Case Management Conference (CMC) if seeking £50K or more; with Directions Questionnaire for less than £50K.

200
Q

What happens if a party fails to file a costs budget?

A

They will not be able to recover costs even if they prevail.

201
Q

Who can apply for Security for Costs?

A

Only the defendant (D) can apply for this to ensure the claimant (C) can pay their costs if ordered.

202
Q

What conditions allow for Security for Costs?

A

C is outside the jurisdiction, C is a company likely unable to pay, C has changed address to evade litigation, or C has moved assets outside England and Wales.

203
Q

What is a Wasted Costs Order?

A

A court order requiring a solicitor or party to pay the costs of the other party for improper, unreasonable, or negligent actions.

204
Q

What must the winning party do to enforce a judgment?

A

They must apply to court to have the judgment enforced; it’s not automatic if the losing party chooses not to pay.

205
Q

What is the first step to locate a debtor’s assets?

A

The judgment creditor (JC) applies for an order for the debtor to attend an oral examination about their means and assets.

206
Q

What is required before the oral examination hearing?

A

The JC must serve the court order personally on the judgment debtor at least 14 days before the hearing and file an affidavit of service.

207
Q

What happens if the debtor fails to attend the hearing?

A

The judge may issue a committal order against the debtor.

208
Q

What is the interest rate available to the JC during enforcement?

A

Interest is 8% per annum in the High Court and for debts over £5K in the County Court.

209
Q

What is “Taking Control of Goods”?

A

A method to take control of the debtor’s property to sell it for debt satisfaction.

210
Q

What is the process for enforcement in the High Court?

A

The JC files a request, the court issues a writ of control, and it’s forwarded to a High Court enforcement officer.

211
Q

What notice must the creditor give before taking control of goods?

A

The creditor must provide at least 7 days’ notice of their intention to take control of the goods.

212
Q

What is a Third-Party Debt Order?

A

An order allowing access to the debtor’s money in bank accounts, directing the bank to pay the creditor instead of the debtor.

213
Q

What is a Charge on Property?

A

It gives the creditor the right to apply for the sale of the debtor’s property if they have an interest in it.

214
Q

What is an Attachment of Earnings Order?

A

An order compelling the debtor’s employer to make regular deductions from the debtor’s earnings and pay them into court.

215
Q

How is enforcement affected if the debtor is outside England and Wales?

A

The judgment is enforceable only if the debtor’s country has a reciprocal enforcement agreement with England and Wales.

216
Q

What are interim applications?

A

Pre-trial requests for a court order made as soon as necessary or desirable.

217
Q

What is Summary Judgment?

A

An application to dispose of the matter without a full trial if there’s no real prospect of success/defense.

218
Q

What is the burden of proof in a Summary Judgment application?

A

The burden is on the applicant, who must support their application with evidence served 14 days before the hearing.

219
Q

What can lead to a Strike Out application?

A

A statement of case can be struck out if it discloses no reasonable grounds, is an abuse of process, or fails to comply with court rules.

220
Q

What is an Interim Payment?

A

A request for payment before a final judgment, usually made when liability is admitted or likely to result in a substantial judgment.

221
Q

What must the applicant do before seeking an Interim Payment?

A

Write to the other party inviting them to make an interim payment.

222
Q

What types of injunctions can be requested?

A

Mandatory (requiring action) or prohibitory (preventing action) injunctions.

223
Q

What is a Freezing Injunction?

A

A prohibitory order preventing a party from disposing of specified assets.

224
Q

What is required for a Freezing Injunction?

A

A justifiable cause, a good arguable case, assets within jurisdiction, and real risk of asset disposal.

225
Q

What is a Search Order?

A

A mandatory order allowing a party to search for and seize evidence that may be destroyed.

226
Q

What is the procedure for applying for an injunction?

A

Must show urgency and desirability in the interests of justice; can be obtained quickly, often without notice.

227
Q

What happens if an injunction is obtained without notice?

A

A return hearing is scheduled shortly after to allow the other party to respond.

228
Q

What are potential grounds for discharging an injunction?

A

Material non-disclosure, failure to comply, change in circumstances, or oppression.

229
Q

What are the penalties for breaching an injunction?

A

Contempt of court, potentially leading to imprisonment for up to 2 years or asset sequestration.