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Dispatcher Regulations > Dispatch Practical Test > Flashcards

Dispatch Practical Test Flashcards

1
Q

(regs) Define operational control

A

With regards to a flight, the authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight.

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2
Q

(regs) Define domestic operations

A

Domestic operations are scheduled operations with airplane with more than 9 passenger seats, a payload of more than 7,500lbs operating in the 48 states or wholly within any state, territory or US possession.

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3
Q

(regs) Define Flag operations

A

Flag operations are scheduled operations with airplanes with more than 9 passenger seats, a payload of more than 7,500lbs operating between HI, AK, the 48 states and territories and somewhere outside HI, AK, and the 48 states and territories. Or between two points outside the US.

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4
Q

(regs) Define Supplemental operations

A

charter flights

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5
Q

(regs) If the PIC and dispatcher disagree about the safety of a flight can the PIC fly anyways?

A

No, both the PIC and dispatcher are equally responsible for the safety of the flight.

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6
Q

(regs) what are approved weather services?

A

in the US, National weather service

outside the US source must be approved by the Administrator.

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7
Q

(regs) What items are recorded by the flight recorder?

A

Time, Altitude, Airspeed, vertical acceleration, heading, time of radio transmissions with ATC.

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8
Q

(regs) What is the departure alternate distance for the 737-400?

A

departure alternate may be no more than 1 hour in calm wind with one engine inop

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9
Q

(regs) How many hours of basic indoc?

A

40 hours

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10
Q

(regs) How many hours of initial?

A

40 hours

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11
Q

(regs) How many hours of transition?

A

hours determined by the administrator, from one type of aircraft to another

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12
Q

(regs) How many hours of recurrent?

A

20 hours, annually

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13
Q

(regs) How many hours of differences?

A

hours determined by the administrator, from one air craft in the same category to another 737-400 to 737-500

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14
Q

(regs) How many hours of HazMat training?

A

hours determined by the administrator, every 12 calendar months

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15
Q

(regs) Which hours may be reduced?

A

All hours may be reduced by the administrator.

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16
Q

(regs) Can FAM flights be reduced?

A

Yes FAM flights can be reduced to a minimum of 2 1/2 hours. 1 hour for every takeoff and landing after the first one.

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17
Q

(regs) What should be done if the communications network goes down?

A

Ground all departing traffic and land flights in the air at the nearest suitable airport.

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18
Q

(regs) Can you fly with weather radar inop.

A

Yes, if weather is VFR and there is no reasonable expectation of hazardous weather.

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19
Q

(regs) When do you need an alternate for a Flag flight

A

if the flight is more than 6 hours long or the forecast 1 hour before and after ETA is less than the greater of 1500 ft above the lowest circling MDA or instrument approach minimum or
2000 ft above field and 3 miles visibility or
2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums

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20
Q

(regs) Define High minimum captain

A

A high minimum captain is a PIC with less than 100 hours as acting PIC. Landing minimums are raised by 100 ft and 1/2 miles

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21
Q

(regs) Define regular airports.

A

Destination airports approved under Op-Specs. Available to conduct business.

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22
Q

(regs) Define provisional airports.

A

Used in lieu of a regular airport on a temporary basis. available to conduct business.

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23
Q

(regs) Define refueling airports

A

Only used for refueling. No business can be conducted here. Can stay for no more than 1 hour.

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24
Q

(regs) Define alternate airports

A

Used for emergency use only. Does not operate under part 139

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25
Q

(regs) Which airports operate under part 139?

A

Regular, Provisional, and refueling airports must operate under part 139.

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26
Q

(regs) What types of services does part 139 cover?

A

HazMat, weather observers, runway foam, passenger holding areas, parking, maintenance, ramp space, emergency trucks. etc

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27
Q

(regs) What must be considered when calculating fuel?

A

weather, a/c weight, ATC delays, conditions that may delay landing

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28
Q

(regs) What should the dispatcher provide the PIC?

A

flight plan, dispatch release, weather for the entire flight, current airport conditions for all airports, NOTAMs, anomalies the may affect the flight.

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29
Q

(regs) How long should the communication log be kept?

A

30 days

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30
Q

(regs) Define ETOPS

A

extended twin engine operations; when the closest airport is more than 60 minutes from the airplane.

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31
Q

(regs) How can you tell what category an approach is?

A

approaches will be Cat 1 unless otherwise specified

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32
Q

(regs) What are standard T/O minimums?

A

1 or 2 engines: 1 sm/RVR 5000ft

3 or 4 engines 1/2 sm/ RVR 2400ft

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33
Q

(regs) What is the required 30 minutes of fuel on flag flights for?

A

holding at alternate airport at 1500ft

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34
Q

(regs) Can one dispatcher sign another dispatcher’s dispatch release?

A

yes but the authority to dispatch may not be delegated

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35
Q

(regs) Components of an ILS System

A

the glide slope and the localizer frequency. the glide slope provides vertical navigation information and the localizer provides horizontal navigation information. you automatically tune the glide slope frequency when you tune the localizer.

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36
Q

(regs) What is CFR part 139?

A

airport certification

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37
Q

(regs) What is CFR part 121?

A

Operating requirements: domestic, flag and supplemental ops

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38
Q

(regs) What types of operations is the 737-400 authorized for?

A

domestic, flag and supplemental

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39
Q

(OpSpecs) What is c70?

A

List of airports authorized for scheduled operations

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40
Q

(OpSpecs) What is c55?

A

Alternate airport IFR weather minimums

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41
Q

(OpSpecs) what is c56?

A

IFR takeoff minimums

42
Q

(regs) approach category minimums

A 
A-less than 90 knots
B-91-120 knots
C-121-140 knots
D-141-165 knots
E-166 knots and above
43
Q

(regs) Can you circle to land from a percision approach?

A

yes, if weather is VFR. no if weather is IFR

44
Q

(regs) what is runway limit used for?

A

runway limit is used to abort a takeoff roll and have enough runway left to stop safely. If decision speed is exceeded the airplane is in jeopardy of running off the end of the runway.

45
Q

(regs) What is climb limit used for

A

Climb limit is used to ensure obstacle clearance while climbing to flight level on one engine. exceeding this number could cause the aircraft to hit an obstacle while experiencing engine failure on climb out.

46
Q

(regs) What is structural limit used for?

A

Structural limit is used to ensure the structural integrity of the aircraft. exceeding the number may over stress the aircraft causing damage now or in the future.

47
Q

(regs) Can you dispatch into 3000/1 wx with an inop radar?

A

Yes, as long as hazardous wx is not expected along the route of flight.

48
Q

(regs) Precision approaches

A

ILS, ILS/DME, PAR precision approach radar, MLS microwave approach system

49
Q

(regs) Non-precision approaches

A

VOR, VOR/DME, RNAV AZI, AZI/DME Loran-c

50
Q

(regs) How do you adjust for a wet runway?

A

add 15% to the runway limit( -1600lbs for greenriver airlines)

51
Q

(regs) Does greenriver airlines have deicing?

A

no

52
Q

(regs) What do you as a dispatcher need to know about your airline’s deicing program and why?

A

The PIC is responsible for making sure the deicing program in complied with. A dispatcher needs to know what aircraft are available to dispatch and when.

53
Q

(regs) What are dispatcher’s responsibilities regarding emergencies?

A

The dispatcher shall advise the PIC of the emergency, shall ascertain the decision of the PIC and shall have the decision recorded. If the dispatcher cannot communicate with the PIC the dispatcher shall declare an emergency and take any action deemed necessary under the circumstances. When the PIC or dispatcher declares and emergency she shall keep the appropriate ATC facilities and dispatch centers fully informed of the progress of the flight. The person declaring an emergency must send a written report within 10 days after the date of the emergency.

54
Q

(regs) What is FAR part 1?

A

Definitions and Abbreviations

55
Q

(regs) What is FAR part 110?

A

Airline Definitions

56
Q

(regs) What is FAR part 119?

A

Certification of Airline

57
Q

(regs) What is FAR part 135?

A

Commuter/On-Demand Operations

58
Q

(OpSpecs) What is A12 in the OpSpecs?

A

Approval to use Vancouver BC as a domestic destination.

59
Q

(OpSpecs) What is A30 in the OpSpecs?

A

Authorization to operate as a supplemental carrier.

60
Q

(OpSpecs) What is A99 in the OpSpecs?

A

Standard Passanger and Baggage weights.

61
Q

(OpSpecs) What is C52 in the OpSpecs?

A

Authorization for Instrument approach procedures.

62
Q

(OpSpecs) What is C53 in the OpSpecs?

A

Procedures to execute a circling manouver

63
Q

(OpSpecs) What is C54 in the OpSpecs?

A

Limitations and provisions for instrument approach procedures and IFR landing minimums.

64
Q

(OpSpecs) What is C55 in the OpSpecs?

A

Alternate Airport Weather Minimums

65
Q

(OpSpecs) What does C55 say?

A

For airport with one nav facility providing a straight-in approach add 400 ft to height above touchdown and add 1 sm to CAT 1 landing minimum.

For airport with two nav facilities providing a straight-in approach add 200 ft to height above touchdown and 1/2 sm to the higher CAT 1 landing minimum

66
Q

(OpSpecs) What is C56 in the OpSpecs?

A

Authorization to use lower than standard minimums.

67
Q

(OpSpecs) what does C56 say?

A

Standard minimums are: 2 engines or less 1 sm/ 5000 ft rvr 3 engines or more is 1/2 sm/2400 ft rvr.
Greenriver Airlines is authorized to use 500 ft rvr.

68
Q

(OpSpecs) What is C70 in the OpSpecs?

A

The list of approved airports.

69
Q

(regs) What is the 1-2-3 rule

A

Authorization to dispatch an aircraft without an alternate if one hour before and one hour after the ETA the weather is 2000 ft above the airport and 3 miles visibility.

70
Q

(OpSpecs) What are the OpSpecs?

A

The document of limitations and authorizations to operate the airline.

71
Q

(regs) What are 5 items required on a dispatch release?

A

Aircraft number, Tail number, Airports involved in the flight, Type of operation(IFR/VFR), minimum fuel required.

72
Q

(regs) What are 3 things the PIC must carry?

A

Dispatch release, weight and balance, and flight plan.

73
Q

(regs) What do you do if you have a two engine airplane and lose one engine in flight?

A

Land the aircraft at the nearest airport in point of time.

74
Q

(regs) How long are communications records kept?

A

At least 30 days

75
Q

(regs) How long are dispatch records kept?

A

At least 3 months

76
Q

(wx) What is an Airmet?

A

An airmet is a meteorological Advisory that concerns small aircraft. The reasons they are produced are for moderate icing, freezing levels, moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30+ knots, extensive mountain obscuration.

77
Q

(wx) What is a Sigmet?

A

Significant meteorological Advisory concerning all aircraft. it is valid for up to 4 hours. severe or greater turbulence, sever or greater icing, IMC conditions due to dust, sand, or volcanic ash. All are for 3000 square mile area.

78
Q

(wx) What is a Convective Sigmet?

A

Concerns all aircraft, is valid up to 2 hours. TS affecting an area of 3000 square miles or greater, line of TS at least 60 nm long, severe or embedded TS affecting any area that are expected to last 30 minutes or longer.

79
Q

(regs) When do you need a departure alternate?

A

When wx at the departure airport is below landing minimums. for 2 engine aircraft the alternate cannot be more than 1 hour away with one engine inop. For 3 or 4 the alternate cannot be more than 2 hours away with one engine inop.

80
Q

(regs) When do you need a domestic destination alternate?

A

Always, the only time you don’t need one is if the 1-2-3 rule applies.

81
Q

(wx) What three things do clouds need to form?

A

Condensation nuclei, moisture, and cooling to the dewpoint.

82
Q

(wx) What is QNH?

A

True altitude. Height above sea level

83
Q

(wx) What is QNE?

A

Pressure altitude. Standard pressure used at FL180 and above.

84
Q

(wx) What is QFE?

A

Absolute altitude. Actual height above the terrain.

85
Q

(wx) What are the 6 types of fog?

A

Upslope, radiation, advection, steam, percipitation, ice

86
Q

(wx) What is upslope fog?

A

Moist air forced up a slope and cooled.

87
Q

(wx) What is radiation fog?

A

moist air near the surface is cooled by radiation cooling.

88
Q

(wx) What is advection fog?

A

warm, moist air moving over a cool surface.

89
Q

(wx) What is steam fog?

A

cold air moving over warm water

90
Q

(wx) What is precipitation fog?

A

rain saturate the cool air close to the ground

91
Q

(wx) What is ice fog?

A

Ice floating in the air, happens in very cold areas.

92
Q

(wx) What are three kinds of ice?

A

Rime, clear and mixed.

93
Q

(wx) What is rime ice?

A

Instantaneous freezing of water as it touches the aircraft.

94
Q

(wx) What is clear ice?

A

Formed from large water droplets in cumulus clouds or by freezing rain. Most serious type of icing because of accumulation rate and how hard it is to remove.

95
Q

(wx) What is mixed ice?

A

a combination of rime and clear ice.

96
Q

(wx) What is a cold front?

A

A cold front is the leading edge of a cold air mass. Cold fronts are more dense and lift warmer air aloft, causing the formation of cumulus clouds. Cold fronts bring a change of wind speed and can create a lot of turbulence. Cold fronts can cause rainshowers, thunderstorms, squall lines, and tornadoes. Cold fronts move up to twice as fast as warm fronts. typically good vis after cold front passage.

97
Q

(wx) What is a warm front?

A

Leading edge of a warm mass of air. Causes stratiform clouds. Rain fall as the front approaches. Clearing and warming occur rapidly after frontal passage. Can cause TS if the air mass is unstable.

98
Q

(wx) What is an Occluded front?

A

Formed when a cold front overtakes a warm front.

99
Q

(wx) What is a Stationary front?

A

The boundry between to equal strength air masses.

100
Q

(wx) How do TS form?

A

Warm, moist air is forced upward and cools to the dewpoint causing it to condense into a Cumulus cloud. This is called the cumulous stage. It will continue to grow while it is fed by updrafts. The air will rise until it reaches air that is a similar temperature. Once rising stops happening the TS enters the mature stage. This is where rainfall starts. Updrafts and downdrafts cause cells to form inside the cloud. Dissipating of updrafts mark the dissipating stage of the TS

101
Q

(wx) What are the three stages of a TS?

A

Cumulous, mature, dissipating.

Dispatcher Regulations (3 decks)

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