Disorders of Stomach + Duodenum Flashcards

1
Q

The most common complication of peptic ulcer disease

A
  • Bleeding
  • Perforation
  • Penetration
  • Obstruction
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2
Q

Which ulcers do not require or require endoscopic followup

A
  • Duodenal ulcers DO NOT require endoscopic followup

- Gastric ulcers DO require endoscopic followup

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3
Q

What is H pylori associated with?

A

Associations
• peptic ulcer disease (95% of duodenal ulcers, 75% of gastric ulcers)
• gastric cancer
• B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue (eradication of H pylori results causes regression in 80% of patients)
• atrophic gastritis

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4
Q

How is MALT lymphoma treated?

A

Eradication of h pylori causes regression in 80% of patients

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5
Q

What are the clinical features of gastric vs duodenal ulcers

A

Gastric Ulcers

  • Pain increases shortly after eating = weight loss
  • Less common nocturnal pain

Duodenal Ulcers

  • Pain is relieved with food intake = weight gain
  • Pain increases 2-5 hours after eating
  • Nocturnal pain more common
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6
Q

In term of peptic ulcer perforation, which ulcers are more likely to perforate or bleed?

A
  • Prepyloric gastric ulcers are the most common cause of perforation.
  • POSTERIOR ulcers are more likely to BLEED (think at the back so near the vessels)
  • ANTERIOR ulcers are more likely to PERFORATE
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7
Q

Features of atrophic gastritis

A
  • The two forms of atrophic gastritis are H. pylori-associated and autoimmune.
  • H. pylori-associated atrophic gastritis typically resolves with H. pylori eradication. Autoimmune atrophic
    gastritis, however, has no cure.

Clinical Manifestations
- Pernicious anemia
- Iron deficiency anemia
- Hypergastrinemia, which result from the long-term effects of the associated parietal cell loss and subsequent development
of achlorhydria (stomach does not produce HCL).
- Hypergastrinemia is associated with an increased risk for the development of gastric carcinoid and adenocarcinoma; however, the risk is low enough that no
endoscopic surveillance program is endorsed

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8
Q

NSAID induced peptic ulcer disease

A
  • Selective cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitors preferentially inhibit the COX-2 isoenzyme, which primarily modulates pain and inflammation, and minimally inhibit the COX-1 isoenzyme, which promotes generation of the gastric mucosal protective barrier, decreases gastric acid secretion, and helps to maintain good mucosaI blood flow.
  • The risk of gastroduodenal ulcers and ulcer complications is significantly lower in
    patients taking COX-2 inhibitors compared with nonselective NSAIDs. However, in high-risk individuals, such as those with previous PUD, a COX-2 inhibitor alone is no better than a nonselective NSAID coadministered with a PPI in preventing ulcer
    complications.
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9
Q

NSAIDs

A

Non selective COX-1, Cox2 inhibitors: ibuprofen, diclofenac, indomethacin, naproxen, asprin

Selective COX-2 inhibitor: meloxicam, celecoxib

  • COX1: generation of the gastric mucosal protective barrier, decreases gastric acid secretion, helps to maintain good mucosal blood flow
  • COX2: modulates pain and inflammation
  • COX1 inhibition: inhibition of TXA2 synthesis in platelets –> inhibit platelet aggregation (antithrombotic effect)
  • COX2 inhibition: analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects
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10
Q

What is the diagnostic test for gastroparesis?

A

Diagnostic testing for gastroparesis consists of an initial assessment with upper endoscopy to exclude mechanical obstruction, followed by a gastric emptying study

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11
Q

Treatment for gastroparesis

A
  • Metoclopramide (prokinetic)
    SE: dystonia, parkinsonism type movements, tardive dyskinesia

Others: erythromycin, low dose tricyclic antidepressants

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12
Q

What size polyp would a polypectomy be recommended?

A

> 5mm

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13
Q

Gastric carcinoid tumours

  • Where are they derived from?
  • What are the 3 subtypes
  • What are the clinical features
A
  • Derived from enterochromaffin cells of the gastric mucosa

(1) Type I accounts for 80% and is associated with autoimmune atrophic gastritis and hypergastrinemia.
(2) Type II is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia
type 1 and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.
- Endoscopic polypectomy
is curative for type I and II NETs that are smaller than
1 cm. T
(3) Type III lesions account for 15% of gastric NETs; they
are gastrin independent and have the poorest prognosis.

  • Gastric NETs secrete 5-hydroxytryptophan rather than serotonin; therefore, classic carcinoid syndrome is rare, while wheezing, lacrimation, swelling, flushing, and carcinoid heart and valvular disease may be seen owing to high systemic amine concentrations.
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14
Q

What are the clinical features of carcinoid syndrome
Investigations
Treatment

A

CLINICAL FEATURES

  • Diarrhoea and abdominal cramps
  • Cutaneous flushing
  • Bronchospasm
  • R valvular stenosis
  • Dyspnoea, wheezing
  • Palpitations
  • Weight loss despite normal appetite
  • Valvular heart disease - predominantly affects TRICUSPID valves
  • Above symptoms occur due to release of SEROTONIN
  • Histamine and adrenocorticotrophic can also be synthesised
  • In a patient presenting with secretory diarrhea, episodic flushing, wheezing, and cardiac valvular abnormalities, consider a carcinoid tumor.

INVESTIGATIONS
- Elevated 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) in 24 hour urine collection or in plasma

TREATMENT
Somatostatin Analogues
• Short Acting: Octreotide
• Long Acting: Lanreotide

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15
Q

Features of VIPoma

A
  • Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumour

- Leads to WDHA syndrome - triad of watery diarrhoea, hypokalaemia, achlorhydria (low HCl)

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16
Q

Features of DUMPING SYNDROME

A
  • Caused by the destruction or bypass of the pyloric sphincter where the stomach empties its contents too quickly into the duodenum.
  • Pathophysiology: . Although the precise mechanism of dumping is incompletely understood, the syndrome is frequently attributed to the rapid emptying of hyperosmolar chyme (particularly carbohydrates) into the small bowel. The osmotic gradient is believed to draw fluid into the intestine, and this may release one or more vasoactive hormones, such as serotonin and vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

Clinical Presentation:
- EARLY DUMPING occurs 15-30mins post meal. GIT: abdominal discomfort, nausea, diarrhoea, bloating.
Vasomotor: flushing, palpitations, tachycardia, sweating, hypotension and rarely syncope
Occurs as a result of release of vasoactive hormones like SEROTONIN

  • LATE DUMPING: same symptoms as above but occurs less commonly and symptoms occurs HOURS after eating. This phenomenon is not strictly due to alterations of osmotic gradients across the gastrointestinal (GI) tract but rather is thought to result from HYPOGLYCAEMIA following a postprandial insulin peak

Diagnosis is made clinically, gastric emptying studies/glucose challenge can help support diagnosis - present with gastrointestinal discomfort, including nausea, vomiting, cramps, and diarrhoea, as well as vasomotor symptoms such as diaphoresis, palpitations, and flushing 15 to 30 minutes after a meal.

Tx
Dietary + Lifestyle modification: 
- High in fibre and rich in protein, eaten slowly and chewed well
- Eliminate rapidly absorbable carbs 
- Le down for 30 mins post meals 

Pharm

  • Acarbose: for late dumping
  • Short acting somatostatin analogue eg: octreotide
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17
Q

Complications post-gastrectomy

A
  • cholelithiasis
  • nephrolithiasis (due to increased urine oxalate
    excretion)
  • dumping syndrome.
  • anastomotic stricture.
  • anastomotic ulceration
  • small-bowel obstruction from internal hernias
  • gastrogastric fistula.
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18
Q

Nutritional complications post gastrectomy

A
  • Thiamine (vitamin B1)
  • Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
  • Folate
  • Cobalamin (vitamin B1)
  • Vitamins C, A, D, E, and K
  • Iron; zinc; selenium; magnesium; and
    copper.
  • Acceleration in loss of bone mineral density
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19
Q

Features of zollinger ellison syndrome

A
  • Zollinger–Ellison syndrome (Z-E syndrome) is a disease in which tumors cause the stomach to produce too much acid, resulting in peptic ulcers. Symptoms include abdominal pain and diarrhea.
  • The syndrome is caused by a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumor that secretes a hormone called gastrin. Too much gastrin in the blood (hypergastrinemia) results in the overproduction of gastric acid by parietal cells in the stomach. Gastrinomas most commonly arise in the duodenum, pancreas or stomach.
  • In 75% of cases Zollinger-Ellison syndrome occurs sporadically, while in 25% of cases it occurs as part of an autosomal dominant syndrome called multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1)
  • Fasting gastrin levels > 1000 with low pH is high correlated with diagnosis of ZE
  • If < 1000 and diagnosis is suspected, then SECRETIN STIMULATION TESTING (rise >200 15 mins after dosing is considered positive) or CALCIUM STIMULATION TESTING (where >395 is considered positive)
  • Gastrin receptors bind cholecystokinin
  • Gastrin promotes GASTRIC MUCOSAL GROWTH AND GASTRIC MUCOSAL HYPERTROPHY
  • Gastrin synthesised in G cells (antrum of stomach)
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20
Q

Conditions associated with:
- High acid production
- Poor acid clearance
which can lead to GORD/ulcer

A

High acid production: zollinger ellison syndroe

Poor acid clearance: scleroderma/connective tissue disease, gastroparesis

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21
Q

What are RF for peptic ulcer disease

A

Common RF

  • H pylori
  • NSAIDs, COX2 inhibitors, aspirin

Environmental

  • Smoking
  • Stress

Rare Causes:

  • Chemo
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Gastrinoma (Zollinger Ellison syndrome)

Comorbid Conditions

  • COPD
  • Organ transplantation
  • ESRF, cirrhosis
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22
Q

What is the normal gastric feedback mechanism?

A
  • Acidic pH increase somatostatin secretion from the gastric D Cells
  • Somatostatin exerts a PARACRINE inhibition of gastrin release from G cells and therefore inhibits gastric acid production
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23
Q

H pylori associated ulcer pathophysiology

A
  • Has high UREASE activity, producing AMMONIA to survive the gastric acidic environment
  • Artificially increases gastric pH, leading to DECREASED somatostatin secretion and therefore inhibits the feedback mechanism
  • Thus, acid production is increased
  • Gastric Ulcers: increased acid secretion lead to mucosal inflammation
  • Duodenal Ulcers: highly acidic environment leads to duodenal mucosal metaplasia to gastric mucosal tissue. This increases duodenal susceptibility to H pylori colonisation and subsequent acid related inflammation

Virulence Factors

  • CagA; induces inflammatory response, more virulence
  • VacA: direct toxicity of the mucosa
24
Q

Investigations for H pylori

A
  • Urea breath test
    PPis should be avoided for 7 to 14 days prior to testing, and
    H2 blockers should be avoided for 1 to 2 days prior to testing
  • Urea breath test is based on the ability for H pylori to produce urease, an enzyme that converts urea to carbon dioxide and ammonia.
    Urea that is labelled with C-13/14 isotopes is swallowed by patient and the amount of isotope labelled CO2 that is exhaled by the patient is measured after 20-30 mins.
  • Invasive (endoscopic) tests for H. pylori include the rapid urease test, histology, and culture; all invasive testing modalities identify active infection
25
Q

Treatment for H pylori

A

First Line
- PPI BD + amoxicillin 1g BD + clarithromycin 500mg BD for 7 days
- If allergic to penicillin then PPI + metronidazole + clarithromycin
- In areas of high resistance: Amoxycillin + Metronidazole + PPI
Repeat urea breath test at least 4 weeks post completing treatment and PPI needs to be stopped at least 2 weeks prior to testing.

If fail above eradication therapy
- PPI + amoxicillin + levofloxacin for 10 days OR
- Quadruple therapy:
PPI + bismuth + tetracycline + metronidazole for 7 or 14 days

Quadruple: Rifabutin + doxycycline/tetracycline + PPI + amoxicillin

26
Q

Abx resistance for H pylori in Australia

A
  • Metronidazole: >30%
  • Clarithromycin: >10%
  • Amoxicillin < 10%
27
Q

Mechanism of NSAID-related ulceration

A
  • Inhibition of COX1 and COX2 in the pathway of arachidonic acid conversion to prostaglandin
  • REDUCTION in GASTROPROTECTIVE PROSTAGLANDIN synthesis

Prostaglandin Function

  • Mucosal blood flow
  • Mucin production
  • Bicarbonate production
  • Epithelial proliferation

NSAID Ulceration: Aspirin > Indomethacin > Diclofenac > Ibuprofen

  • COX 2 inhibitors are less ulcer provoking but they are not completely benign
  • Aspirin and (EC aspirin) are as toxic as NSAIDs
28
Q
Which of the following medications is most likely to cause gastric ulceration? 
A. Aspirin 
B. Indomethacin 
C. Meloxicam 
D. Ibuprofen
E. Diclofenac
A

A

29
Q

Management of PUD

A
  1. Eradicate underlying cause
    - triple therapy for h pylori
    - cease NSAIDs where possible
    - If not possible (eg: aspirin + coronary stents), minimise and provide prophylactic protection
  2. Acid Suppression
    - Promotes mucosal healing
    - 8 weeks of BD PPI
  3. Gastric ulcer
    - 8 weeks BD PPI and needs REPEAT GAS to exclude MALIGNANCY
30
Q

How much blood is required to produce malaena

A
  • 150mL of blood required to produce malaena

Red PR bleeding from an upper GI source

  • Need 500-1000ml
  • Generally large volume, high flow bleeding
  • Varices + duodenal ulcers
31
Q

What is the Forrest Classification

A
  • Provides endoscopic appearance and risk of rebleeding
  • High risk ulcers thus require endoscopic therapy

High Risk Stigmata

  • 1a: spurting bleed, approaches 100%
  • 1b: oozing bleed, 50%
  • IIa: non bleeding visibile vessel, 40-50%
  • IIb: Adherent clot, 20-30%

Low Risk Stigmata

  • IIc: flat spot in ulcer crater, 7-10%
  • III: clean base ulcer, 3-5%
32
Q

Coeliac disease pathophysiology

A

Coeliac disease is an immune mediated systemic disorder elicited by gluten in genetically susceptible people (immunological responses to gliadin)

  • CD4 mediated inflammatory response to gluten
  • Main genes involved: HLA-DQ2/8
  • Genetic and environmental factors important in disease development

Gluten found in wheat, barley, rye

  • Immunological: TTG deaminates gliadin to peptides for presentation by APC to CD4 T cells
  • Genetic: peptides interact with APC expression HLADQ2/8
33
Q

Clinical features of coeliac disease

A

Classical presentation in <50% of cases: diarrhoea +/- abdominal pain/discomfort

Can have insidious presentation

  • Iron deficiency anaemia
  • Osteoporosis
  • Infertility + miscarriages

Other

  • Weight loss, constipation
  • Hypocalcaemia, hypoproteinaemia
  • Incidental finding on endoscopy
34
Q

Diagnosis of coeliac disease

A
  1. Small bowel biopsy is essential
    - Repeat Ab levels after 6 months of gluten free diet
    - Repeat small bowel biopsy only if non-responsive to GFD
    - The classic findings on small-bowel histology are INTRAEPITHELIAL LYMPHOCYTOSIS, CRYPT ELONGATION, VILLOUS BLUNTING - normally D2 (duodenum)
  2. Antibody Test
    - Combination of tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTg-IgA) and anti-endomysial Ab has >90% sensitivity
  3. HLA testing
    - Good negative predictive value

NOTE: 5% of coeliac have IgA deficiency

35
Q

Management of coeliac disease

A
  1. Gluten Free Diet
    70% respond clinically within 2 weeks
    Histological recovery can take months/years
    Avoid: wheat (bread, pasta, pastry), barley (beer), rye, oats
  2. Refractory disease - may respond to steroids
  3. Screen for metabolic complications
    - Iron deficiency
    - Folate
    - Osteoporosis
    - Hypocalcaemia
36
Q

Conditions associated with coeliac disease

A
  • Endocrine: Autoimmune thyroiditis, Type 1 diabetes
  • GIT: atrophic gastritis, primary biliary cirrhosis, autoimmune hepatitis
  • Skin: Dermatitis herpetiformis (causes itchy bumps + blisters), alopecia
  • Neuro: ataxia/epilepsy, peripheral neuropathy
  • Cardio: Cardiomyopathy
  • Bone: Osteoporosis
  • Reduced fertility
  • IgA deficiency
  • Down syndrome
  • Turner syndrome
37
Q

Coeliac disease and malignancy

A
  • Increased risk of a number of malignancy

(A) Enteropathy associated lymphoma

  • Usually recurrence of symptoms despite GFD
  • Peak incidence in 6th decade of life
  • Often associated with refractory coeliac disease

(B) Small bowel adenocarcinoma

38
Q

IgG4 Disease

A
  • A systemic, fibroinflammatory condition
  • Can affect almost all organ systems - most common are PANCREAS, LIVER, BILE DUCTS

Diagnosis:

  • Tumefactive lesions
  • Histology: dense lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate, fibrosis
  • IgG4 positive staining on immunohistochemistry
  • Serum IgG4 elevated in ~70% of patients

Associated Conditions

  • Riedel thyroiditis (thyroid)
  • Autoimmune pancreatitis (pancreas)
  • Tubulointerstitial nephropathy (kidney)
  • Sclerosing cholangitis (biliary tract)

Treatment
- Not all patients require treatment - asymptomatic, non significant disease (eg: lymphadenopathy) may not require immediate therapy
- Immunosuppression
1st Line: pred then wean
Recurrence: Azathioprine, mycophenolate and methotrexate
- Ongoing recurrence/refractory: rituximab

39
Q

What are indications of ERCP

A
  • Obstructed bile ducts as confirmed on US CT scan, CT cholangiogram, MRCP
  • Gallstone pancreatitis + cholangitis
  • Primary sclerosing cholangitis if inadequate imaging (MRCP or CT cholangiography) or evidence of biliary obstruction
  • Sphincter of oddi dysfunction
40
Q

What are the complications of ERCP

A
  • 5% Pancreatitis (reduced by indomethacin)
  • 1% bleeding
  • 1% perforation
  • 1/1000 mortality
41
Q

Obscure GI bleeeding with normal gastroscopy + colonoscopy

A
  • Patients with either overt GI blood loss or IDA of unknown cause where no lesion identified after gas/colon, CT scans or red cell scans

Proceed to pill cam
Double bubble enteroscopy either anterograde or retrograde to examine small bowel after pill cam

42
Q

What is whipple disease

A
  • An infectious disease caused by Tropheryma whipplei, an intracellular gram-positive bacteria

Clinical Features

  • Intestinal: abdominal pain, malabsorption (diarrhoea, steatorrhea)
  • Extraintestinal: enteropathic arthritis, arthralgia, cardiac symptoms (valve insufficiencies), neurological symptoms (myoclonus, ataxia, impairment of oculomotor function)

Diagnosis:
Small intestine biopsy: detection of PAS-positive foamy macrophages in the lamina propria

Tx:
IV ceftriaxone for 2 weeks
Maintenance treatment with oral bactrim for 1 year

43
Q

What is the hydrogen breath test used for?

A

To assess for bacterial overgrowth

44
Q

Causes of vitamin B 12 deficiency

A

Dietary: vegans

Gastric

  • Pernicious anaemia
  • Atrophic gastritis secondary to H pylori
  • Gastrectomy
Small Bowel
- Bacterial overgrowth
- Pancreatic insufficiency
- Crohns
Blocking agents, eg: neomycin
45
Q

Coeliac disease is a T-cell mediated disease caused by gluten affecting up to 2% of the population. Which ONE of the following
answers is false?
A. Genes outside the MHC region confer more than half the genetic risk for coeliac disease.
B. Coeliac disease can be excluded with 99% confidence in the absence of genes encoding HLA DQB102 (HLA DQ2) and HLA DQB10302 (HLA DQ8)
C. Four peptides with a deamidated 9-amino acid sequence derived from prolamins of wheat, barley and rye are preferentially recognized by pathogenic T cells in HLA DQ2-
associated coeliac disease
D. Patients with coeliac disease typically possess IgA specific for transglutaminase-2 that is present from the time they first consume gluten.

A

A. Genes outside the MHC region confer more than half the genetic risk for coeliac disease. (True)

B. Coeliac disease can be excluded with 99% confidence in the absence of genes encoding HLA DQB102 (HLA DQ2) and HLA DQB10302 (HLA DQ8) (True)

C. Four peptides with a deamidated 9-amino acid sequence derived from prolamins of wheat, barley and rye are preferentially recognized by pathogenic T cells in HLA DQ2- associated coeliac disease

D. Patients with coeliac disease typically possess IgA specific for transglutaminase-2 that is present from the time they first
consume gluten. (False)

46
Q

Management of bleeding duodenal ulcer

A
  • Injection with adrenaline
  • Endoscopic clipping
  • Heater probe coagulation
47
Q

55yo women with 40 year hx of coeliac disease compliant to GFD presents with weight loss and diarrhoea. Best next step is:
A. Coeliac abx
B. Endoscopy, colonoscopy, small bowel biopsy
C. Steroids + azathioprine
D. Abdo/Pelvis CT
E. Pill cam

A

D - Abdo/Pelvis CT

  • Concern is that the patient has small bowel lymphoma - 100x risk
  • Normally occurs years later
  • Not endoscopy/colonoscopy as normally affects small bowel
    Other scans would be CT/MRI enterography
48
Q

Refractory coeliac disease

A
  • Persistent symptoms and villous atrophy despite strct adherence to GFD for 6-12 months
  • Normally have normal coeliac antibodies
  • Peak incidence in 6th decade of life

Type 1:

  • normal intraepithelial lymphocyte phenotype
  • Good prognosis
  • Responds to treatment (budesonide, pred, axathioprine)

Type 2:

  • Abnormal intraepithelial lymphocyte phenotype
  • Poor prognosis
  • Associated with total villous atrophy + ulcerative jejunitis
  • Associated with enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma
49
Q
56yo male with recurrent IDA on warfarin for AVR has several normal gas and colons. What is the next best investigation?
A. Abdominal CT scan 
B. Bone marrow biopsy
C. Red cell scan 
D. Pill cam
E. Double balloon enteroscopy
A

D. Pill cam

Pill cam - want to look at the small bowel
Abdominal CT scan - indicates malignancy, normally think if older patient
Double balloon enteroscopy after pill cam positive
Pill cam diagnosis, DBE intervention

50
Q

Gastric cancer subtypes and risk factors

A

M:F = 2:1
95% adenocarcinomas

2 main subtypes

  1. Diffuse: undifferentiated (30% of cases)
    - More commonly located in proximal stomach
    - Associated with linitis plastica and carries an inferior prognosis
  2. Intestinal: well differentiated (more common)
    - Multistep inflammatory process from chronic gastritis - malignant tissue
    - More commonly seen in elderly male with more favourable prognosis
RF 
Environmental 
- H pylori infection 
- Smoking 
- High salt intake 
- Obesity
- GORD
- EBV

Host Factors

  • Barretts
  • CDH1 mutation in hereditary diffuse gastric cancer
  • Lynch syndrome
  • Poylposis syndromes - FAP, Petuz Jeugers
51
Q

Hereditary diffuse gastric cancer
Gene associated
Inheritance pattern
Screening

A

Gene: CDH1
Autosomal dominant
- Prophylactic total gastrectomy for patients between 18-40 for CDH1 mutation carriers
- Increased risk of breast cancer

52
Q

Treatment for localised oesphageal/gastric cancer

A

Resectable

  • Oesohagial/GEJ: neoadjuvant carboplatin/paclitaxel followed by surgery
  • GEJ/gastric: perioperative chemotherapy
  • Gastric: adjuvant CAPOX chemo

Unresectable/Inoperable
- Oesophageal: definitive chemoradiotherapy (platinum + fluorouracil)

53
Q

Treatment of advanced/metastatic disease for oesophageal/gastric cancer

A

Her2 negative
- 1st line: platinum + fluropyrimidine

Her 2 postive
- Platinum + fluropyrimidine + trastuzumab

54
Q

Small intestine bacterial overgrowth treatment

A

Tx with abx: rifaximin

Diet high in protein and low in carbs

55
Q

Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumour (GIST)

  • Features
  • Adverse prognostic factors
  • Treatment
A
  • Mesenchymal tumour related to connective tissues/smooth muscles
  • Most common SARCOMA of the GI tract
    50-60% stomach, 30-40% small intestine but can arise from anywhere
  • Characterised by SPINDLE SHAPED CELLS
    -95% expresses KIT (CD117/c-kit)
    Activating mutations in KIT (exon 9/11) or PDGFRA (exon 18)

Adverse Prognostic Factors

  • Size > 5cm
  • Mitotic count >5 per 50 high powered fields
  • Non gastric locations

Tx
- TKI: Imatinib –> Sunitinib –> Regorafenib

56
Q
55yo woman presents with vague abdo pain. CT shown here. Biopsy shows spindle shaped cells, c kit mutant. Most likely diagnosis. 
A. Oesophageal adenocarcinoma 
B. Gastric adenocarcinoma
C. Gastrointestinal stromal tumour 
D. Hepatocellular cancer
E. Renal cell cancer
A

C. Gastrointestinal stromal tumour