Disorders of Hemostasis Flashcards

1
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

Hemostasis is a dynamic process that is geared to preventing blood from escaping the boundaries of the vessel.

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2
Q

What are the phases of hemostasis?

A

The phases of hemostasis are:
* Maintenance of vessel integrity
* Formation of a platelet plug
* Propagation of the coagulation cascade
* Clot development
* Fibrinolysis and clot disintegration

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3
Q

What are the two types of hemostasis?

A

The two types of hemostasis are:
* Primary hemostasis (platelet plug formation)
* Secondary hemostasis (coagulation process)

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4
Q

What maintains vascular integrity?

A

Vascular integrity is maintained by a lining of overlapping endothelial cells supported by a basement membrane, connective tissue, and smooth muscle.

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5
Q

What substances do endothelial cells secrete to regulate clot formation?

A

Endothelial cells secrete:
* Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
* Heparin sulfate
* Prostacyclin
* Nitric oxide

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6
Q

What role does CD39 play in hemostasis?

A

CD39 degrades ATP and ADP to AMP and adenosine, which are potent antiplatelet and antithrombotic agents.

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7
Q

How does von Willebrand factor (vWF) contribute to hemostasis?

A

vWF links to platelet glycoprotein Ib (gpIb) receptors allowing platelet adhesion to the intravascular surface.

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8
Q

What are platelets and their role in hemostasis?

A

Platelets are complex cytoplasmic fragments released from bone marrow megakaryocytes, playing roles in adhesion and aggregation.

Largely regulated by Thrombopoeitin

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9
Q

What is the coagulation cascade?

A

The coagulation cascade is a complex system that results in controlled formation of a fibrin clot.

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10
Q

What are the two traditional pathways of the coagulation cascade?

A

The two traditional pathways are:
* Intrinsic pathway
* Extrinsic pathway

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11
Q

What initiates the clot process in the coagulation pathway?

A

The extrinsic pathway initiates the clot process through exposed tissue factor at the site of vessel injury.

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12
Q

What is the role of tissue factor in hemostasis?

A

Tissue factor is a critical cofactor required for activation of factor VII.

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13
Q

What is the most commonly encountered disorder of hemostasis?

A

The most commonly encountered disorder of hemostasis is antithrombotic drug administration.

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: Hemostasis is dependent on normal functioning and integration of the ______, platelets, and coagulation pathway.

A

[vasculature]

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15
Q

Endothelium

A
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16
Q

Role of Platelets in Hemostasis

A
  1. Adhesion to subendothelial connective tissue: Collagen, basement membrane, and noncollagenous microfibrils; serum factor VIII and von Willebrand factor (vWF) permit this function; adhesion creates the initial bleeding arrest plug
  2. Release of adenosine diphosphate, the primary mediator and amplifier of
    aggregation; release of thromboxane A, another aggregator and potent
    vasoconstrictor; release of calcium, serotonin, epinephrine, and trace thrombin
  3. Platelet aggregation over the area of endothelial injury
  4. Stabilization of the hemostatic plug by interaction with the coagulation system:
    * Platelet factor 3, a phospholipid that helps accelerate certain steps in the coagulation system
    * Platelet factor 4, a protein that neutralizes heparin
    * Pathway initiation and acceleration by thrombin production
    * Secretion of active forms of coagulation proteins
  5. Stimulation of limiting reactions of platelet activity
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17
Q

Coagulation Factors

A

Factor I. Fibrinogen
Factor II. Prothrombin
Factor III. Tissue thromboplastin
Factor IV. Calcium
Factor V. Labile factor (proaccelerin)
Factor VI. Not assigned
Factor VII. Proconvertin
Factor VIII. Antihemophilic A factor
Factor IX. Antihemophilic B factor (plasma thromboplastin component, Christmas factor)
Factor X. Stuart-Prower factor
Factor XI. Plasma thromboplastin antecedent
Factor XII. Hageman factor (contact factor)
Factor XIII. Fibrin-stabilizing factor

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18
Q

Normal Controls of Coagulation

A
  • Removal and dilution of activated clotting factors through blood flow, which also mechanically opposes growth of the hemostatic plug
  • Alteration of platelet activity by endothelium-generated nitric oxide and prostacyclin
  • Removal of activated coagulation components by the reticuloendothelial system
  • Regulation of the clotting cascade by antithrombin III, protein C, protein S, and tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
  • Activation of the fibrinolytic system
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19
Q

Coagulation Cascade

A
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20
Q

Clinical evaluation of bleeding patient

A
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21
Q

Features of Coagulation disorders that differentiate from platelet disorders

A
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22
Q

DDx of Platelet Disorders

A
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23
Q

DDx of Vascular disorders

A
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24
Q

DDx of Coagulation Disorders

A
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25
Q

Diagnostic Hemostasis tests

A
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26
Q

What initial assessment is required when a bleeding disorder is diagnosed?

A

Stabilization, which may include intravenous fluids, RBC transfusion, or factor replacement

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27
Q

What are common initial symptoms of platelet disorders?

A

Epistaxis, menorrhagia, gastrointestinal bleeding

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28
Q

How are platelet disorders typically manifested?

A

Acquired petechiae, purpura, or mucosal bleeding

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29
Q

What distinguishes purpura associated with platelet disorders from that associated with vasculitis?

A

Purpura in platelet disorders is usually asymptomatic and not palpable; vasculitis purpura can burn or itch and is palpable.

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30
Q

What types of bleeding are characteristic of coagulation disorders?

A

Delayed deep muscle or joint bleeding

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31
Q

What are the key laboratory tests for diagnosing hemostatic disorders?

A

Complete Blood Count, Blood Smear, Platelet Count, Bleeding Time, Prothrombin Time, Partial Thromboplastin Time, Anti-Xa Assay, Fibrinogen, Thrombin Time, Clot Solubility, Factor Level Assays

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32
Q

What does a complete blood count assess in the context of bleeding episodes?

A

Degree of anemia

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33
Q

What is defined as thrombocytopenia?

A

Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3

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34
Q

What is the normal bleeding time range?

A

8 minutes

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35
Q

What does the Prothrombin Time (PT) test?

A

Factors of the extrinsic and common coagulation pathways

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36
Q

What can cause a prolonged Prothrombin Time?

A

Vitamin K deficiency, warfarin use, liver disease

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37
Q

What factors does the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) test exclude?

A

Factor VII and factor XIII

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38
Q

What are the two groups of inherited disorders that manifest as isolated elevation in PTT?

A
  • Deficiencies of contact factors (e.g., factor XII)
  • Deficiencies of intrinsic coagulation factors (e.g., factors VIII, IX, XI)
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39
Q

What is the role of the anti-Xa assay?

A

Monitoring unfractionated and low-molecular-weight heparin levels, quantifying direct factor Xa inhibitors

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40
Q

What does fibrinogen reflect in the coagulation process?

A

Balance between production and consumption

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41
Q

What does the thrombin time measure?

A

Conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin

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42
Q

What is a key feature of disorders involving factor XIII deficiency?

A

Clot solubility testing may show abnormal results

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43
Q

How are factor levels determined in laboratory tests?

A
  • Bioassay
  • Immunologic assay
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44
Q

What do inhibitor screening tests reveal?

A

Antibodies in plasma that prolong the normal plasma clotting time

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45
Q

What is thrombocytopenia defined as?

A

A platelet count of less than 100,000 micro/mm3

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46
Q

What are the two main causes of thrombocytopenia?

A
  • Decreased production
  • Increased destruction
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47
Q

What conditions can lead to decreased bone marrow production causing thrombocytopenia?

A
  • Chemotherapeutic drugs
  • Myelophthisic disease
  • Alcohol
  • Thiazides
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48
Q

What is splenic sequestration in relation to thrombocytopenia?

A

A rare cause seen primarily with hypersplenism due to malignant hematologic disease, portal hypertension, or increased splenic RBC destruction

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49
Q

In what scenarios are platelet transfusions commonly indicated?

A
  • Primary bone marrow disorders (e.g., aplastic anemia, acute leukemia)
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50
Q

At what platelet count is spontaneous bleeding more likely to occur?

A

Below 10,000/mm3

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51
Q

What is the risk of hemorrhage attributed to platelet deficiency at counts higher than 50,000 mm3?

A

Unlikely

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52
Q

What is immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)?

A

An acquired condition resulting from autoantibodies against platelet antigens

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53
Q

What are the categories of immune thrombocytopenia?

A
  • Primary ITP
  • Secondary ITP
  • Drug-induced thrombocytopenia (DITP)
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54
Q

What characterizes severe ITP?

A

A platelet count of less than 20,000 micro/mm3

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55
Q

What age group is most commonly affected by acute ITP?

A

Children aged 2 to 6 years old

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56
Q

What is the typical outcome for acute ITP in children?

A

Greater than 90% rate of spontaneous remission

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57
Q

What are common manifestations of chronic ITP in adults?

A
  • Easy bruising
  • Prolonged menses
  • Mucosal bleeding
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58
Q

What is secondary ITP associated with?

A
  • Autoimmune diseases
  • Infectious diseases
  • Malignancies
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59
Q

Which drug is an important cause of drug-induced thrombocytopenia in hospitalized patients?

A

Heparin

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60
Q

What is the recommended treatment for newly diagnosed adult patients with ITP and platelet counts less than 30,000/mm3?

A

Corticosteroids

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61
Q

What is the preferred glucocorticoid for ITP treatment?

A

Dexamethasone, 40 mg PO or IV daily for 4 days

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62
Q

What treatment should be considered for patients with platelet counts less than 10,000/mm3 or significant bleeding?

A

IVIG in addition to corticosteroids

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63
Q

What is a thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TPO-RA) used for?

A

Life threatening bleeding in inadequate response to corticosteroids, IVIG, and platelet transfusion

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64
Q

What are the common drugs associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Quinine​

Phenytoin / carbamazepine / VPA​

Heparin​

ASA​

Digoxin​

Sulfa / vanco

QPHADS

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65
Q

What is the mechanism by which quinine and quinidine cause thrombocytopenia?

A

Through an ‘innocent bystander’ mechanism

The platelet is coated with a drug-antibody complex, complement is
fixed, and intravascular platelet lysis occurs.

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66
Q

What characterizes heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

A

An immune-mediated process associated with unfractionated heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin.
Heparin is thought to pair with platelet factor 4 (PF4), a procoagulant substance found in platelet granules.
This paired complex results in rapid generation of antibodies, which coat platelets resulting in thrombocytopenia

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67
Q

What is the 4Ts Score used for?

A

Differentiating patients with HIT from those with alternative causes of thrombocytopenia

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68
Q

What should be done if HIT is clinically suspected?

A

Immediate cessation of heparin

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69
Q

What is the most widely utilized anticoagulant for the treatment of HIT?

A

Argatroban

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70
Q

What is the initial dose of argatroban for patients with normal hepatic function?

A

2 mcg/kg/min IV

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71
Q

What are alternative treatments for HIT aside from argatroban?

A
  • Bivalirudin
  • Danaparoid
  • Fondaparinux
  • Direct oral anticoagulants (DOAC)
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72
Q

What is the risk of HIT related to?

A
  • Drug and dosage factors
  • Duration of exposure(risk greatest after 5 days of Rx)
  • Heparin type(UFH higher risk than LMWH)
  • Patient gender(Females twice at risk)
  • Surgical and Trauma patients

Can occcur a median of 14 days to upto 40 days post initiation of heparin

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73
Q

True or False: HIT can occur in the absence of exposure to heparin.

A

True

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74
Q

Immune Thrombocytopenia Chronicity

A
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75
Q

Describe 4Ts scoring system

A
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76
Q

4Ts Point Risk Stratification

A
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77
Q

What is HITT

A

Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia with Thrombosis develops in 33% to 50% of patients with HIT.

The antibodies crated in HIT also activate platelets, creating hypercoagulable state.

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78
Q

What is post-transfusion purpura (PTP)?

A

A rare disorder causing a precipitous fall in platelets approximately one week following transfusion.

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79
Q

What antigen is frequently linked to post-transfusion purpura?

A

Human platelet antigen 1 (HPA1).

When an HPA1 antigen–negative patient receives a platelet transfusion, the platelets with attached HPA1
antibodies provoke an anamnestic response, though the actual mechanism of platelet destruction is uncertain. Patients are usually middle aged women with a history of prior pregnancy, during which they may have been previously sensitized to the HPA1 antigen.

80
Q

What is the typical platelet count in patients with post-transfusion purpura?

A

Often falls below 10,000/mm3.

81
Q

What is the first-line treatment for severe thrombocytopenia in post-transfusion purpura?

A

High-dose IVIG, 1g/kg IV.

Glucocorticoids may be given with IVIG. Plasma exchange therapy is no longer
considered a preferred therapy

82
Q

True or False: Platelet transfusion is generally recommended for post-transfusion purpura.

A

False.

Transfused platelets are often rapidly destroyed, thus platelet transfusion is generally not recommended
except in the setting of severe thrombocytopenia and life-threatening bleeding, preferably with HPA1-negative blood products

83
Q

What are thrombotic microangiopathies (TMA) characterized by?

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA) and thrombocytopenia.

84
Q

What are the most common primary TMA disorders?

A
  • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)-most common
  • Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome(HUS)
85
Q

What causes TTP?

A

Autoantibodies to ADAMTS13, an endothelial protein.

86
Q

What are the classic symptoms of TTP?

A

F ever​

A nemia​

T hrombocytopenia​

R enal failure (more kids, HUS)​

N eurologic (more adults, TTP)

Petechiae and purpura 50% but overt bleeding rare

87
Q

What is the standard treatment for TTP?

A

90% mortality if not treated​

** Plasma exchange**( Standard)
Glucocorticoids- Prednisone 1 mg/kg PO daily
Rituximab- consider if refratory to standard Rx
Caplacizumab- 11 mg IV followed by 11 mg sc x 10 days
Eculizumab (HUS)

	   Avoid platelets if no life-threatening bleeding ​
                                                      (may increase microthrombi)

Plasma contains ADAMTS13
Avoid platelets if no life-threatening bleeding (may increase microthrombi)

88
Q

What is dilutional thrombocytopenia?

A

A complication of massive transfusion, exchange transfusion, or fluid resuscitation.

Current guidelines for 1 :1 : 1 ratio of fresh frozen plasma (FFP), platelets, and RBCs may assist
in alleviating dilutional thrombocytopenia in the setting of massive transfusion.

89
Q

What is the significance of hereditary thrombocytopenia?

A

As many as 1 in 7 patients initially diagnosed with ITP may have a hereditary thrombocytopenic syndrome.

90
Q

What is Bernard-Soulier Syndrome (BSS)?

A

A defect in the platelet gpIb complex affecting platelet adhesion to vWF.

91
Q

What is Glanzmann thrombasthenia (GT)?

A

An autosomal-recessive disorder due to a defect in the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex.

92
Q

What are secretory defects in thrombocytopathy?

A

Defective platelet granule formation or secretory machinery.

93
Q

What medication blocks thromboxane A2 formation?

94
Q

What is thrombocytosis?

A

Defined as a platelet count of greater than 600,000/mm3.

95
Q

What are common causes of secondary thrombocytosis?

A
  • Infection
  • Iron deficiency.
96
Q

What is primary thrombocytosis associated with?

A
  • Polycythemia vera
  • Myelofibrosis
  • Chronic myelogenous leukemia.
97
Q

What is the recommended evaluation for primary thrombocytosis?

A

A thorough hematologic evaluation.

98
Q

Describe Plasmic Score?

99
Q

What are six potential treatments for ITP?

A
  1. Corticosteroids : (can be PO or IV, often high dose and pulse requiring admission)
  2. Immunosuppression: IVIG, rituximab
  3. RhoGAM/WinRho (must be Rh+ to work; spleen has less ability to destroy platelets covered in RhIG)
  4. Thrombopoeitin receptor agonist (TPO-RA – romiplastim, eltrombopag)
  5. Emergency splenectomy
  6. Platelet transfusion for life-threatening bleeding, target >50

Pediatric: Mild bleeding typically no medication, even with platelets <20
Consult for workup (rule out sepsis/HUS-TTP, malignancy ie leukemia)

100
Q

When should thrombocytopenia be treated in the ED?

A
  • 100 : SAH/ICH, neurosurgery
  • 50 : LP, Active bleeding (GIB, intraabdominal) , ITP with life-threatening bleeding
  • 30 : Paracentesis
  • 20 : Large laceration, central line

“A platelet count of >10 usually provides adequate hemostasis…”

101
Q

List 5 adverse effects of platelet transfusion

102
Q

What causes Hemophilia A?

A

A deficiency of factor VIII.

Hemophilia A is primarily sex-linked recessive as it is carried on the X chromosome.

103
Q

What is the prevalence of Hemophilia A in males?

A

Approximately 17 cases per 100,000 males.

This translates to around 1,125,000 affected individuals worldwide.

104
Q

How many people in the United States have Hemophilia A?

A

Approximately 13,500 people.

X linked recessive, only males will have clinical disease

105
Q

How is the severity of Hemophilia A categorized?

A

By factor VIII activity level:
* Severe: less than 1%
* Moderate: 1% to 5%
* Mild: 5% to 40%.

106
Q

What percentage of Hemophilia A cases are considered severe?

A

Approximately 42%.

107
Q

What is the risk associated with severe Hemophilia A patients?

A

Increased risk to develop alloantibodies, termed inhibitors, that may inactivate factor VIII.

108
Q

What is the primary source of factor VIII for replacement therapy?

A

Recombinant DNA technology.

109
Q

What is Emicizumab?

A

A recombinant immunoglobulin that substitutes for part of the function of activated factor VIII.

110
Q

How does Emicizumab function?

A

By bridging activated factor IX and factor X to restore the function of missing activated factor VIII.

111
Q

What is the typical concentration of factor VIII in plasma?

A

Circulates in low concentrations bound to vWF.

112
Q

What are common sites of bleeding in Hemophilia A?

A

Deep muscles, joints, urinary tract, and intracranial sites.

113
Q

What are major causes of morbidity in Hemophilia A?

A

Recurrent hemarthrosis and progressive joint destruction.

114
Q

What is the probability of intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) in male patients with Hemophilia A?

A

1 in 50,000 to 1 in 140,000 male patients.

115
Q

What is the mortality rate from ICH in hemophiliacs?

A

Around 20%.

116
Q

What type of bleeding is rare in Hemophilia A?

A

Mucosal bleeding such as epistaxis, oral bleeding, or menorrhagia unless associated with comorbid conditions.

117
Q

What is a common initiator of bleeding in Hemophilia A?

118
Q

What is involved in the comprehensive management of Hemophilia A?

A

A team effort including physicians, specialized nursing, physical therapy, social work, patients, and caregivers.

119
Q

What should emergency clinicians have rapid access to for managing Hemophilia A?

A

Information such as primary care physician, hematologist, diagnosis, factor VIII activity level, blood type, and inhibitor status.

120
Q

What is the typical factor VIII activity goal for minor bleeding?

A

40% to 50%.

121
Q

What is the typical factor VIII activity goal for serious or life-threatening bleeding?

A

80% to 100%.

122
Q

How much does 1 U/kg of factor VIII increase the circulating factor VIII level?

123
Q

What should be done if there is no response to factor VIII administration?

A

Raise suspicion for the presence of inhibitors.

124
Q

What is the safest immediate action in emergency care for patients with inhibitors?

A

Administer recombinant factor VIIa at a dose of 90 mcg/kg IV.

125
Q

What is Desmopressin used for in Hemophilia A?

A

For patients with documented mild hemophilia A without inhibitors who are experiencing non-life-threatening bleeding.

126
Q

What effect does Desmopressin have on factor VIII levels?

A

Raises factor VIII by three to six times baseline levels.

127
Q

Indications for Factor Replacement in Hemophilia

128
Q

Recommended Factor VIII Therapy and Dosing for Complications Associated
With Hemophilia

129
Q

What is Hemophilia B?

A

A deficiency of factor IX activity.

130
Q

How does the incidence of Hemophilia B compare to Hemophilia A?

A

Its incidence is only a fifth that of hemophilia A.

131
Q

What type of protein is factor IX?

A

A vitamin K–dependent glycoprotein.

132
Q

How is a deficiency of factor IX diagnosed?

A

By a factor IX assay after a normal factor VIII assay.

133
Q

What treatment strategies for hemophilia A generally apply to hemophilia B?

A

Clinical presentations and treatment strategies.

134
Q

What is the replacement factor therapy for hemophilia B?

A

Use of a recombinant factor IX preparation.

135
Q

When is plasma-derived concentrate used in hemophilia B?

A

In an emergency situation when recombinant factor IX is unavailable.

136
Q

Is fresh frozen plasma recommended for hemophilia B treatment?

A

No, it is not routinely recommended.

137
Q

What is the maintenance factor dosing schedule for factor IX?

A

Every 24 hours.

138
Q

What is the appropriate dose of factor IX for severe bleeding?

A

100 to 140 units/kg IV.

139
Q

What should be administered for hemophilia B with inhibitors?

A

Recombinant factor VIIa at a dose of 90 mcg/kg IV.

140
Q

What is von Willebrand disease?
What is the role of vWF?

A

**The most common hereditary bleeding disorder,caused by quantitative and qualitative deficits in vWF, with an estimated prevalence of 1%.
VWF does two things:​

Role: Bridges platelets to damaged vascular endothelium;Brings factor VIII to the site of injury to generate fibrin

Inheritance pattern for main variants is autosomal dominant

141
Q

What is the typical factor VIII activity level in von Willebrand disease?

A

In the 6% to 50% range.

142
Q

What is the preferred treatment for mild to moderately severe von Willebrand disease?

A

Desmopressin, 0.3 mcg/kg IV.

143
Q

What is the replacement therapy for severe von Willebrand disease?

A

Factor VIII in the form of lyophilized concentrate at a dose of 50 IU/kg.

144
Q

What can cause an altered level or abnormal function of fibrinogen?

A

Deficiencies in the coagulation pathway.

145
Q

What are the inherited forms of coagulation disorders associated with?

A

Rare deficiencies in components of the common pathway (factors II, V, and X).

146
Q

What common causes are associated with acquired forms of coagulation disorders?

A

Vitamin K deficiency, hepatic insufficiency, or massive transfusion of stored blood.

147
Q

Clinical Features of VWF

A

More common: GIB, mennorhagia, PPH, epistaxis
Less common: Joint and muscle bruising (unlike Heme A/B)

148
Q

Types of von Willebrand disease?

A

MANY polymorphisms, but 3 main types ​

Type 1 – reduced amount - mostly asymptomatic, 75% of cases, autosomal dominant​

Type 2 – functional issues (platelet or factor VIII)​

Type 3 – rare – total deficiency, lifethreatening bleeding early in life, autosomal recessive ​

Acquired:​

Malignancies (MGUS, myeloma, NHL, leukemia, Wilms tumor)​

Lupus​

High states of vascular flow: VSD, CHD with high flow, LVAD/ECMO​

Hypothyroidism​

Drugs: valproate, ciprofloxacin

149
Q

von Willebrand Disease Management

A
  • Desmopressin 0.3mcg/kg IV/intranasal/SC for mild to moderate disease (Induces synthesis and release of VWF from platelets/endothelial cells)
  • TXA
  • FFP or cyro may be used ​
  • Replace with VWF/factor VIII product 50 U/kg. ​
  • Recombinant VWF exists which requires giving factor VIII as well. ​
  • Giving plasma would not require factor VIII ​
  • Factor VIII actually accumulates and can cause thrombosis​
  • Can get inhibitors as well, similar treatment to heme A/B give factor VIIa
150
Q

Review lab and coagulopathy diagnosis

151
Q

What are the two main types of oral anticoagulants?

A

Vitamin K antagonists (e.g., warfarin) and direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs)

DOACs include dabigatran, rivaroxaban, and apixaban.

152
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dabigatran?

A

Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor

It was the first DOAC to gain FDA approval.

153
Q

Name two common DOACs and their specific targets.

A
  • Rivaroxaban: selective factor Xa inhibitor
  • Apixaban: selective factor Xa inhibitor
154
Q

What complications may arise from the use of DOACs in patients with impaired renal or liver function?

A

Excessive anticoagulation

155
Q

What is the primary concern that brings patients to the ED regarding anticoagulants?

A

Supratherapeutic dosing or hemorrhage

156
Q

How can the effects of heparin be urgently reversed?

A

With protamine sulfate

1 mg of protamine for every 100 units of heparin.

157
Q

What is the off-label use of protamine in relation to LMWH?

A

To reverse effects of LMWH in life-threatening bleeding

158
Q

What is the recommended dose of protamine for LMWH reversal depending on timing?

A
  • 1 mg for ≤8 hours since last administration
  • 0.5 mg for >8 hours since last administration
159
Q

What should not exceed 50 mg over 10 minutes when administering protamine?

A

Administration of protamine

160
Q

What is the FDA-approved reversal agent for dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab, 5 g IV

161
Q

What is the alternative to idarucizumab for dabigatran-associated bleeding?

A

Activated prothrombin complex concentrate (aPCC) at 50 units/kg IV

162
Q

What factors are included in 4F-PCC?

A
  • Factors II
  • VII
  • IX
  • X
  • Protein C
  • Protein S
163
Q

How much of dabigatran is removed with 4 hours of dialysis?

A

Approximately 57%

164
Q

What is the FDA-approved reversal agent for apixaban or rivaroxaban in life-threatening bleeds?

A

Andexanet alfa

165
Q

What is an alternative to andexanet alfa for apixaban or rivaroxaban?

A

4F-PCC at 25 to 50 units/kg IV or a fixed dose of 2000 units IV

166
Q

What is the management approach for excessive anticoagulation from warfarin with INR below 4.5?

A

Withhold additional warfarin

167
Q

What is the recommendation for INR levels between 4.5 and 10 without bleeding?

A

Hold additional warfarin doses for 1 to 2 doses and consider vitamin K

168
Q

What treatment is recommended for INR levels above 10 but not bleeding?

A

Hold warfarin and treat with 5 mg of oral vitamin K

169
Q

What is the treatment for patients with elevated INR and active bleeding?

A

Cessation of warfarin, 10 mg of vitamin K IV, plus 4F-PCC or fresh frozen plasma

170
Q

What is the most effective route for administering vitamin K?

171
Q

How should intravenous vitamin K be administered?

A

As a slow infusion over 20 to 30 minutes

172
Q

True or False: Subcutaneous dosing of vitamin K is the preferred method of administration.

173
Q

Review labs and anticoagulation

174
Q

Adjuncts and reversal agents

175
Q

Critical Sites for Hemorrhage
in Anticoagulated Patients

176
Q

Treatment for
Supratherapeutic INR

177
Q

4F-PCC dosage for Warfarin reversal in major bleeding

178
Q

DIC Abnormal Clotting Sequence

179
Q

What does DIC stand for?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

DIC is an acquired coagulopathy reflecting dysregulated coagulation and fibrinolytic pathways.

180
Q

What is the primary cause of DIC?

A

DIC is caused by multiple pathologic processes that disturb the balance between procoagulants and inhibitors.

181
Q

What are the clinical consequences of DIC?

A
  • Life-threatening bleeding from loss of platelets and clotting factors
  • Fibrinolysis and fibrin degradation product interference
  • Small-vessel obstruction and tissue ischemia from fibrin deposition
  • RBC injury and anemia from microvascular hemolysis
182
Q

Which patients should be considered for DIC diagnosis?

A

Any patient with purpura, a bleeding tendency, and signs of organ injury, especially in the central nervous system or kidney.

183
Q

How is the clinical diagnosis of DIC confirmed?

A

By laboratory testing.

184
Q

What conditions may be confused with DIC?

A
  • Severe liver disease
  • Primary fibrinolysis
185
Q

What are the manifestations of severe liver disease?

A

Clinical jaundice and splenomegaly.

186
Q

What is primary fibrinolysis?

A

A rare disorder affecting fibrinogen and fibrin while preserving other coagulation components.

187
Q

What is the initial treatment focus for DIC?

A

Reversal of the triggering mechanism.

188
Q

When is specific management of DIC warranted?

A

In cases of active bleeding, significant risk of bleeding, invasive procedures, arterial or venous thromboembolism, skin necrosis, or acral ischemia.

189
Q

What should be included in replacement therapy for active bleeding in DIC?

A
  • Platelets
  • Fresh frozen plasma
  • Cryoprecipitate
190
Q

What is the goal of replacement therapy in DIC?

A

To avoid depletion of clotting factors.

191
Q

What monitoring indicators are useful in DIC management?

A
  • Slowing of bleeding
  • Decrease in fibrin degradation products
  • Rise in platelet count and fibrinogen level
192
Q

When can heparin be selectively utilized in DIC treatment?

A

When fibrin deposition and thrombosis predominate the pathologic picture.

193
Q

What are some disease states associated with fibrin deposition?

A
  • Purpura fulminans
  • Retained nonviable fetus before delivery
  • Giant hemangioma
  • Acute promyelocytic leukemia
194
Q

In which conditions is heparin generally of little benefit?

A
  • Meningococcemia
  • Abruptio placentae
  • Severe liver disease
  • Trauma
195
Q

What other therapeutic agents have been evaluated for DIC?

A
  • Antithrombin III
  • PCC
  • Recombinant factor VIIa
  • Activated protein C
196
Q

What are the goals of emergency care for patients with DIC?

A
  • Early recognition and close monitoring
  • Focus on mitigation of the precipitating condition
  • Identifying potential life-threatening complications
  • Initiation of blood product or anticoagulation therapy only rarely
197
Q

Laboratory Diagnosis of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation