Disorder of Myelination Flashcards

1
Q

A 21-year-old right-handed female student was working in the photography lab 1 week ago, which required standing all day. After that, she experienced a cold sensation in the left foot and her entire left leg fell asleep. The feeling lasted 4 to 5 days and then slowly went away. Her right
lower extremity was fine. Coughing, sneezing, and the Valsalva maneuver
did not worsen her symptoms. She had a slight back pain, which she thought was due to using a poor mattress. Past history includes an episode of optic neuritis in the left eye 2 years ago. At that time, she was reportedly depressed and was sleeping constantly. One day, her left eye became
blurred and her vision went out. In 1 week, her vision returned to normal. Her vision now is 20/20. She has not had a repeat episode since then. She had an MRI of her brain, which was normal at that time. She drinks alcohol occasionally and does not use any illicit drugs. Her only medication is
birth control pills. Examination is significant for brisk reflexes and sustained
clonus at the right ankle. Babinski sign is present on the right. Testing is positive for oligoclonal bands.

  1. The most likely diagnosis in this case is
    a. Seizure
    b. Transient ischemic attack
    c. Anaplastic astrocytoma
    d. Multiple sclerosis
    e. Parkinson’s disease
A
  1. The answer is d. ( Victor, pp 961–962.) This is a typical history for
    multiple sclerosis (MS). Multiple sclerosis is a progressive demyelinating disease of the central nervous system. Risk factors include a first time demyelinating episode such as optic neuritis. Patients are more commonly in the 20 to 30 age range, with a higher incidence in women. A transient
    ischemic attack is a brief period of brain ischemia causing neurological deficits that resolve within 24 h. Patients who have a transient ischemic attack are at increased risk for stroke. A seizure is abnormal rhythmic electrical brain activity with a clinical correlation. There is nothing in the history that suggests that this patient had a seizure or a seizure predisposing
    factor. Seizure predisposing factors include previous seizure, brain trauma,
    brain hemorrhage, and encephalitis. An anaplastic astrocytoma is a malignant
    high-grade brain tumor. These often present with a seizure or hemorrhage.
    Risk factors include previous brain tumor. Parkinson’s disease is caused by a loss of dopaminergic neurons. It is characterized by asymmetric slowness, rigidity, and tremor. Risk factors include family history.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Oligoclonal bands are the
    a. Wave frequency changes on the EEG during sleep
    b. Markings about the iris
    c. Pathologic features of Alzheimer’s disease
    d. Chromosomal markings found with multiple sclerosis (MS)
    e. Immunoglobulin patterns in the CSF with MS
A
  1. The answer is e. ( Victor, p 969.) Between 85 and 90% of patients
    with MS exhibit oligoclonal banding on electrophoretic studies of their CSF. This limited number of bands of excess immunoglobulin indicates that the species of IgG produced by the disease fall into a relatively small number of families. The proteins are not highly diverse, as would be the case with a polyclonal gammopathy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. On briskly flexing the neck forward, a patient with this disease may
    report
    a. Dystonic posturing of the legs
    b. An electrical sensation radiating down the spine or into the legs
    c. Bilateral wristdrop
    d. Spontaneous evacuation of the bladder and bilateral extensor plantar responses
    e. Rapidly evolving hemifacial pain
A
  1. The answer is b. ( Victor, p 962.) The peculiar sensory phenomenon in which the patient feels an electrical sensation radiating down the spine when the neck is passively flexed is called Lhermitte’s sign and is believed to signify spinal cord disease. Patients with MS who have little more than optic atrophy and no evidence of spinal cord involvement may report the
    sensation. Dystonic posturing may also occur in patients with MS, but the
    posturing is usually spontaneous. A massive Babinski response may produce
    bladder evacuation and extensor plantar responses as well as involuntary leg withdrawal in these same patients. This type of reflex responseis usually elicited by stimuli to the feet or legs rather than by manipulation of the neck or spine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. The CSF in persons with multiple sclerosis will typically exhibit
    a. Glucose content of less than 20% of the serum content
    b. Persistently elevated total protein content
    c. Persistently elevated immunoglobulin G (IgG) content
    d. Mononuclear cell counts of greater than 100 cells per ìL
    e. Erythrocyte counts of greater than 10 cells per ìL
A
  1. The answer is c. (Bradley, pp 1448–1449.) The IgG content of the
    CSF remains elevated even between acute exacerbations of the MS. The IgG
    has a distinctive ê light chain composition. This immunoglobulin typically accounts for more than 15% of the total protein content in the CSF of the patient with MS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A 35-year-old man with multiple sclerosis initially presented 4 years ago with left eye optic neuritis. He did not receive steroids at that time. Two years ago he had loss of sensation in his hands that progressed over weeks to motor involvement, limiting his ability to write with the left hand. He
received steroids at that time. He began interferon â-1A 4 years ago. One year ago, he developed right leg weakness, constipation, and urinary urgency. He received steroids at that time as well. He now presents with new symptoms that concern him about the start of a new flare. Two days ago, he noticed decreased sensation in the palm of his right hand that is worse when he exercises. This has gotten a little worse over the last 2 days.
Yesterday, he noticed diminished sensation along the lower right trunk in
the front and back. He has no pain, tingling, exacerbation of symptoms
with neck movement, neck injury, incontinence, gait disturbance, diplopia,
fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. Examination findings include full visual
fields with a left afferent pupillary defect. Bulk, strength, and tone are normal.
Light touch is decreased over the left trunk and back over roughly the T8 to T12 dermatomes. Finger tapping, rapid alternating movements, finger-nose-finger, and heel tapping to shin are normal.

270. The most appropriate pharmacological treatment for this patient at
this time is
a. Interferon â-1B
b. Corticosteroids
c. Gabapentin
d. Glatiramer
e. Pramipexole
A
  1. The answer is b. ( Victor, p 973.) Corticosteroids are an appropriate
    treatment for a multiple sclerosis flare. They will reduce the length and severity of the flare in most cases, although they are not likely to change the long-term disease outcome. Interferon â-IB and glatiramer are appropriate treatments to reduce the frequency of multiple sclerosis flares; however, they are not useful for the acute treatment of a flare. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant medication that is also useful for the treatment of neuropathic
    pain, such as burning and allodynia. It will not help a multiple sclerosis flare. Pramipexole is a dopamine agonist used to treat parkinsonism. It has no role in the treatment of multiple sclerosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Multiple sclerosis is the most common demyelinating disease in the
    United States, affecting approximately 1 person in
    a. 100
    b. 500
    c. 1,000
    d. 5,000
    e. 10,000
A
  1. The answer is c. (Bradley, p 1436.) Approximately 250,000 people in the United States carry the diagnosis of MS. Most of the affected persons live in northern states, but no state is exempt from reports of MS. Because there is no test to unequivocally establish the diagnosis, the exact number of active cases in the United States can be approximated only very roughly.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. The evoked response pattern that is most often abnormal in patients
    with early MS is the
    a. Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER)
    b. Far-field somatosensory evoked response (SSER)
    c. Visual evoked response (VER)
    d. Jolly test
    e. Sensory nerve conduction test
A
  1. The answer is c. (Bradley, pp 1438–1439.) Optic neuritis occurs early and often in many patients with MS. This involves inflammation and demyelination of the optic nerve and slows conduction along the optic nerve. Components of the VER may be slowed or even absent. That an evoked response is disturbed is not proof that the patient has MS, as any
    problem that produces optic neuritis will disturb the VER. The Jolly test is an evoked response involving muscles. A peripheral nerve is shocked at 5 to 15 times per second, and the pattern of action potentials elicited in the muscle innervated is recorded. Sensory nerve conduction studies also involve an evoked response to a shock with the resulting signal tracked in the sensory nerve stimulated. Muscle and peripheral nerve function is typically normal in patients with MS, unless they have an unrelated disease of the peripheral nervous system.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. A 37-year-old woman with progressive multiple sclerosis is being admitted for intravenous glucocorticoid therapy. She was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 10 years ago after presenting with bilateral decreased visual acuity. She had an abnormal MRI at that time. She has been hospitalized approximately nine times since presentation, with her flares commonly consisting of increasing bilateral lower extremity weakness and
    decreased sensation manifested as a heavy feeling, waxing and waning generalized fatigue, bilateral hand tingling, and occasional nondescript speech
    changes that make her sound as though she has a slight accent. She has also
    had bilateral optic neuritis and one transient episode of aphasia in the past.
    She was last hospitalized 3 years ago. For the past 2 years she has been on
    cyclophosphamide and methylprednisolone, originally every 4 weeks, and now every 6 weeks, with the last treatment 1 month ago. She has tried and failed interferon â therapy. For the 2 months prior to admission, the patient
    has had worsening bilateral lower extremity weakness/heaviness, increased
    fatigue, and mild low back numbness, as well as intermittent and alternating
    decreased hearing in both ears at work. She has also noticed mild unsteadiness walking. Included among her admission orders should be
    a. Heart-healthy diet
    b. Ranitidine 150 mg bid
    c. Neurological checks every hour for the first 48 h
    d. Placement of central venous line
    e. Stat head CT for change in mental status
A
  1. The answer is b. (Braunwald, p 2459.) Gastric disturbances are a common side effect of corticosteroid use. Ranitidine is an appropriate prophylactic treatment. Patients with high cholesterol should be given a heart healthy diet. Neurological checks every hour, central venous line, and stat head CT for change in mental status are all things that should be done for
    unstable trauma patients with a cranial component
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. A 29-year-old man contracted HIV-1 through homosexual activity 5 years ago. He had been doing well on HAART, but stopped taking his medications 8 months ago because he thought that he would be better off. Two months ago he was successfully treated for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. A papovavirus infection of the central nervous system (CNS) in this person would be most likely to produce
    a. Adrenoleukodystrophy
    b. Multiple sclerosis
    c. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
    d. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
    e. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
A
  1. The answer is d. (Rowland, pp 155–156.) Adrenoleukodystrophy, MS, SSPE, PML, and metachromatic leukodystrophy are all demyelinating
    diseases, but PML is the only one confidently linked to a virus. The specific
    strains of papovavirus most often implicated in PML are BK, JC, and SV40.
    The patients at risk for this often lethal demyelinating process are those
    with lymphomas, leukemias, and AIDS. Patients on immunosuppressants
    face substantially less risk, but are at more risk than the general population.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. A 3-month-old child has a rapid regression of psychomotor function and loss of sight. There is increased urinary excretion of N-acetyl-L-aspartic acid. A preliminary diagnosis of Canavan’s disease (Canavan-van Bogaert-
    Bertrand disease; spongy degeneration of infancy) is made. This is a demyelinating disease that produces retardation in infants, is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, and results in
    a. Anencephaly
    b. Microcephaly
    c. Porencephaly
    d. Macrocephaly
    e. Dolichocephaly
A
  1. The answer is d. ( Victor, pp 1000–1001.) Canavan’s disease may
    produce developmental regression at about 6 months of age. The infant develops extensor posturing and rigidity. Myoclonic seizures may develop. Underlying the disease is a defect in N-acetylaspartic acid metabolism. Elevated levels of this material can be detected in the blood and urine, but elevated levels in the brain establish the diagnosis. Changes in brain white matter are widespread and may result in a spongiform appearance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 58-year-old man with a basilar tip aneurysm is referred by a neurosurgeon.
He has a 4-year history of progressive spastic paraparesis. He has recently had urge incontinence of urine. He also has numbness in the right toes more than the left, and pain in the thighs and back. There have been some gradual fluctuations, but no clear, discrete episodes of deterioration.
He has had no disturbances of vision, eye movement, or motor control of the upper extremities. He was referred when surgical clipping of the aneurysm 3 months ago failed to help his symptoms.

  1. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next diagnostic test?
    a. Cerebral angiography
    b. Spinal angiography
    c. MRI of the spinal cord
    d. Spinal cord biopsy
    e. VER
A
  1. The answer is c. (Bradley, p 1446.) This patient has a gradually progressive
    myelopathy. The differential diagnosis is broad, but MS is high on the list. A subset of patients with MS consists of middle-aged men with a progressive form of the disease. An MRI of the spinal cord could show MS plaques in the cord or other abnormalities intrinsic to the spinal cord parenchyma, and could also exclude compressive lesions. Vascular malformations of the spinal cord can also be seen in this way, although sometimes
    spinal angiography is required for definitive diagnosis. Cerebral angiography would not be helpful, except to evaluate for residual aneurysm, which is unlikely to be related to this patient’s problem. Spinal cord biopsy is unwarranted in this case unless a specific indication is provided on neuroimaging. Visual evoked responses may be abnormal in MS, even without
    clinical evidence of disease, but would not account for the patient’s spastic
    paraparesis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A 58-year-old man with a basilar tip aneurysm is referred by a neurosurgeon.
He has a 4-year history of progressive spastic paraparesis. He has recently had urge incontinence of urine. He also has numbness in the right toes more than the left, and pain in the thighs and back. There have been some gradual fluctuations, but no clear, discrete episodes of deterioration.
He has had no disturbances of vision, eye movement, or motor control of the upper extremities. He was referred when surgical clipping of the aneurysm 3 months ago failed to help his symptoms.

  1. Cystometrographic analysis of bladder function in this patient is likely to show which of the following abnormalities?
    a. Bladder hypotonia
    b. Large residual volume of urine
    c. Premature bladder emptying
    d. Good voluntary control of bladder emptying
    e. Urinary tract infection
A
  1. The answer is c. (Bradley, p 1440.) The patient with a spastic paraparesis
    will also often have a spastic bladder. There is little or no residual urine in the bladder after emptying because bladder contractility is good, but distensibility is poor. The bladder does not distend substantially because of corticospinal tract disease, which produces spasticity. The
    patient usually complains of urgency or incontinence.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 58-year-old man with a basilar tip aneurysm is referred by a neurosurgeon.
He has a 4-year history of progressive spastic paraparesis. He has recently had urge incontinence of urine. He also has numbness in the right toes more than the left, and pain in the thighs and back. There have been some gradual fluctuations, but no clear, discrete episodes of deterioration.
He has had no disturbances of vision, eye movement, or motor control of the upper extremities. He was referred when surgical clipping of the aneurysm 3 months ago failed to help his symptoms.

278. Three months later, the patient has worsening leg weakness. He has severe spasms of his legs bilaterally, and is increasingly unable to ambulate because of this. A reasonable symptomatic treatment option would be
which of the following?
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Baclofen
c. Gabapentin
d. Amitriptyline hydrochloride
e. Propranolol
A
  1. The answer is b. (Bradley, p 1453.) Baclofen is an antispasmodic agent that may be used in MS. Additional agents that may be used include tiazidine or benzodiazepines. Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressive drug that may be used to treat MS, but would not be considered a symptomatic therapy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A 58-year-old man with a basilar tip aneurysm is referred by a neurosurgeon.
He has a 4-year history of progressive spastic paraparesis. He has recently had urge incontinence of urine. He also has numbness in the right toes more than the left, and pain in the thighs and back. There have been some gradual fluctuations, but no clear, discrete episodes of deterioration.
He has had no disturbances of vision, eye movement, or motor control of the upper extremities. He was referred when surgical clipping of the aneurysm 3 months ago failed to help his symptoms.

  1. Which of the following factors might be expected to worsen his condition?
    a. Bright lights
    b. Red wine
    c. Tyramine-containing compounds
    d. Hot weather
    e. Amantadine
A
  1. The answer is d. (Bradley, p 1441.) Patients with demyelinating diseases
    often notice that their symptoms become worse in conditions of increased temperature. In fact, one old way of diagnosing MS called for the patient to be submerged in a tub of warm water; if the deficits worsened, this was considered a sign of MS. This heat sensitivity, also called Uhthoff’s phenomenon, explains why patients often feel worse in the summer or on taking hot showers. MS is worth considering when seeing a patient who complains of exercise-induced symptoms, because the increased heat that is generated by exercise may be enough to exacerbate the deficits.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. A 23-year-old woman awakens with bilateral leg weakness and numbness, urinary retention, and impaired bowel control. She has had several episodes of blurred vision over the previous 2 years, but these had always been attributed to idiopathic papillitis. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is a. ( Victor, pp 966–967.) Neuromyelitis optica produces
    signs and symptoms of bilateral optic neuritis in association with a transverse myelitis. The paraparesis, bladder and bowel dysfunction, and sensory deficit signal a transverse myelitis—that is, an inflammatory demyelinating lesion that transects much of the spinal cord. In some cases, the pathology shows a necrotizing process in the spinal cord. All of these
    problems may develop with MS, but cerebellar involvement, more scattered
    cerebral involvement, and a generally less circumscribed pattern of deficits are more likely. Adults are especially likely to develop a pattern more typical of relapsing-remitting MS after an initial episode of neuromyelitis optica. Children presenting with neuromyelitis optica may have
    no other signs or symptoms of demyelination.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. Two weeks after recovering from a febrile illness associated with a productive cough, a 19-year-old man complains of headache and neck stiffness. These complaints are associated with fever and are soon followed by deteriorating cognitive function. He becomes disoriented, lethargic, and increasingly unresponsive. MRI reveals widespread damage to the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is d. ( Victor, pp 975–978.) Acute disseminated
    encephalomyelitis is often fatal. On examination of the brain, damage to
    small blood vessels and to perivascular tissues in the white matter of the
    cerebral hemispheres is extensive and coalescent. The diagnosis is suggested
    by the MRI or CT picture of rapidly evolving white matter damage associated with a high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) under increased pressure with elevated red cell and white cell counts and elevated protein content. The CSF glucose content is
    usually normal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. A 24-year-old man has progressive loss of vision over the course of 5 years. A visual field examination reveals a centrocecal scotoma. Two of his cousins have similar problems with visual loss. Both of the affected relatives are male and in their twenties. Genetic testing reveals a mutation of mitochondrial DNA. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is f. ( Victor, pp 1164–1165.) The optic neuritis of MS
    produces enlargement of the physiologic blind spot, but rarely to the point
    where it impinges on central vision. When the blind spot extends into central
    vision, it is called a centrocecal scotoma. A young man presenting with this pattern of visual loss is much more likely to have Leber’s optic atrophy or another cause of optic atrophy (e.g., tobacco-alcohol amblyopia, tertiary syphilis, or vitamin deficiencies) than to have multiple sclerosis. That other men in the family are similarly affected supports the diagnosis of the hereditary Leber’s optic atrophy. This condition is caused by one of several possible mutations in mitochondrial DNA.
18
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. Two brothers, 4 and 7 years of age, exhibit limb ataxia, nystagmus, and mental retardation. MRI of their brains reveals areas of abnormal signal in the white matter. Cerebellar involvement is substantial. Both boys also have abnormally low serum cortisol levels. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is h. ( Victor, pp 1034–1036.) Adrenal dysfunction in
    association with a progressive degenerative disease of the white matter suggests adrenoleukodystrophy. Some types are X-linked defects, and the fact
    that two brothers are affected in similar ways suggests that they have the
    X-linked form of adrenoleukodystrophy. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy produces rapidly evolving brain damage in male infants or boys, with survival from onset of symptoms usually limited to 3 years. The underlying defect in this X-linked disorder is an ATP-binding transporter in the peroxisomal system responsible for long-chain fatty acid metabolism. Long-chain fatty acids accumulate in adrenal cortical and other cells. Pathophysiologically similar to, but otherwise distinct from, adrenoleukodystrophy is adrenomyeloneuropathy. It may develop in heterozygous women and usually involves less pronounced damage to the brain and more obvious damage to the spinal cord and peripheral nerves. Persons with adrenomyeloneuropathy routinely develop spastic paraparesis, problems with bladder and bowel control, and sensory disturbances in the legs.
19
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. A 3-month-old boy exhibits nystagmus and limb tremors unassociated
    with seizures. Over the next few years, he develops optic atrophy, choreoathetotic limb movements, seizures, and gait ataxia. He dies during status epilepticus and at autopsy is found to have widespread myelin breakdown with myelin preservation in islands about the blood vessels. The pathologist diagnoses a sudanophilic leukodystrophy to describe the pattern of staining observed on slides prepared to look for myelin breakdown
    products. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is e. ( Victor, p 1000.) Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease is a
    demyelinating disorder that belongs to a group of degenerative diseases known as sudanophilic leukodystrophies. Leukodystrophy refers to the disturbance of white matter, and sudanophilic refers to the Sudan staining characteristics of the involved white matter. Children with Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease typically become symptomatic during the first months of life, but survival may extend into the third decade of life. Most affected
    persons are male.
20
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. A 54-year-old alcoholic man is brought to the emergency room with
    profound agitation. He is believed to be suffering from delirium tremens and is treated with thiamine and intravenous fluids. His serum sodium is noted to be markedly depressed, and intravenous supplements are adjusted to rapidly correct this hyponatremia. He becomes acutely quadriplegic and unresponsive and dies within 24 h. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is b. (Rowland, pp 794–796.) Rapid correction of hyponatremia in an alcoholic may precipitate central pontine myelinolysis
    (CPM), a rapidly fatal, demyelinating disorder of the brainstem. With CPM
    there is demyelination in the basis pontis. The destruction of myelin sheaths is usually quite symmetric and appears to begin in the median raphe. There is no inflammation associated with the demyelination, even though the changes occur acutely and progress rapidly. Death usually occurs within days or weeks of the first signs of neurologic disease. Affected persons often have hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and hypomagnesemia
    as well as hyponatremia. Many have a low serum osmolality associated with a normal urine osmolality, findings consistent with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The signs of CPM may be similar to those occurring with Wernicke’s encephalopathy (i.e., disturbed ocular motor function, gait disturbances, and altered consciousness and cognition). That this patient did not have Wernicke’s
    encephalopathy was suggested by his having received thiamine before the
    administration of intravenous solutions, a measure usually sufficient to reduce or eliminate the risk of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
21
Q

A 21-year-old right-handed female student was working in the photography lab 1 week ago, which required standing all day. After that, she experienced a cold sensation in the left foot and her entire left leg fell asleep. The feeling lasted 4 to 5 days and then slowly went away. Her right
lower extremity was fine. Coughing, sneezing, and the Valsalva maneuver
did not worsen her symptoms. She had a slight back pain, which she thought was due to using a poor mattress. Past history includes an episode of optic neuritis in the left eye 2 years ago. At that time, she was reportedly depressed and was sleeping constantly. One day, her left eye became
blurred and her vision went out. In 1 week, her vision returned to normal. Her vision now is 20/20. She has not had a repeat episode since then. She had an MRI of her brain, which was normal at that time. She drinks alcohol occasionally and does not use any illicit drugs. Her only medication is
birth control pills. Examination is significant for brisk reflexes and sustained
clonus at the right ankle. Babinski sign is present on the right. Testing is positive for oligoclonal bands.

  1. The most likely diagnosis in this case is
    a. Seizure
    b. Transient ischemic attack
    c. Anaplastic astrocytoma
    d. Multiple sclerosis
    e. Parkinson’s disease
A
  1. The answer is d. ( Victor, pp 961–962.) This is a typical history for
    multiple sclerosis (MS). Multiple sclerosis is a progressive demyelinating disease of the central nervous system. Risk factors include a first time demyelinating episode such as optic neuritis. Patients are more commonly in the 20 to 30 age range, with a higher incidence in women. A transient
    ischemic attack is a brief period of brain ischemia causing neurological deficits that resolve within 24 h. Patients who have a transient ischemic attack are at increased risk for stroke. A seizure is abnormal rhythmic electrical brain activity with a clinical correlation. There is nothing in the history that suggests that this patient had a seizure or a seizure predisposing
    factor. Seizure predisposing factors include previous seizure, brain trauma,
    brain hemorrhage, and encephalitis. An anaplastic astrocytoma is a malignant
    high-grade brain tumor. These often present with a seizure or hemorrhage.
    Risk factors include previous brain tumor. Parkinson’s disease is caused by a loss of dopaminergic neurons. It is characterized by asymmetric slowness, rigidity, and tremor. Risk factors include family history.
22
Q
  1. Oligoclonal bands are the
    a. Wave frequency changes on the EEG during sleep
    b. Markings about the iris
    c. Pathologic features of Alzheimer’s disease
    d. Chromosomal markings found with multiple sclerosis (MS)
    e. Immunoglobulin patterns in the CSF with MS
A
  1. The answer is e. ( Victor, p 969.) Between 85 and 90% of patients
    with MS exhibit oligoclonal banding on electrophoretic studies of their CSF. This limited number of bands of excess immunoglobulin indicates that the species of IgG produced by the disease fall into a relatively small number of families. The proteins are not highly diverse, as would be the case with a polyclonal gammopathy.
23
Q
  1. On briskly flexing the neck forward, a patient with this disease may
    report
    a. Dystonic posturing of the legs
    b. An electrical sensation radiating down the spine or into the legs
    c. Bilateral wristdrop
    d. Spontaneous evacuation of the bladder and bilateral extensor plantar responses
    e. Rapidly evolving hemifacial pain
A
  1. The answer is b. ( Victor, p 962.) The peculiar sensory phenomenon in which the patient feels an electrical sensation radiating down the spine when the neck is passively flexed is called Lhermitte’s sign and is believed to signify spinal cord disease. Patients with MS who have little more than optic atrophy and no evidence of spinal cord involvement may report the
    sensation. Dystonic posturing may also occur in patients with MS, but the
    posturing is usually spontaneous. A massive Babinski response may produce
    bladder evacuation and extensor plantar responses as well as involuntary leg withdrawal in these same patients. This type of reflex responseis usually elicited by stimuli to the feet or legs rather than by manipulation of the neck or spine.
24
Q
  1. The CSF in persons with multiple sclerosis will typically exhibit
    a. Glucose content of less than 20% of the serum content
    b. Persistently elevated total protein content
    c. Persistently elevated immunoglobulin G (IgG) content
    d. Mononuclear cell counts of greater than 100 cells per ìL
    e. Erythrocyte counts of greater than 10 cells per ìL
A
  1. The answer is c. (Bradley, pp 1448–1449.) The IgG content of the
    CSF remains elevated even between acute exacerbations of the MS. The IgG
    has a distinctive ê light chain composition. This immunoglobulin typically accounts for more than 15% of the total protein content in the CSF of the patient with MS.
25
Q

A 35-year-old man with multiple sclerosis initially presented 4 years ago with left eye optic neuritis. He did not receive steroids at that time. Two years ago he had loss of sensation in his hands that progressed over weeks to motor involvement, limiting his ability to write with the left hand. He
received steroids at that time. He began interferon â-1A 4 years ago. One year ago, he developed right leg weakness, constipation, and urinary urgency. He received steroids at that time as well. He now presents with new symptoms that concern him about the start of a new flare. Two days ago, he noticed decreased sensation in the palm of his right hand that is worse when he exercises. This has gotten a little worse over the last 2 days.
Yesterday, he noticed diminished sensation along the lower right trunk in
the front and back. He has no pain, tingling, exacerbation of symptoms
with neck movement, neck injury, incontinence, gait disturbance, diplopia,
fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. Examination findings include full visual
fields with a left afferent pupillary defect. Bulk, strength, and tone are normal.
Light touch is decreased over the left trunk and back over roughly the T8 to T12 dermatomes. Finger tapping, rapid alternating movements, finger-nose-finger, and heel tapping to shin are normal.

270. The most appropriate pharmacological treatment for this patient at
this time is
a. Interferon â-1B
b. Corticosteroids
c. Gabapentin
d. Glatiramer
e. Pramipexole
A
  1. The answer is b. ( Victor, p 973.) Corticosteroids are an appropriate
    treatment for a multiple sclerosis flare. They will reduce the length and severity of the flare in most cases, although they are not likely to change the long-term disease outcome. Interferon â-IB and glatiramer are appropriate treatments to reduce the frequency of multiple sclerosis flares; however, they are not useful for the acute treatment of a flare. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant medication that is also useful for the treatment of neuropathic
    pain, such as burning and allodynia. It will not help a multiple sclerosis flare. Pramipexole is a dopamine agonist used to treat parkinsonism. It has no role in the treatment of multiple sclerosis.
26
Q
  1. Multiple sclerosis is the most common demyelinating disease in the
    United States, affecting approximately 1 person in
    a. 100
    b. 500
    c. 1,000
    d. 5,000
    e. 10,000
A
  1. The answer is c. (Bradley, p 1436.) Approximately 250,000 people in the United States carry the diagnosis of MS. Most of the affected persons live in northern states, but no state is exempt from reports of MS. Because there is no test to unequivocally establish the diagnosis, the exact number of active cases in the United States can be approximated only very roughly.
27
Q
  1. The evoked response pattern that is most often abnormal in patients
    with early MS is the
    a. Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER)
    b. Far-field somatosensory evoked response (SSER)
    c. Visual evoked response (VER)
    d. Jolly test
    e. Sensory nerve conduction test
A
  1. The answer is c. (Bradley, pp 1438–1439.) Optic neuritis occurs early and often in many patients with MS. This involves inflammation and demyelination of the optic nerve and slows conduction along the optic nerve. Components of the VER may be slowed or even absent. That an evoked response is disturbed is not proof that the patient has MS, as any
    problem that produces optic neuritis will disturb the VER. The Jolly test is an evoked response involving muscles. A peripheral nerve is shocked at 5 to 15 times per second, and the pattern of action potentials elicited in the muscle innervated is recorded. Sensory nerve conduction studies also involve an evoked response to a shock with the resulting signal tracked in the sensory nerve stimulated. Muscle and peripheral nerve function is typically normal in patients with MS, unless they have an unrelated disease of the peripheral nervous system.
28
Q
  1. A 37-year-old woman with progressive multiple sclerosis is being admitted for intravenous glucocorticoid therapy. She was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 10 years ago after presenting with bilateral decreased visual acuity. She had an abnormal MRI at that time. She has been hospitalized approximately nine times since presentation, with her flares commonly consisting of increasing bilateral lower extremity weakness and
    decreased sensation manifested as a heavy feeling, waxing and waning generalized fatigue, bilateral hand tingling, and occasional nondescript speech
    changes that make her sound as though she has a slight accent. She has also
    had bilateral optic neuritis and one transient episode of aphasia in the past.
    She was last hospitalized 3 years ago. For the past 2 years she has been on
    cyclophosphamide and methylprednisolone, originally every 4 weeks, and now every 6 weeks, with the last treatment 1 month ago. She has tried and failed interferon â therapy. For the 2 months prior to admission, the patient
    has had worsening bilateral lower extremity weakness/heaviness, increased
    fatigue, and mild low back numbness, as well as intermittent and alternating
    decreased hearing in both ears at work. She has also noticed mild unsteadiness walking. Included among her admission orders should be
    a. Heart-healthy diet
    b. Ranitidine 150 mg bid
    c. Neurological checks every hour for the first 48 h
    d. Placement of central venous line
    e. Stat head CT for change in mental status
A
  1. The answer is b. (Braunwald, p 2459.) Gastric disturbances are a common side effect of corticosteroid use. Ranitidine is an appropriate prophylactic treatment. Patients with high cholesterol should be given a heart healthy diet. Neurological checks every hour, central venous line, and stat head CT for change in mental status are all things that should be done for
    unstable trauma patients with a cranial component
29
Q
  1. A 29-year-old man contracted HIV-1 through homosexual activity 5 years ago. He had been doing well on HAART, but stopped taking his medications 8 months ago because he thought that he would be better off. Two months ago he was successfully treated for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. A papovavirus infection of the central nervous system (CNS) in this person would be most likely to produce
    a. Adrenoleukodystrophy
    b. Multiple sclerosis
    c. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
    d. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
    e. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
A
  1. The answer is d. (Rowland, pp 155–156.) Adrenoleukodystrophy, MS, SSPE, PML, and metachromatic leukodystrophy are all demyelinating
    diseases, but PML is the only one confidently linked to a virus. The specific
    strains of papovavirus most often implicated in PML are BK, JC, and SV40.
    The patients at risk for this often lethal demyelinating process are those
    with lymphomas, leukemias, and AIDS. Patients on immunosuppressants
    face substantially less risk, but are at more risk than the general population.
30
Q
  1. A 3-month-old child has a rapid regression of psychomotor function and loss of sight. There is increased urinary excretion of N-acetyl-L-aspartic acid. A preliminary diagnosis of Canavan’s disease (Canavan-van Bogaert-
    Bertrand disease; spongy degeneration of infancy) is made. This is a demyelinating disease that produces retardation in infants, is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, and results in
    a. Anencephaly
    b. Microcephaly
    c. Porencephaly
    d. Macrocephaly
    e. Dolichocephaly
A
  1. The answer is d. ( Victor, pp 1000–1001.) Canavan’s disease may
    produce developmental regression at about 6 months of age. The infant develops extensor posturing and rigidity. Myoclonic seizures may develop. Underlying the disease is a defect in N-acetylaspartic acid metabolism. Elevated levels of this material can be detected in the blood and urine, but elevated levels in the brain establish the diagnosis. Changes in brain white matter are widespread and may result in a spongiform appearance.
31
Q

A 58-year-old man with a basilar tip aneurysm is referred by a neurosurgeon.
He has a 4-year history of progressive spastic paraparesis. He has recently had urge incontinence of urine. He also has numbness in the right toes more than the left, and pain in the thighs and back. There have been some gradual fluctuations, but no clear, discrete episodes of deterioration.
He has had no disturbances of vision, eye movement, or motor control of the upper extremities. He was referred when surgical clipping of the aneurysm 3 months ago failed to help his symptoms.

  1. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next diagnostic test?
    a. Cerebral angiography
    b. Spinal angiography
    c. MRI of the spinal cord
    d. Spinal cord biopsy
    e. VER
A
  1. The answer is c. (Bradley, p 1446.) This patient has a gradually progressive
    myelopathy. The differential diagnosis is broad, but MS is high on the list. A subset of patients with MS consists of middle-aged men with a progressive form of the disease. An MRI of the spinal cord could show MS plaques in the cord or other abnormalities intrinsic to the spinal cord parenchyma, and could also exclude compressive lesions. Vascular malformations of the spinal cord can also be seen in this way, although sometimes
    spinal angiography is required for definitive diagnosis. Cerebral angiography would not be helpful, except to evaluate for residual aneurysm, which is unlikely to be related to this patient’s problem. Spinal cord biopsy is unwarranted in this case unless a specific indication is provided on neuroimaging. Visual evoked responses may be abnormal in MS, even without
    clinical evidence of disease, but would not account for the patient’s spastic
    paraparesis.
32
Q

A 58-year-old man with a basilar tip aneurysm is referred by a neurosurgeon.
He has a 4-year history of progressive spastic paraparesis. He has recently had urge incontinence of urine. He also has numbness in the right toes more than the left, and pain in the thighs and back. There have been some gradual fluctuations, but no clear, discrete episodes of deterioration.
He has had no disturbances of vision, eye movement, or motor control of the upper extremities. He was referred when surgical clipping of the aneurysm 3 months ago failed to help his symptoms.

  1. Cystometrographic analysis of bladder function in this patient is likely to show which of the following abnormalities?
    a. Bladder hypotonia
    b. Large residual volume of urine
    c. Premature bladder emptying
    d. Good voluntary control of bladder emptying
    e. Urinary tract infection
A
  1. The answer is c. (Bradley, p 1440.) The patient with a spastic paraparesis
    will also often have a spastic bladder. There is little or no residual urine in the bladder after emptying because bladder contractility is good, but distensibility is poor. The bladder does not distend substantially because of corticospinal tract disease, which produces spasticity. The
    patient usually complains of urgency or incontinence.
33
Q

A 58-year-old man with a basilar tip aneurysm is referred by a neurosurgeon.
He has a 4-year history of progressive spastic paraparesis. He has recently had urge incontinence of urine. He also has numbness in the right toes more than the left, and pain in the thighs and back. There have been some gradual fluctuations, but no clear, discrete episodes of deterioration.
He has had no disturbances of vision, eye movement, or motor control of the upper extremities. He was referred when surgical clipping of the aneurysm 3 months ago failed to help his symptoms.

278. Three months later, the patient has worsening leg weakness. He has severe spasms of his legs bilaterally, and is increasingly unable to ambulate because of this. A reasonable symptomatic treatment option would be
which of the following?
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Baclofen
c. Gabapentin
d. Amitriptyline hydrochloride
e. Propranolol
A
  1. The answer is b. (Bradley, p 1453.) Baclofen is an antispasmodic agent that may be used in MS. Additional agents that may be used include tiazidine or benzodiazepines. Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressive drug that may be used to treat MS, but would not be considered a symptomatic therapy.
34
Q

A 58-year-old man with a basilar tip aneurysm is referred by a neurosurgeon.
He has a 4-year history of progressive spastic paraparesis. He has recently had urge incontinence of urine. He also has numbness in the right toes more than the left, and pain in the thighs and back. There have been some gradual fluctuations, but no clear, discrete episodes of deterioration.
He has had no disturbances of vision, eye movement, or motor control of the upper extremities. He was referred when surgical clipping of the aneurysm 3 months ago failed to help his symptoms.

  1. Which of the following factors might be expected to worsen his condition?
    a. Bright lights
    b. Red wine
    c. Tyramine-containing compounds
    d. Hot weather
    e. Amantadine
A
  1. The answer is d. (Bradley, p 1441.) Patients with demyelinating diseases
    often notice that their symptoms become worse in conditions of increased temperature. In fact, one old way of diagnosing MS called for the patient to be submerged in a tub of warm water; if the deficits worsened, this was considered a sign of MS. This heat sensitivity, also called Uhthoff’s phenomenon, explains why patients often feel worse in the summer or on taking hot showers. MS is worth considering when seeing a patient who complains of exercise-induced symptoms, because the increased heat that is generated by exercise may be enough to exacerbate the deficits.
35
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. A 23-year-old woman awakens with bilateral leg weakness and numbness, urinary retention, and impaired bowel control. She has had several episodes of blurred vision over the previous 2 years, but these had always been attributed to idiopathic papillitis. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is a. ( Victor, pp 966–967.) Neuromyelitis optica produces
    signs and symptoms of bilateral optic neuritis in association with a transverse myelitis. The paraparesis, bladder and bowel dysfunction, and sensory deficit signal a transverse myelitis—that is, an inflammatory demyelinating lesion that transects much of the spinal cord. In some cases, the pathology shows a necrotizing process in the spinal cord. All of these
    problems may develop with MS, but cerebellar involvement, more scattered
    cerebral involvement, and a generally less circumscribed pattern of deficits are more likely. Adults are especially likely to develop a pattern more typical of relapsing-remitting MS after an initial episode of neuromyelitis optica. Children presenting with neuromyelitis optica may have
    no other signs or symptoms of demyelination.
36
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. Two weeks after recovering from a febrile illness associated with a productive cough, a 19-year-old man complains of headache and neck stiffness. These complaints are associated with fever and are soon followed by deteriorating cognitive function. He becomes disoriented, lethargic, and increasingly unresponsive. MRI reveals widespread damage to the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is d. ( Victor, pp 975–978.) Acute disseminated
    encephalomyelitis is often fatal. On examination of the brain, damage to
    small blood vessels and to perivascular tissues in the white matter of the
    cerebral hemispheres is extensive and coalescent. The diagnosis is suggested
    by the MRI or CT picture of rapidly evolving white matter damage associated with a high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) under increased pressure with elevated red cell and white cell counts and elevated protein content. The CSF glucose content is
    usually normal.
37
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. A 24-year-old man has progressive loss of vision over the course of 5 years. A visual field examination reveals a centrocecal scotoma. Two of his cousins have similar problems with visual loss. Both of the affected relatives are male and in their twenties. Genetic testing reveals a mutation of mitochondrial DNA. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is f. ( Victor, pp 1164–1165.) The optic neuritis of MS
    produces enlargement of the physiologic blind spot, but rarely to the point
    where it impinges on central vision. When the blind spot extends into central
    vision, it is called a centrocecal scotoma. A young man presenting with this pattern of visual loss is much more likely to have Leber’s optic atrophy or another cause of optic atrophy (e.g., tobacco-alcohol amblyopia, tertiary syphilis, or vitamin deficiencies) than to have multiple sclerosis. That other men in the family are similarly affected supports the diagnosis of the hereditary Leber’s optic atrophy. This condition is caused by one of several possible mutations in mitochondrial DNA.
38
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. Two brothers, 4 and 7 years of age, exhibit limb ataxia, nystagmus, and mental retardation. MRI of their brains reveals areas of abnormal signal in the white matter. Cerebellar involvement is substantial. Both boys also have abnormally low serum cortisol levels. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is h. ( Victor, pp 1034–1036.) Adrenal dysfunction in
    association with a progressive degenerative disease of the white matter suggests adrenoleukodystrophy. Some types are X-linked defects, and the fact
    that two brothers are affected in similar ways suggests that they have the
    X-linked form of adrenoleukodystrophy. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy produces rapidly evolving brain damage in male infants or boys, with survival from onset of symptoms usually limited to 3 years. The underlying defect in this X-linked disorder is an ATP-binding transporter in the peroxisomal system responsible for long-chain fatty acid metabolism. Long-chain fatty acids accumulate in adrenal cortical and other cells. Pathophysiologically similar to, but otherwise distinct from, adrenoleukodystrophy is adrenomyeloneuropathy. It may develop in heterozygous women and usually involves less pronounced damage to the brain and more obvious damage to the spinal cord and peripheral nerves. Persons with adrenomyeloneuropathy routinely develop spastic paraparesis, problems with bladder and bowel control, and sensory disturbances in the legs.
39
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. A 3-month-old boy exhibits nystagmus and limb tremors unassociated
    with seizures. Over the next few years, he develops optic atrophy, choreoathetotic limb movements, seizures, and gait ataxia. He dies during status epilepticus and at autopsy is found to have widespread myelin breakdown with myelin preservation in islands about the blood vessels. The pathologist diagnoses a sudanophilic leukodystrophy to describe the pattern of staining observed on slides prepared to look for myelin breakdown
    products. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is e. ( Victor, p 1000.) Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease is a
    demyelinating disorder that belongs to a group of degenerative diseases known as sudanophilic leukodystrophies. Leukodystrophy refers to the disturbance of white matter, and sudanophilic refers to the Sudan staining characteristics of the involved white matter. Children with Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease typically become symptomatic during the first months of life, but survival may extend into the third decade of life. Most affected
    persons are male.
40
Q

a. Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease)
b. Central pontine myelinolysis
c. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
d. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
e. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease
f. Leber’s optic atrophy
g. Alexander’s disease
h. Adrenoleukodystrophy
i. Canavan’s disease

  1. A 54-year-old alcoholic man is brought to the emergency room with
    profound agitation. He is believed to be suffering from delirium tremens and is treated with thiamine and intravenous fluids. His serum sodium is noted to be markedly depressed, and intravenous supplements are adjusted to rapidly correct this hyponatremia. He becomes acutely quadriplegic and unresponsive and dies within 24 h. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS)
A
  1. The answer is b. (Rowland, pp 794–796.) Rapid correction of hyponatremia in an alcoholic may precipitate central pontine myelinolysis
    (CPM), a rapidly fatal, demyelinating disorder of the brainstem. With CPM
    there is demyelination in the basis pontis. The destruction of myelin sheaths is usually quite symmetric and appears to begin in the median raphe. There is no inflammation associated with the demyelination, even though the changes occur acutely and progress rapidly. Death usually occurs within days or weeks of the first signs of neurologic disease. Affected persons often have hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and hypomagnesemia
    as well as hyponatremia. Many have a low serum osmolality associated with a normal urine osmolality, findings consistent with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The signs of CPM may be similar to those occurring with Wernicke’s encephalopathy (i.e., disturbed ocular motor function, gait disturbances, and altered consciousness and cognition). That this patient did not have Wernicke’s
    encephalopathy was suggested by his having received thiamine before the
    administration of intravenous solutions, a measure usually sufficient to reduce or eliminate the risk of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.