Diseases and Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What disease does AZT treat and what is its mechamism of action?

A

HIV; inhibits reverse transcriptase

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2
Q

What disease does acyclovir treat and what is its method of action?

A

Herpes; inhibits reverse transcriptase

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3
Q

What is quinolone?

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotic; inhibits DNA gyrase and replication of DNA

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4
Q

What is the cause of dyskeratosis congenita?

A

Telomerase deficiency syndrome; causes premature aging

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5
Q

What is the cause of hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch Syndrome)?

A

Mutations in MMR (mismatch repair) genes

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6
Q

What is the cause of Hemoglobin Wayne syndrome?

A

Deletion of U frameshift/sense mutation that results in polypeptide elongation

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7
Q

What is the cause of Thalassemias?

A

Mutation in beta-globin promoter or complete deletion of locus control region (LCR) of beta-globin gene cluster, resulting in lower levels of hemoglobin production in RBCs

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8
Q

Describe Hemophilia B-Leyden.

A

Due to a mutation in promoter of Factor IX gene, important in blood clotting. After puberty, Factor IX production increases because androgen can alternatively bind the promoter.

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9
Q

Describe Fragile X Syndrome.

A

Most common form of mental retardation in boys; results from CGG repeat expansion in 5’UTR of FMR1 gene, causing region to be highly methylated and preventing initiation of transcription.

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10
Q

How does aspirin inhibit production of inflammatory cytokines?

A

Inhibits IKB phosphorylation, disallowing NF-kB from unbinding and moving into nucleus.

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11
Q

Why does a congenital loss of APC increase the likelihood of developing colon cancer?

A

APC, a tumor suppressor, is part of the complex that degrades B-catenin. B-catenin is a TF to induce cell proliferation.

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12
Q

How does Rifampicin work?

A

It binds RNA polymerase in bacteria and blocks the RNA exit channel.

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13
Q

What is alpha-amanitin and what does it do?

A

Toxin/peptide of death-cap mushroom; prevents RNA Pol II from translocating by binding the bridge helix.

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14
Q

What do Cockayne syndrome, Xeroderma Pigmentosum and Trichothiodystrophy have in common?

A

Involve mutations/loss of function in TFIIH, which is involved in transcriptional initiation and nucleotide excision repair. Common symptom is photosensitivity.

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15
Q

How does Vorinostat work?

A

HDAC inhibitor used to treat T-cell lymphoma.

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16
Q

What is Gleevac (imantinib)?

A

A tyrosine kinase inhibitor used to treat chronic mylogenous leukemia, a disease in which tyrosine kinase in permanently turned on.

17
Q

What is the molecular basis of Cystic Fibrosis?

A

F508 gene deletion resulting in misfolded CF transmembrane conductase regulator (CFTR), required to regulate sweat, mucus, and digestive fluids.

18
Q

Describe Methotrexate.

A

Competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme necessary for nucleotide biosynthesis; used in cancer treatment.

19
Q

How does penicillin work to block bacterial growth?

A

Irreversibly binds and inhibits glycopeptide transpeptidase and prevents cell wall formation.

20
Q

Describe Gout.

A

Due to accumulation of (low-soluble) purines in tissue. Leads to symptoms of arthritis, pain and welling in the joints (often big toe) due to increase in uric acid.

21
Q

Describe Lesch-Nyhan Disease.

A

An X-linked trait. A defect in the enzyme the breaks down purines, leading to accumulation in tissues. Leads to symptoms of gout and self-destructive biting

22
Q

Describe Cysplatin.

A

A chemotherapetuic alkylating agent. Causes crosslinks in DNA that are not remedies by repair mechanisms and lead to cell death.

23
Q

Describe Acyclovir.

A

A nucleoside analogue that is incorporated during replication and that then blocks DNA polymerase. An antiviral.

24
Q

Describe Adriamycin.

A

AKA doxorubicin, a chemotherapy drug; intercalates (inserts) between planar bases of DNA, inhibiting topoisomerase

25
Q

Describe Puromycin.

A

A nucleotide analogue that mimics tRNA acceptor region, allowing peptide transfer and premature termination of translation. An antibiotic.

26
Q

Describe spinal muscular atrophy.

A

Caused by defect in SNM1 gene that encodes for SMN protein (survival of motor neuron protein), which is an essential component of splicesomal machinery.

27
Q

Describe Erythromycin.

A

Antiobiotic; affects peptidyl transferase process of translation

28
Q

Describe Rapamycin.

A

mTOR protein-kinase inhibitor; kinase phosphorylates 4E-BP, prohibiting it from sequestering 4E, a binding protein of translation. A common immunosuppressant.

29
Q

Describe Craniosynostosis.

A

Causes premature fusion of cranial sutures; Proline to histidine substitution within MSX2 homeodomain causes stronger protein binding, “gain of function” mutation

30
Q

Describe Androgen-Insensitivity Syndrome.

A

Due to mutation in DNA binding domain of androgen receptor (a Zn-finger DNA binding protein)

31
Q

Describe Waardenburg Syndrome Type II.

A

A pigmentation anomaly due to mutation in MITF gene which encodes a bHLH binding protein, rendering the protein non-functional.

32
Q

Describe Rubinstein-Taybi Syndrome.

A

Characterized by short stature, broad fingers and toes. Due to mutation in CBP (a HAT co-activator) for many TFs.

33
Q

How does Tamoxifen work?

A

An estrogen antagonist prevents binding of estrogen to estrogen receptor, which then cannot dimerize and bind to DNA to recruit HATs.

34
Q

Describe Cyclosporin.

A

An immunosuppressant that inhibits calcineurin, a calcium-dependent kinase that acts on NF-AT, activating it to move into the nucleus to affect transcription of T-cells.

35
Q

What is the preferred secretase pathway of the APP (amyloid precursor protein)?

A

Alpha, then gamma. If beta, than gamma, protein is AB40 or AB42.

36
Q

Describe Prion Disease.

A

Due to misfolding of the prion protein into aggregates composed of a large proportion of beta-sheets.