Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Child Health > Disease Profiles > Flashcards

Disease Profiles Flashcards

1
Q

Premature Infants: Altered Approach to Management (4 stages)

A

Delay cord clamping
Keep the baby warm
Gentle Lung Inflation
Saturation monitoring for careful oxygen control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR scoring meaning

A

Appearance - skin colour
Pulse
Grimace - Reflex irritability
Activity - Muscle tone
Respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Appearance - Score of 0

A

Blue or Pale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Appearance - Score of 1

A

Blue in extremities but pink in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Appearance - Score of 2

A

No cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Pulse - Score of 0

A

Absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Pulse - Score of 1

A

<100 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Pulse - Score of 2

A

> 100 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Grimace - Score of 0

A

No response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Grimace - Score of 1

A

Grimace or feeble cry when stimulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Grimace - Score of 2

A

Cries or pulls away when stimulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Activity - Score of 0

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Activity - Score of 1

A

Some flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Activity - Score of 2

A

Flexed arms and legs that resist extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Respiration - Score of 0

A

Absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Respiration - Score of 1

A

Weak and irregular gasping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The Sick Term Infant: APGAR Respiration - Score of 2

A

Strong cry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Examples of respiratory problems (3)

A

TTN - Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Pneumothorax
Congenital Respiratory Disease - Tracheo-oesophageal fistula or Diaphragmatic hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Examples of cardiac problems (3)

A

Hydrops foetalis - due to rhesus disease or chromosomal abnormalities
PPHN - Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
Congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Examples of Congenital Heart Disease (5)

A

Tetralogy of Fallot
Transposition of the Great Arteries
Coarctation of the Aorta
TAPVD - Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Drainage
Hypoplastic heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Examples of Neurological Disease (3)

A

Hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy
Microcephaly
Spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Example of a Renal Disease

A

Potters Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Main two causes of bacterial infection in neonates (2)

A

Group B Streptococcus
E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Syphilis - Causative organism

A

Treponema Pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Syphilis - Highest risk

A

Mothers infected within the last two years - early stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Syphilis - Clinical Presentation (4)

A

Bone abnormalities
Anaemia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Syphilis - How to reduce risk to neonate?

A

Treat 30 days prior to delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Respiratory Distress Syndrome - Presentation (4)

A

Tachypnoea
Recession
Grunting
Blue - Cyanosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Respiratory Distress Syndrome - Investigation and result

A

CXR - ground glass with air bronchograms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn - Most at risk

A

Infants delivered by C-section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn - How is lung fluid cleared in the normal neonate?

A

Active epithelial Sodium Channels pump it into the interstitium and then into the lymphatic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn - Investigations and result

A

CXR - fluid in the lungs within the horizontal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn - Management

A

Resolves within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Pneumothorax - Aetiologies (4)

A

Meconium
Infection
Resuscitation
Surfactant deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Pneumothorax - Management

A

Pig tail chest drains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome - Pathophysiology

A

Foetus inhales liquor with meconium in it, leading to airway obstruction, inflammation and surfactant dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome - Complications (2)

A

Asphyxia
Persistent pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy - Pathophysiology

A

Multi-organ damage due to tissue hypoxia - in the brains, kidneys, liver and gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy - Primary aetiologies (3)

A

Placental failure
Cord prolapse
Uterine rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cyanosed babies with congenital heart disease are often not responsive to what?

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bilious Vomiting

A

Green vomit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Hypoglycaemia - Aetiologies (3)

A

Low birth weight or small for gestational age
Maternal Disease - Diabetes
Mother on Labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Inborn Errors of Metabolism - Presentation (3)

A

Acidosis
Hypoglycaemia
Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The Sick Term Infant: Pathophysiology of Potters Syndrome

A

Lack of amniotic fluid leads to kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Vital Signs: Heart rate normal

A

120-140 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Vital Signs: Perfusion normal

A

Capillary refill of 2-3 seconds with >95% oxygen saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Vital Signs: Respiratory Rate Normal

A

40-60 per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Infection: Main three antibiotics used

A

Benzylpenicillin
Gentamicin
Cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Infection: Main three antibiotics used

A

Benzylpenicillin
Gentamicine
Cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cover of Benzylpenicillin

A

Gram positive and negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cover of Gentamicin

A

Gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cover of Cefotaxime

A

Gram positive and negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Neonatal Sepsis: Early Onset is mainly due to what? (2)

A

Bacteria acquired before or during delivery - Group B Streptococcus or Gram Negative Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Neonatal Sepsis: Late Onset is mainly due to what? (3)

A

Noscomial or Community Sources - Coagulase Negative Staphylococci, Gram Negative Bacteria or Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Neonatal Sepsis: Symptoms (4)

A

Fever
Reduced tone and activity
Poor feeding
Vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Neonatal Sepsis: Signs - Respiratory (2)

A

Respiratory distress or apnoea
Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Neonatal Sepsis: Signs - Cardiovascular

A

Tachycardia or Bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Neonatal Sepsis: Signs - Gastrointestinal (2)

A

Jaundice - within 24 hours
Hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Neonatal Sepsis: Signs - Neurological

A

Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Neonatal Sepsis: Five Stages to Management (5)

A

Give high flow oxygen
Obtain IV access to take blood tests - cultures, glucose and lactate analysis
Give IV or IO antibiotics - broad spectrum
Fluid resuscitation
Consider Inotropic Support with Adenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Neonatal Sepsis: Management - Fluid Resuscitation

A

20ml/kg isotonic fluid over 5-10 minutes
Assess for fluid overload after 40ml/kg fluids and titrate further if no signs of overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Neonatal Sepsis: Management - Adrenaline Dose

A

Administer with 3rd fluid bolus - 0.3mg/kg in 50ml 5% dextrose 1ml/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Anatomical Differences: Head (2)

A

Large head
Prominent occiput

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Anatomical Differences: Ratios

A

Large Surface Area:Volume Ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Anatomical Differences: URTI (2)

A

High anterior larynx
Floppy epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Anatomical Differences: Ribs

A

More flexible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Anatomical Differences: Blood volume

A

80ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Anatomical Differences: Haemoglobin

A

HbF at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Anatomical Differences: Over time what trend is seen with HR?

A

Reduces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Anatomical Differences: Over time what trend is seen with RR?

A

Reduces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Anatomical Differences: Over time what trend is seen with Systolic Blood pressure?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Bronchiolitis

A

Acute inflammatory injury to the bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Bronchiolitis: Causative organism

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Medical word for Croup

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Croup: Most common causative organism

A

Parainfluenza Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Croup: Clinical presentation

A

Stridor - due to ~70% of airway impacted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Meningicoccaemia: Causative Organism

A

Neisseria meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Meningicoccaemia: Clinical Presentation

A

Purpura the spreads on the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Respiratory Distress in the Newborn: Most common in what patient group?

A

Infants born before 29 weeks - before the lungs begin producing surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Respiratory Distress in the Newborn: Pathophysiology

A

Inadequate surfactant leads to high surface tension within the alveoli to cause lung collapse and thus inadequate gaseous exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Respiratory Distress in the Newborn: Clinical Presentation (5)

A

Tachypnoea
Grunting
Intercostal recession
Nasal flaring
Cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Respiratory Distress in the Newborn: Management (3)

A

Maternal steroid
Surfactant replacement
Ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Respiratory Distress in the Newborn: Aetiologies - Metabolic (3)

A

Acidosis
Inborn errors of metabolism
Hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Respiratory Distress in the Newborn: Aetiologies - Haematological (3)

A

Polycythaemia
Blood loss
Anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Respiratory Distress in the Newborn: Aetiologies - Neurological (3)

A

Seizures
Intra-cranial bleed
Withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Hypochondroplasia: Clinical Presentation - Neurological (2)

A

Severe neonatal seizures
Temporal lobe epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Hypochondroplasia: Clinical Presentation - General (4)

A

Short stature
Bossed prominent forehead
Short triangular fingers
Rhizomelic limb shortening of the femurs and humeri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Hypochondroplasia: Genetic Mutation

A

FGFR3 - c.1620C>A or p.Asn540Lys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Hypochondroplasia: Example of Management

A

Vosoritide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Russell Silver Syndrome: Genetic mutation mechanisms (3)

A

Methylation on C bases just before G bases
Imprinting
UPD 7 mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Russell Silver Syndrome: Management

A

Growth Hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Russell Silver Syndrome: Clinical Presentation - Gastrointestinal (3)

A

Vomiting - due to Reflux
Poor weight gain
Poor Appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Russell Silver Syndrome: Clinical Presentation - General features (2)

A

Short stature
Elfin features - triangular face with ears that stick out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Turners Syndrome: General features (7)

A

Short and wide neck - due to cystic hygroma
Low hairline
Teeth probelms
Broad chest with wide spaced nipples
Short fourth finger or toe
Low weight
Short stature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder

A

Markedly disturbed and developmentally inappropriate social relatedness that begins before the age of 5 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Main Aetiologies (3)

A

Persistent disregard for the child’s emotional needs for comfort, stimulation and affection
Persistent disregard for child’s physical needs
Repeated changes for primary caregivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Risk Factors

A

Adverse childhood experiences - Abuse, Neglect or Household dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: More common in what children?

A

Children orphaned at a young age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: What are the subtypes? (2)

A

Inhibited
Disinhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Inhibited Subtype

A

Children who continually fail to initiate and respond to social interactions in a developmentally appropriate way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Inhibited Subtype - Interactions characterised by what? (4)

A

Avoidance
Resistance to comfort
Hyper-vigilance
Ambivalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Disinhibited Subtype

A

A child with an inability to display appropriate selective attachments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Disinhibited Subtype - How is this displayed?

A

Displays excessive familiarity with strangers or lack of selectivity in their choices of an attachment figure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Clinical Presentation - Signs in Relationships (4)

A

Neglectful behaviour by the primary caregiver
Lack of smiling or responsiveness from the baby or child
Lack of distress in situations that should cause distress
Excessive friendliness to healthcare workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Clinical Presentation - Common Co-morbidities (3)

A

Emotional Disorders
ADHD
Behavioural Disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Diagnosis - 1-2 Years

A

Strange Situation Procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Diagnosis - 2-4 Years

A

Modified Strange Situation Procedure

108
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Diagnosis - 1-4 Years

A

Attachment Q-sort - children observed in a number of set environments

109
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Diagnosis - 4-7 Years

A

Story Stem Attachment Profile - use toys or verbally communicate stories

110
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Diagnosis - 7-15 Years

A

Child Attachment Interview

111
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Diagnosis - 15+ Years

A

Adult Attachment Interview

112
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Management - Pre-school (3)

A

Parental sensitivity and behaviour therapy
Home visiting programmes
Parent-child Psychotherapy

113
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Management - School Age (4)

A

Parental sensitivity and behavioural training
Group play sessions
Group-based educational sessions for caregivers and children
Trauma-Based Behavioural Therapy

114
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder: Complications if not Managed (3)

A

Developmental delay
Reduction in academic achievement
Increased risk of contact with youth justice

115
Q

Conduct Disorder

A

Repetitive and persistent pattern of behaviour in which the rights of others or major age-appropriate norms or rules are violated

116
Q

Conduct Disorder: Name in younger children

A

Oppositional Defiant Disorder

117
Q

Conduct Disorder: Aetiologies - Examples of Brain Injury (2)

A

Intrauterine trauma
Post-natal CNS trauma

118
Q

Conduct Disorder: Aetiologies - Family Circumstances (4)

A

Families with parents with mental illness
Drug and alcohol concerns
Domestic violence
Single parent families

119
Q

Conduct Disorder: Aetiologies - Parenting Style (4)

A

Lack of house rules
Lack of clarity on how a child should behave
Lack of supervision
Lack of techniques to deal with crises

120
Q

Conduct Disorder: Subtypes - Mild to Moderate

A

Restricted to the Family Environment

121
Q

Conduct Disorder: Subtypes - Severe two types

A

Unsocialised - predominantly violent behaviour

Socialised - anti-social acts or better ability to avoid getting involved with criminal justice system

122
Q

Conduct Disorder: Diagnosis

A

Presence of a3+ of the following criteria within 12 months and 1 in the last 6 months:
- Aggression towards people or animals
- Destruction of property
- Deceitfulness or theft
- Serious violations of rules

123
Q

Conduct Disorder: Clinical Presentation - Triad

A

Inattention
Hyperactivity
Impulsivity

124
Q

Conduct Disorder: Management - Under 11 years old

A

Parent or Foster parent training

125
Q

Conduct Disorder: Management - Aged between 9 and 14 years

A

Child-focused programmes

126
Q

Conduct Disorder: Management - Aged between 11 and 17 years

A

Multi-modal interventions

127
Q

Conduct Disorder: Management - Pharmacological main drug of choice

A

Risperidone - atypical anti-psychotic

128
Q

Conduct Disorder: Management - If co-existing ADHD

A

Stimulant medication

129
Q

Conduct Disorder: Management - If co-existing depression

A

SSRIs

130
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Genetic Involvement

A

Deletion on the paternal chromosome 15 or complete loss of parental chromosome 15 causes uniparental maternal disomy

131
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Presentation at Birth (3)

A

Hypotonia - floppy
Unable to suck or reduced ability - tube feeding is common
Hyperphagia - food seeking and lack of satiety

132
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Facial Features

A

Small hands and feet with almond shaped eyes with a narrow face and high-arched palate

133
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Stature

A

Short

134
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Later stage features (2)

A

Developmental delay
Failure to thrive in infancy

135
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Dysregulation in what region is present?

A

Hypothalamus

136
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Endocrine features (3)

A

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
Cortisol deficiency
GH deficiency

137
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Indications for Paediatric Review (3)

A

Obesity-related morbidity that requires weight loss - Intra-cranial hypertension, Sleep Apnoea or Orthopaedic problems
Suspected underlying cause of obesity
Children under 24 months that are >99.6th centile

138
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Pharmaceutical Options for Obesity (2)

A

Orlistat
Saxenda

139
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Surgical Options (3)

A

Laparoscopic Adjustable Gastric Banding
Roux-en-Y Gastric Bypass
Laparoscopic Sleeve Gastrectomy

140
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome: Indications for surgery

A

Post-pubertal adolescents with severe to extreme obesity with severe co-morbidities

141
Q

Bardet-Biedl Syndrome: Genetic Pathophysiology

A

Autosomal recessive disease affecting the proteins of the cilia basal body to prevent intercellular sensing

142
Q

Bardet-Biedl Syndrome: Clinical Presentation (6)

A

Obesity
Neurocognitive Delay
Syn- or Polydactyly
Retinal dystrophy or pigmentary retinopathy
Hypogonadism
Renal dysfunction

143
Q

Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome

A

Withdrawal symptoms that happens in neonates of mothers that used substances in pregnancy

144
Q

Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome: Related Substances (6)

A

Opiates
Methadone
Benzodiazepines
Cocaine
Alcohol
Amphetamines

145
Q

Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome: Neurological Symptoms (3)

A

Irritability
Tremors
Seizures

146
Q

Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome: Vasomotor and Respiratory Symptoms (3)

A

Sweating
Unstable temperature
Tachypnoea

147
Q

Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome: Metabolic and GI Symptoms (3)

A

Poor feeding
Regurgitation
Hypoglycaemia

148
Q

Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome: Monitoring time

A

3 days of NAS chart

149
Q

Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome: Monitoring time for SSRI anti-depressants

A

48 hours of NAS chart

150
Q

Birth Asphyxia

A

Baby does not receive enough oxygen before, during or after birth

151
Q

Birth Asphyxia: Aetiologies (4)

A

Maternal shock
Intrapartum haemorrhage
Prolapsed cord
Nuchal cord - wrapped around the neck of the baby

152
Q

Birth Asphyxia: Main complication

A

Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy

153
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

Abnormal CSF build up within the brain and spinal cord

154
Q

Hydrocephalus: Clinical Presentation (5)

A

Enlarged and rapidly increasing head circumference
Bulging anterior fontanelle
Poor feeding with vomiting
Poor tone
Sleepiness

155
Q

Hydrocephalus: Management

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

156
Q

Necrotising Enterocolitis

A

Disorder affecting premature neonates in which part of the bowel becomes necrotic

157
Q

Necrotising Enterocolitis: Aetiology

A

Intestinal injury to the immature gut causing perforation e.g. fed too early

158
Q

Necrotising Enterocolitis: Clinical Presentation (5)

A

Intolerance to feeds
Vomiting - green bilous vomit
Distended tender abdomen
Absent bowel signs
Blood in stools

159
Q

Necrotising Enterocolitis: Diagnosis - What test is used?

A

Abdominal X-ray

160
Q

Necrotising Enterocolitis: Diagnosis - Presentation on AXR (4)

A

Dilated loops of bowel
Bowel wall oedema
Gas within the bowel wall
Gas in the pertioneal cavity - indicates perforation

161
Q

Pneumoperitoneum

A

Gas within the peritoneal cavity

162
Q

Necrotising Enterocolitis: Management (3)

A

NBM
Clindamycin and Cefotaxime
Urgent referral to surgery

163
Q

Intraventricular Haemorrhage

A

Bleeding into the ventricles within the brain

164
Q

Intraventricular Haemorrhage: Most common type

A

Germinal Matrix Subtype

165
Q

Intraventricular Haemorrhage: When does risk reduce and why?

A

35-36 weeks gestation - as the germinal matrix has disappeared by then

166
Q

Jejunal Atresia

A

Congenital Anomaly characterised by obliteration of the lumen of the jejunum in that it is not connected to the large intestine

167
Q

Jejunal Atresia: Clinical Presentation

A

Abdominal distension and bilious vomiting within the first 24 hours of birth

168
Q

Jejunal Atresia: Diagnostic approach

A

Abdominal X-ray

169
Q

Jejunal Atresia: Management

A

Surgical correction

170
Q

Malrotation

A

Congenital anatomical anomaly that results from an abnormal rotation of the gut as it returns to the abdominal cavity during embryogenesis

171
Q

Malrotation: Clinical Presentation

A

Mid gut volvulus - presenting with bilious green vomiting mainly within the first month of life

172
Q

Malrotation: Diagnostic Test

A

Upper GI contrast test

173
Q

Malrotation: Management

A

Surgical correction

174
Q

Meconium Ileus

A

Bowel obstruction of the neonate due to thick and impacted meconium

175
Q

Meconium Ileus: Main aetiology

A

Cystic Fibrosis

176
Q

Meconium Ileus: Main diagnostic test

A

X-ray

177
Q

Inguinal Hernia

A

Weakness in the muscle around the groin resulting in a loop of bowel bulging through

178
Q

Cerebral Palsy

A

Permanent neurological problems resulting from damage to the brain near birth

179
Q

Cerebral Palsy: Aetiologies - Antenatal (2)

A

Maternal infections
Trauma during pregnancy

180
Q

Cerebral Palsy: Aetiologies - Peri-natal (2)

A

Birth Asphyxia
Pre-term Birth

181
Q

Cerebral Palsy: Aetiologies - Post-natal (3)

A

Meningitis
Severe neonatal jaundice
Head injury

182
Q

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

A

Genetic disease causing muscular weakness and wasting

183
Q

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy: Genetic Pathophysiology

A

X-linked recessive mutation of dystrophin gene on the X-chromosome

184
Q

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy: Clinical presentation

A

Progressive weakness in the muscles around the pelvis of boys at around 3-5 years old

185
Q

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy: What sign is significant?

A

Gower’s Sign - Children with proximal muscle weakness use knees to stand up

186
Q

Bronchiolitis

A

Acute inflammatory injury of the bronchioles

187
Q

Bronchiolitis: Most common cause

A

RSV

188
Q

Bronchiolitis: Most common age

A

<6 months old

189
Q

Bronchiolitis: Clinical Presentation - Signs on auscultation

A

Wheeze and crackles

190
Q

Bronchiolitis: Clinical Presentation - Viral URTI symptoms (4)

A

Running or snotty nose
Sneezing
Mucous within the throat
Watery eyes

191
Q

Croup: Clinical Presentation (4)

A

Barking cough
Increased work of breathing
Hoarse voice
Stridor

192
Q

Croup: Management - First stage

A

Oral Dexamethasone

193
Q

Croup: Management - Second stage

A

IM Dexamethasone or Nebulised Budesonide

194
Q

Croup: Management - Third Stage

A

Oxygen

195
Q

Croup: Management - Fourth Stage

A

Nebulised adrenaline

196
Q

Croup: Management - Fifth Stage

A

Intubation and ventilation

197
Q

Most common heart rhythm disturbance in children

A

Supraventricular Tachycardia

198
Q

SVT

A

Supraventricular Tachycardia

199
Q

SVT: Pathophysiology

A

Abnormally fast heart rhythm arising from inappropriate electrical activity in the upper part of the heart

200
Q

SVT: 4 types

A

Atrial fibrillation
Paroxysmal SVT
Atrial flutter
Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome

201
Q

Infective Endocarditis: Most common causative organism in paediatrics (2)

A

Gram positive bacteria
Viridans group

202
Q

Main causes of Gastroenteritis in children? (2)

A

Rotavirus
Norovirus

203
Q

Congenital Pyloric Stenosis

A

Narrowing of the opening from the stomach to the first part of the small intestine

204
Q

Congenital Pyloric Stenosis: Clinical Presentation - Symptoms (2)

A

Projectile vomiting without the presence of bile (milk in vomit) after feeding
Keen to feed

205
Q

Congenital Pyloric Stenosis: Clinical Presentation - Typical age of symptoms

A

2-12 weeks old

206
Q

Congenital Pyloric Stenosis: Clinical Presentation - Signs (3)

A

Signs of dehydration
Peristalsis across the abdomen
Abdominal mass may be present - olive-like structure at the top right of the abdomen

207
Q

Congenital Pyloric Stenosis: Main Diagnostic Test

A

US scan of the upper abdomen

208
Q

Congenital Pyloric Stenosis: Management

A

Pyloromyotomy

209
Q

Congenital Pyloric Stenosis: Complications

A

Metabolic imbalance leading to metabolic acidosis

210
Q

Volvulus

A

Loop of intestine twists around itself and the mesentery supporting it, resulting in bowel obstruction

211
Q

Volvulus: Congenital intestinal malrotation increases the risk of what?

A

Midgut volvulus

212
Q

Volvulus: What increases the risk of segmental volvulus?

A

Meconium ileus

213
Q

Volvulus: Clinical Presentation (4)

A

Abdominal pain and bloating
Vomiting bile
Constipation
Bloody stool

214
Q

Volvulus: Diagnostic test

A

Abdominal X-Ray

215
Q

Intussusception

A

Bowel invaginates into itself, narrowing the lumen which results in a palpable mass in the abdomen and obstruction to the passage of faeces through the bowel

216
Q

Intussusception: Symptoms (3)

A

Severe colicky abdominal pain
Lethargy
Vomiting

217
Q

Intussusception: Signs (3)

A

Signs of dehydration
Redcurrant Jelly stool
Right upper quadrant mass

218
Q

Intussusception: Diagnostic test and result

A

USS - Shows a target sign

219
Q

Intussusception: Management - First line

A

Air reduction

220
Q

Intussusception: Management - Second line

A

Surgical reduction

221
Q

Intussusception: Characteristic symptom

A

Cycle of pain and then goes limp

222
Q

Appendicitis

A

Inflammation of the appendix

223
Q

Appendicitis: Classic Clinical Presentation

A

Abdominal pain that starts as central abdominal pain and migrates to the right iliac fossa over time

224
Q

Appendicitis: Signs - Tenderness is located where?

A

McBurney’s Point

225
Q

Appendicitis: Signs - What result is shown on Rosving’s Test?

A

Palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain in the right iliac fossa

226
Q

Appendicitis: Management

A

Appendicectomy

227
Q

Urinary Tract Infection: More common in what sex?

A

Females

228
Q

Urinary Tract Infection: Diagnostic Test

A

Urine sample with microbiology

229
Q

Urinary Tract Infection: Management - Children <3 months with a fever

A

Immediate IV antibiotics

230
Q

Urinary Tract Infection: Management - Children with features of sepsis or pyelonephritis

A

IV antibiotics

231
Q

3 Causes of Acute Scrotal Pain (3)

A

Torsion of testicle
Epididymoorchitis
Hydatid of Morgagni - Torsion of the appendix testes

232
Q

Torsion of Testicles

A

Testicle rotates to twist the spermatic cord that is responsible for bringing blood to the scrotum

233
Q

Torsion of Testicles: Management

A

Surgical correction

234
Q

Epididymoorchitis

A

Acute bacterial infection of the epididymis involving the testis that occurs as a result of retrograde bacterial colonisation via the ejaculatory ducts and vas deferens

235
Q

Hydatid of Morgagni

A

Appendix testis is located at the upper pole of the testes between the testis and head of the epididymis

236
Q

Hydrocele

A

Collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis that surrounds the testes

237
Q

Hydrocele: Clinical presentation

A

Soft, smooth non-tender swelling around one of the testes

238
Q

Hydrocele: Presentation on exmaination with pen torch

A

Transilluminate

239
Q

Hydrocele: Management - Simple Hydrocele

A

Resolves within 2 years

240
Q

Hydrocele: Simple Hydrocele definition

A

Has no connection with the peritoneal cavity

241
Q

Hydrocele: Management - Communicating Hydrocele

A

Surgical correction

242
Q

Hydrocele: Communicating Hydrocele definition

A

Connects with the peritoneal cavity

243
Q

Undescended Testes

A

Testes have not descended through the abdomen by birth

244
Q

Undescended Testes: Clinical presentation

A

Empty scrotum

245
Q

Undescended Testes: Management

A

Watch and wait for first 6 months - surgically correct between 6-12 months if not descended

246
Q

Normal Physiological Non-Retractability

A

The prepuce (foreskin) is attached to the glans with a tight opening (preputial ring) - this is not retractable in most newborns

247
Q

Bxo Balantis Xerotica Obliterans

A

Chronic inflammatory process that affects the foreskin - and can extend to the glans and external urethral meatus

248
Q

Bxo Balantis Xerotica Obliterans: Presentation

A

Keratinisation of the tip of the foreskin causes scarring and non-retractile foreskin

249
Q

Bxo Balantis Xerotica Obliterans: Management

A

Circumcision

250
Q

Paraphimosis

A

Foreskin cannot be returned to its original position after being retracted

251
Q

Paraphimosis: Conservative Management

A

Manual reduction following application of a local anaesthetic

252
Q

Hypospadias

A

Congenital defect causing the urethral meatus to be located at an abnormal site - normally on the under side of the penis

253
Q

Encephalitis

A

Inflammation of the brain

254
Q

Encephalitis: Most common cause

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

255
Q

Encephalitis: Diagnostic tests (2)

A

Lumbar puncture
Imaging

256
Q

Meningitis

A

Inflammation of the meninges of the brain and spinal cord

257
Q

Meningitis: Bacterial causes in children (2)

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae

258
Q

Meningitis: Bacterial causes in neonates

A

Group B Streptococcus

259
Q

Meningitis: Viral Causes (3)

A

Herpes Simplex Virus
Enterovirus
Varicella Zoster Virus

260
Q

Meningitis: Diagnostic test

A

Lumbar puncture

261
Q

Meningitis: Management - <3 months

A

Cefotaxime + Amoxicillin

262
Q

Meningitis: Management - >3 months

A

Cefotaxime followed 6 hours later with Ceftriaxone

263
Q

Meningitis: Management - Can combine with what?

A

Dexamethasone

264
Q

Down Syndrome: Genetic Pathophysiology

A

Trisomy 21 - three copies of chromosome 21

265
Q

Down Syndrome: Distinctive Facial Features (4)

A

Prominent tongue
Flattened face and nose
Prominent epicanthic folds
Brushfield spots - speckled iris

266
Q

Down Syndrome: General features (4)

A

Hypotonia
Short neck
Short stature
Brachycephaly - small head with a flat back

Child Health (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions