Discounted Cash Flow Questions - Basic Flashcards
Walk me through a DCF.
A DCF values a company based on the Present Value of its Cash Flows and the Present Value of its Terminal Value. First, you project out a company’s financials using assumptions for revenue growth, expenses and Working Capital; then you get down to Free Cash Flow for each year, which you then sum up and discount to a Net Present Value, based on your discount rate – usually the Weighted Average Cost of Capital. Once you have the present value of the Cash Flows, you determine the company’s Terminal Value, using either the Multiples Method or the Gordon Growth Method, and then also discount that back to its Net Present Value using WACC. Finally, you add the two together to determine the company’s Enterprise Value.
Walk me through how you get from Revenue to Free Cash Flow in the projections.
- Subtract COGS and Operating Expenses to get to Operating Income (EBIT). Then, multiply by (1 – Tax Rate), add back Depreciation and other non-cash charges, and subtract Capital Expenditures and the change in Working Capital.
- Note: The answer above gets you Unlevered Free Cash Flow. Clarify whether this is what they’re asking for. For Levered Free Cash Flow, you use EBT and follow the same steps, except you subtract debt repayments at the end.
What’s an alternate way to calculate Free Cash Flow aside from taking Net Income, adding back Depreciation, and subtracting Changes in Operating Assets / Liabilities and CapEx?
Take Cash Flow From Operations and subtract CapEx – that gets you to Levered Cash Flow. To get to Unlevered Cash Flow, you then need to add back the tax-adjusted Interest Expense and subtract the tax-adjusted Interest Income.
Why do you use 5 or 10 years for DCF projections?
5 to 10 years is industry standard. Anything above 10 years would be too difficult to reasonably predict and anything below 5 years would be too short to be useful.
What do you usually use for the discount rate?
Normally you would use WACC (Weighted Average Cost of Capital), though when creating a Levered DCF, you might want to use Cost of Equity since you’re only valuing the cash flows available to equity investors.
How do you calculate WACC?
The formula is: Percentage of Equity x Cost of Equity + Percentage of Debt x Cost of Debt x (1 - Tax Rate).
1. The percentages refer to how much of the company’s capital structure is taken up by each component.
2. Cost of Preferred x Percentage of Preferred should be included when a company has preferred stock in its capital structure.
How do you calculate the Cost of Equity?
Cost of Equity = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * Equity Risk Premium.
How do you get to Beta in the Cost of Equity calculation?
You look up the Beta for each Comparable Company (usually on Bloomberg), un-lever each one, take the median of the set and then lever it based on your company’s capital structure. Then you use this Levered Beta in the Cost of Equity calculation.
Why do you have to un-lever and re-lever Beta?
When looking up Betas, they are typically levered to reflect the debt already assumed by each company. We need the unlevered Beta because each company’s capital structure is different, and we want to assess how risky a company is regardless of its debt or equity mix. After calculating the average unlevered Beta, we re-lever it to reflect the true risk of our company, taking into account its specific capital structure.
Would you expect a manufacturing company or a technology company to have a higher Beta?
A technology company, because technology is a riskier industry than manufacturing.
Let’s say that you use Levered Free Cash Flow rather than Unlevered Free Cash Flow in your DCF – what is the effect?
Levered Free Cash Flow gives you Equity Value rather than Enterprise Value, since the cash flow is only available to equity investors.
If you use Levered Free Cash Flow, what should you use as the Discount Rate?
You would use the Cost of Equity rather than WACC since we’re not concerned with Debt or Preferred Stock in this case – we’re calculating Equity Value, not Enterprise Value.
How do you calculate the Terminal Value?
You can use one of two methods. Either the Multiples Method where you apply an exit multiple to the company’s Year 5 EBIT, EBITDA, or Free Cash Flow or you can use the Gordon Growth Method where you estimate its value based on its growth rate into perpetuity. The formula is: Year 5 Free Cash Flow * (1 + Growth Rate) / (Discount Rate – Growth Rate).
Why would you use Gordon Growth rather than the Multiples Method to calculate the Terminal Value?
You typically use the Multiples Method to calculate Terminal Value because it’s easier to obtain appropriate data for exit multiples, which are based on Comparable Companies. In contrast, choosing a long-term growth rate is less reliable. However, there are cases where the Gordon Growth Method might be preferable. If there are no good Comparable Companies or if you believe multiples will change significantly in the future, using long-term growth rates may be a better option than relying on exit multiples.
What’s an appropriate growth rate to use when calculating the Terminal Value?
Typically you’d use the country’s long-term GDP growth rate, the rate of inflation, or something similarly conservative.