Disability Study Deck Flashcards
- A disability buy-out agreement should be drawn up by:
a. the business owners themselves.
b. an attorney familiar with disability buy-sell agreements
c. the business owners and their families coordinated by the insurance advisor
d. Correct answer is B
e. the insurance advisor using a company prototype
b. an attorney familiar with disability buy-sell agreements
- A disabled person returns to work. Four months later the same illness makes her unable to work again. This is known as a:
a. contingent disability
b. concurrent disability
c. presumed disability
d. recurrent disability
d. recurrent disability
- According to the text, the best way to sell disability income insurance is to stress:
a. the strength of the company
b. the features of the policy
c. efficiency of the claims process
d. the needs of the prospect
d. the needs of the prospect
- An advantage of funding a salary continuation plan with disability income insurance is that it:
a. does not have to meet ERISA reporting requirements
b. assures that funds will be available when needed
c. provides the employee with benefits free of income taxation
d. will be approved automatically by the Department of Labor
b. assures that funds will be available when needed
- An advisor’s chief connection to the home office underwriting department is:
a. the Attending Physician’s Statement
b. a formal cover letter
c. copies of the applicant’s tax forms
d. the application
d. the application
- As an advisor,
a. you have a responsibility to get the desired insurance issued for your clients
b. you become a professional by following your company’s rules
c. you only to report facts that you deem relevant to your company’s underwriters
d. you have a clear, contractual responsibility to the company you represent.
d. you have a clear, contractual responsibility to the company you represent.
- An Attending Physician’s Statement (APS):
a. is provided by the applicant
b. is required for every disability application
c. verifies an applicant’s medical information
d. provides a second opinion on the nature of a disability
c. verifies an applicant’s medical information
- An occupation classification that may be uninsurable for disability coverage is:
a. attorney
b. computer network administrator
c. orthopedic surgeon
d. air traffic controller
d. air traffic controller
- Benefits under Workers Compensation plans:
a. cover only work-related accidents
b. vary widely from state to state
c. are available in only a few states
d. vary widely from state to state
e. cover all illnesses and injuries
f. vary widely from state to state
unknown
- Disability income insurance is appropriate coverage:
a. only for professional people with high income
b. for all people who depend on earned income
c. for people with no health problems, but not for others
d. only for people who already have sufficient life insurance since death is a greater threat
b. for all people who depend on earned income
- Earned income for sole proprietors is defined as:
a. salary
b. gross revenue minus normal business expenses
c. gross earnings
d. salary plus bonuses and commissions
b. gross revenue minus normal business expenses
- Generally, if an applicant pays the first premium at the time of application, he or she will be:
a. fully covered immediately
b. fully covered if he or she is eligible for coverage on the date the premium was paid
c. not covered until the policy is delivered
d. fully covered as soon as underwriting is completed and the policy is issued
b.fully covered if he or she is eligible for coverage on the date the premium was paid
- Generally, if policy provisions are in conflict with the laws of the state where the insured resides, the:
a. policy provisions will be honored
b. policy is automatically amended to conform to the law’s minimum provision
c. insured will have to sue to receive benefits
d. policy is null and void
b. policy is automatically amended to conform to the law’s minimum provision
- In a presumptive disability, benefits are paid:
a. only as long as the insured is under a doctor’s care
b. for the length of the benefit period in the basic policy
c. until the insured returns to work
d. until the insured returns to work in his or her regular occupation
b. for the length of the benefit period in the basic policy
- When an individual D. I. insurance premium that insures an employee and is owned by that employee and the payment is split between the employer and the employee
a. the entire benefit is subject to income taxation
b. the benefit attributed to the employee-paid premium is received income tax free
c. the entire benefit is received income tax free
d. only the benefit attributed to the employer is received free of income tax
b. the benefit attributed to the employee-paid premium is received income tax free
- In most group LTD policies, overtime pay and occasional bonuses are:
a. covered by the benefit amount
b. excluded from a computation of benefits
c. paid by the employer in addition to any benefits received
d. covered by a special overtime rider
b. excluded from a computation of benefits
- In regard to sick pay plans, ad hoc plans:
a. are not tax deductible to the employer and are taxable to the employee
b. can only make payments for 30 days
c. apply only to highly compensated employees
d. must apply to all employees.
a. are not tax deductible to the employer and are taxable to the employee
- In underwriting an application, if a person owns a rental property managed by a realty company, the income from that property will be:
a. treated as earned income
b. treated as unearned income
c. ignored
d. added to earned income
b. treated as unearned income
- In underwriting disability income coverage, employment stability is:
a. a minor factor since people change jobs frequently
b. a vital factor in issuing the policy
c. less important than in life insurance underwriting
d. a factor of the occupational classification system
b. a vital factor in issuing the policy
- In which of the following types of disability coverage can the scheduled premium not be changed?
a. Annually renewable policies.
b. Guaranteed renewable policies.
c. Noncancelable policies.
d. Provisionally renewable policies.
c. Noncancelable policies.
- Information about other disability insurance coverage is important in the underwriting process to:
a. replace existing coverage
b. identify potential group sales
c. avoid overinsurance
d. determine insurability
c. avoid overinsurance
- A conversion to long-term care insurance coverage option in an individual D. I. insurance policy
a. allows the insured to convert the D. I. insurance coverage at any age
b. does not require the insured to furnish evidence of insurability to the insurance company
c. allows the insured to convert the policy on an original-age basis
d. allows for less limited benefits than are typically found in most stand-alone long-term care insurance policies
b. does not require the insured to furnish evidence of insurability to the insurance company
- Notice of a disability income claim must be submitted to the insurer
a. only in writing
b. typically within 20 days after the occurrence
c. through an attorney
d. to the advisor
b. typically within 20 days after the occurrence
- Pre-existing conditions that are disclosed on the application:
a. will automatically be excluded from coverage
b. cannot be excluded from coverage
c. are often covered after 24 months
d. will automatically lead to an increase in premium
c. are often covered after 24 months
- Premiums paid for disability income insurance for a sole proprietor:
a. are deductible as a business expense but benefits are subject to income taxation
b. are deductible as a business expense and benefits are received free of income tax
c. are not tax deductible but benefits are received free of income tax
d. are not tax deductible and benefits are subject to income taxation
c. are not tax deductible but benefits are received free of income tax
- Premiums for a business overhead expense policy are:
a. tax deductible only once a disability has occurred
b. deductible as a business expense
c. not deductible as a business expense
d. taxed as ordinary income to the business owner
b. deductible as a business expense
- Premiums for individually owned disability insurance are:
a. income tax deductible, but the benefits are received income tax free
b. not income tax deductible, but the benefits are received income tax free
c. not income tax deductible and the benefits are taxable
d. income tax deductible and the benefits are taxable
b. not income tax deductible, but the benefits are received income tax free
- Social Security’s definition of disability:
a. is the same as most group policies
b. changes if an individual is covered by a personally owned policy
c. is very restrictive making it difficult to qualify for benefits
d. is relatively liberal to make benefits available to the largest number of people
c. is very restrictive making it difficult to qualify for benefits
- The amount of available insurable income from D. I. insurance equals
a. earned income plus unearned income
b. earned income only
c. earned income minus payroll taxes minus unearned income
d. unearned income only
c. earned income minus payroll taxes minus unearned income
- The cost of an executive bonus plan to the executive is:
a. the cost of income and Social Security taxes on the bonus paid for premiums
b. the cost of processing the application
c. nothing since the premium payments are withheld from salary on a pre-tax basis
d. 50% of the premium cost
a. the cost of income and Social Security taxes on the bonus paid for premiums
- The initiation of a buy-out of a disabled owner’s interest in a business within an insured disability buy-out plan is made by:
a. a court referee if the owners cannot agree
b. by the disabled owner when he or she decides not to return to the business
c. by the healthy owners based on the business’s needs
d. at the expiration of the elimination period specified in the disability buyout insurance policy used for funding the agreement
d. at the expiration of the elimination period specified in the disability buyout insurance policy used for funding the agreement
- The definition of disability used in most D. I. insurance policies:
a. is consistent with Social Security’s definition of disability
b. is established by the individual states
c. is defined by the Disability Board of Examiners
d. varies from company to company
d. varies from company to company
- The elimination period of an individually owned policy is:
a. elected by the prospect to meet his or her individual needs
b. always 90 days or less
c. ignored in most policies if the disability is caused by an accident
d. determined by the number of accrued sick days the insured has
a. elected by the prospect to meet his or her individual needs
- The license required to sell disability income insurance is issued by:
a. National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC)
b. National Health Insurance Association (NHIA)
c. Social Security Administration
d. the respective individual state insurance commissions
d. the respective individual state insurance commissions
- The division of the MIB Group, Inc., that exchanges information between its members relevant to the underwriting of D. I. insurance applicants is identified with the initials:
a. HOS
b. AMA
c. DIRS
d. APS
c. DIRS
- The value of a business for the purpose of a disability buyout agreement should be made:
a. without regard to the assets owned or income generated by the business
b. at the time of a claim
c. before one of the owners becomes disabled
d. when all the owners feel it is most appropriate
c. before one of the owners becomes disabled
- The policy feature or rider that guarantees future insurability of a D. I. insured is the:
a. automatic increase option
b. return of premium rider
c. future increase option
d. cost-of-living rider
c. future increase option
- The policy provision that reduces the insured amount by any amount received in Social Security benefits is the:
a. all or nothing provision
b. all, part, or nothing provision
c. social insurance offset provision
d. income reduction provision
c. social insurance offset provision
- The purpose of an inspection report is to:
a. verify applicant information
b. underwrite E & O coverage
c. check on the advisor’s ethics
d. approve the state insurance license
a. verify applicant information
- The residual disability benefit:
a. encourages the worker to return to work
b. is unavailable of the worker returns part time
c. pays partial benefits for presumptive disabilities
d. encourages the worker to remain at home until fully recovered
a. encourages the worker to return to work
- The shorter the benefit provided, the:
a. the higher the premium for the policy
b. less the amount of benefit available
c. greater the amount of coverage available
d. lower the premium for the policy
a. the higher the premium for the policy
- The statistical probability of an individual becoming disabled is measured by the:
a. mortality table
b. probability table
c. morbidity table
d. disability incident table
c. morbidity table
- To be qualified as tax-deductible, a salary continuation plan for selected employees must:
a. be in place before the disability begins
b. replace 60 % of lost income
c. be offered on an ad hoc basis when the need arises
d. be funded by insurance
a. be in place before the disability begins
- In a key employee disability insurance policy, the key employee:
a. is the owner
b. is the premium payer
c. receives the benefits
d. is the insured
d. is the insured
- To renew a noncancelable policy beyond age 65, generally the insured must:
a. show evidence of insurability
b. continue paying the premium with no other requirements
c. be working at least 20 hours a week
d. be working full-time
d. be working full-time
- Exclusion riders or waivers are often used to allow favorable underwriting by excluding:
a. self-inflicted injuries
b. child birth
c. a hazardous occupation
d. pre-existing conditions
d. pre-existing conditions
- When a disability buy-out plan is funded with disability buyout insurance, disability should be defined:
a. in the written agreement
b. by the disability buyout insurance policy
c. in a legal hearing at the time of disability
d. by the healthy owners when one becomes disabled
b. by the disability buyout insurance policy
- When more high risk people buy insurance than low or average risk people, the insurance company experiences:
a. adverse selection
b. a mortality/morbidity ratio
c. reverse selection
d. inverse underwriting
a. adverse selection
- Which of the following is a requirement for a qualified tax-deductible salary continuation plan under IRC Section 105?
a. The plan must be in place before the disability begins
b. The plan must be funded with group disability insurance
c. Equal benefits must be offered to all employees
d. The plan must be approved by the Social Security Administration
a. The plan must be in place before the disability begins
- Which of the following statements is true regarding guaranteed renewable policies?
a. Premiums may be changed on a case by case basis
b. Premiums can be changed only for a class of policies with approval of the state
c. Premiums cannot be changed
d. Premiums cannot be changed as long as the insured meets underwriting standards
b. Premiums can be changed only for a class of policies with approval of the state
- Disability income insurance was developed:
(A) before the development of life insurance.
(B) before the development of property and casualty insurance.
(C) after both life and property and casualty insurance.
(D) during the Great Depression of the 1930s.
(C) after both life and property and casualty insurance.
The definition of “disability” is:
a) standard in all products.
b) one of the hardest insurance perils to define.
c) subject to change according to each disability.
d) changed every 3 years by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.
b) one of the hardest insurance perils to define.
ln providing disability income coverage, an advisor should do which of the following?
a) Offer it only to professional people who have the greatest need for it and have the highest ability to pay for it.
b) Offer it only to prospects who are healthy and have the highest probability of qualifying for the coverage.
c) Uncover the need for Dl insurance and attempt to sell an appropriate product that addresses that need.
d) Offer it only to existing life clients, since they are the people most likely to qualify for it.
c) Uncover the need for Dl insurance and attempt to sell an appropriate product that addresses that need.
Which market would probably need disability income insurance?
a) single people with no dependents
b) single parents
c) two-income families
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
Disability income insurance and medical expense insurance are:
a) often both needed in times of illness or injury.
b) never sold to the same person since duplication of benefits would occur
c) different names for the same kind of insurance coverage.
d) both intended to provide income replacement if the insured is ill or injured
a) often both needed in times of illness or injury.
DI benefits payable under the partial disability benefit provision are
a) based on 50 percent of the policy’s total disability benefit
b) proportional and based on a percentage of lost income
c) unavailable if the insured is working part time
d) payable for the 30-day period after the insured‘s return to work
a) based on 50 percent of the policy’s total disability benefit
The social insurance supplement payment method that provides the insured with a proportionate payment of its face amount depending on what the insured receives from any SSA or other government benefits, and will pay the entire face amount of monthly DI benefits provided under the rider if the insured receives no DI benefits from any social insurance source is known as the
a) dollar-for-dollar offset payment method
b) primary payment method
c) all-or-nothing payment method
d) partial offset payment method
d) partial offset payment method
In determining the amount of monthly disability benefits available to an applicant, the primary focus of DI insurance‘s financial underwriting is
a) earned income minus unearned income
b) unearned income
c) earned income
d) earned income plus unearned income
c) earned income
For sole proprietors and general partners in a partnership, earned income is defined as
a) the gross earnings of the business
b) gross revenues minus his or her pro rata share of normal business operating expenses
c) the maximum issue and participation limits available to business owners
d) the proprietor’s or partner’s salary
b) gross revenues minus his or her pro rata share of normal business operating expenses
- The period of time that an insured must be totally disabled before residual
benefits are payable is known as the
(A) elimination period
(B) qualification period
(C) waiting period
(D) recovery period
(B) qualification period
7. Which of the following statements regarding the income replacement ratio concept is (are) correct?
l. The respective percentage of maximum monthly indemnity that an
insurance company will issue relative to the insured‘s net earned
income is higher at the lower incomes.
II. ‘The respective percentage of maximum monthly indemnity that an
insurance company will issue relative to the insured’s net earned
income is lower at the higher incomes.
(A) I only
(B) Il only
(C) Both l and ll
(D) Neither l nor ll
(C) Both l and ll
8 All of the following are effective techniques for a reputation building strategy
EXCEPT
(A) Join a local organization that will have a positive impact on the
community.
(B) Educate key advisors such as attorneys and CPAs who work with
your target markets.
(C) Advertise in large metropolitan newspapers to reach a high volume of prospects.
(D) Advertise on local radio stations on shows that appeal to your target
market.
(C) Advertise in large metropolitan newspapers to reach a high volume of prospects.
All of the following are examples of unearned income EXCEPT
(A) rental income received by an owner who actively manages the property
(B) alimony received by an ex-spouse as part of a divorce settlement
(C) interest payments received by the owner of a money market account
(D) dividend payments received by the owner of a mutual fund
(A) rental income received by an owner who actively manages the property
Each of the following is a component of an effective telephone approach
strategy EXCEPT
(A) Quote prices over the phone when it is necessary to make the sale.
(B) Establish a system with clear expectations and a game plan for
setting appointments.
(C) Use a DI phone script that will enable you to project a confident
phone personality.
(D) Ask pre-qualification questions before the initial interview.
A) Quote prices over the phone when it is necessary to make the sale.
In which section of the DI fact-finder is the prospect’s premium commitment obtained?
a) the factual section
b) the quantitative section
c) the attitudinal section
d) the feeling section
b) the quantitative section
If in the initial interview you discover that the prospect does not qualify for DI insurance, which of the following statements best describes what you should do?
a) Exit the interview promptly before wasting any more of your time.
b) Immediately call your company’s underwriting department to verify your impression.
c) Pivot to another product that may help to finance his or her DI or financial needs.
d) Recommend that he or she apply for Social Security Disability Income benefits.
c) Pivot to another product that may help to finance his or her DI or financial needs.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of fact-finders in the initial interview is (are) correct?
I. In a dominant need situation, you may preliminarily qualify the prospect using the Disability Income Resources Review form and the DI Prequalification Questionnaire, and then proceed to an abbreviated or modified DI fact-finder or company fact-finder.
II. It is the advisor’s professional and ethical responsibility always to complete every question in a comprehensive DI fact-finder during the initial interview in order to get a complete picture of the prospect’s needs regardless of what they may want.
a) I only
b) ll only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
a) I only
Which of the following statements regarding the risk of disability is/are correct?
I. The average length of a disability for those disabled 3 months or
more is more than 3 years
II. Hypertension, heart disease, stroke, and diabetes are becoming
less likely to cause death, and more likely to cause disability among Americans between ages 45 and 65.
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
c) Both I and II
Which of the following is (are) specific topics that should be addressed in the introductory phase of the initial interview?
I. Establish an agenda
II. Obtain referred leads
a) I only
b) ll only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
a) I only
All the following are less-attractive potential alternative resources to DI insurance for financing a person’s monthly expenses during disability EXCEPT
a) personal financing alternatives
b) Social Security disability income
c) workers’ compensation benefits
d) personally owned DI policy
d) personally owned DI policy
During the “introducing yourself’ to a new prospect segment of the initial interview, you should do all the following EXCEPT
a) Assure the prospect that you stand behind the products you sell.
b) Tout your sales achievements.
c) Let Your Prospect know about your educational achievements.
d) Describe the attributes of the company(ies) you represent
b) Tout your sales achievements.
All of the following are traits that an advisor should exhibit in the initial interview in order to communicate effectively with a prospect EXCEPT
a) active listening
b) empathy and trust
c) authenticity
d) lecturing
d) lecturing
All of the following are prospect social styles EXCEPT
a) amiable
b) consultative
c) driver
d) analytical
b) consultative
All of the following are objectives that should be accomplished by the advisor in the initial interview EXCEPT
a) Establish rapport and credibility.
b) Utilize effective communication techniques.
c) Identify the prospect’s qualifications, financial need, goals, and
concerns.
d) Begin establishing a relationship with the prospect and to make a sale.
d) Begin establishing a relationship with the prospect and to make a sale.
Which of the following statements regarding guaranteed renewable DI insurance policies is correct?
a) The premium cannot be changed.
b) Premiums may be changed unilaterally on an individual contract.
c) Coverage is guaranteed to a specified age as long as premiums are paid.
d) Coverage is guaranteed renewable as long as the insured is employed.
c) Coverage is guaranteed to a specified age as long as premiums are paid.
Which of the following statements regarding a noncancellable provision in a DI insurance policy is correct?
a) Coverage cannot be cancelled by the insuring company if the premiums are paid.
b) Premiums can be raised for a class of insureds.
c) Coverage can be cancelled by the insurer only if a health problem arises.
d) Benefits can be modified by the insurance company based on claims experience.
a) Coverage cannot be cancelled by the insuring company if the premiums are paid.
The effects of inflation are felt most strongly in which of the following DI insurance policies?
a) policies with short-term benefits
b) policies with benefits to age 65 or age 67
c) policies with a cost-effective endorsement
d) group STD policies provided by employers
b) policies with benefits to age 65 or age 67
The future increase option rider found in some DI policies provides:
a) a lengthened benefit period.
b) a shorter elimination period.
c) retroactive benefits for prior claims.
d) guaranteed physical insurability.
d) guaranteed physical insurability