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2021 Detective > Directives > Flashcards

Directives Flashcards

1
Q

Who determines which investigative unit will be responsible for a criminal investigation of an employee?

A

AC of Investigations

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2
Q

A member who is arrested, charged, or becomes aware that they are the subject of a criminal investigation ___ ensure that their ____ ______ or, if unavailable, an __ ____ supervisor is notified __ ___ __ ____ but no later than ___ hours. The appropriate supervisor ___ notify, through channels _________.

A 
shall
direct supervisor
on-duty supervisor
as soon as practical
24
shall
AC of Investigations
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3
Q

Any member who receives a complaint of criminal conduct by another member or has knowledge of any criminal conduct by a member, or has knowledge of any criminal investigation of a member, ___ immediately notify their ___ ______ or any of the following: (4 options)

Supervisor or 4 options shall forward the complaint to the ____________.

A 
shall
shift supervisor
1- Reporting member's Responsibility Unit (RU) Manager
2- Any Assistant Chief
3- IA Captain
4- Independent Police Review (IPR)

Detective Division Commander

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4
Q

Any member who observes criminal conduct by another member has a duty to ____ ______ if ___ and _____. Members ___ immediately notify their supervisor or any individual listed above (RU Manager, Any AC, IA Captain, IPR).

A

reasonably intervene
safe
feasible
shall

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5
Q

Any member who receives a complaint of criminal conduct against a sworn law enforcement employee from another agency or has knowledge of any criminal conduct by a sworn law enforcement employee from another agency, ___ notify their _____ _____ as soon as _____. The immediate supervisor ___ notify the ___________ as soon as practical.

A 
shall
immediate supervisor
practical
shall
Professional Standards Division Commander
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6
Q

With regard to a complaint of criminal conduct by LE from other agency, who shall determine what additional steps are necessary? (e.g notification to the head of other LE agency, assignment of detectives if alleged criminal conduct occurred in Portland)

A

The Professional Standards Division Commander

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7
Q

Criminal investigations of members will be conducted ______ with any _____ investigation involving the same event without ____ _____ and in a manner consistent with the highest standards of _____ and professionalism.

A

concurrently
administrative
undue delay
objectivity

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8
Q

Bureau members subject to a criminal investigation will be afforded rights guaranteed under _______ throughout the investigation.

A

the United States and State of Oregon Constitutions

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9
Q

Criminal Investigations of LE

The Detective Division Commander shall brief the _____ within __ hours of receipt of complaint for determination of investigative unit assignment.

A

AC of Investigations

24

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10
Q

Criminal Investigations of LE

The Detective Division Commander shall notify the _______ or designee within __ hours.

A

IA Captain

24

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11
Q

Criminal Investigations of LE

How often shall the Detective Division Commander conduct meetings with IA to provide IA information concerning criminal investigations, as well as provide the IA Captain with a status of the case? (i.e. ongoing interviews, reports written, awaiting evidence, interviews, or discussions w/ DA’s office)

A

monthly

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12
Q

Criminal Investigations of LE

The Detective Division Commander shall ensure the original case reports are delivered to the ________ and ______ when the investigation is complete.

A

AC of Investigations

IA Captain

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13
Q

Criminal Investigations of LE

The AC of Investigations shall ensure the ___ is informed at the outset of the criminal investigation and provide updates on active criminal investigations.

A

Chief

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14
Q

Criminal Investigations of LE

The AC of Investigations shall notify the ____ or ____ and the _______ of any member who is arrested or charged in a criminal investigation.

A

IA Captain
designee
Detective Division Commander

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15
Q

Criminal Investigations of LE

Who determines what investigative unit shall be responsible for the criminal investigation of any Bureau employee providing the alleged criminal incident occurred in the City of Portland?

A

AC of Investigations

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16
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members occurring within Portland: Internal assignment

What information shall the assigned investigative unit supervisor provide to IA?

A 
case number
complainant's name
subject member's name
name of investigators
summary of each allegation
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17
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members occurring within Portland: Internal assignment

Investigators shall conduct a preliminary investigation and brief the ______ or ____ who shall determine the appropriate investigative strategy.

A

Detective Division Commander

designee

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18
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members occurring within Portland: Internal assignment

If the investigation indicates the complaint is without merit, the investigator ___ submit a ________, through channels, to ______ detailing specific, ____ facts to close the case.

A

shall
confidential memorandum
AC of Investigations
articulable

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19
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members occurring within Portland: Internal assignment

If the preliminary investigation indicates the need for further inquiry, the investigator ___ comport with the terms of applicable _______ when questioning Bureau members during a criminal investigation.

A

shall

collective bargaining agreements

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20
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members occurring within Portland: Internal assignment

If the preliminary investigation indicates the need for further inquiry, the investigator ___ obtain, or cause to be obtained, a ____ and ____ Police Bureau case number from the _______ or via _____. If the case number is obtained by direct entry, then the investigator shall provide the case number to the Records Division Supervisor within ___ hours.

A 
shall
privatized
confidential
Records Division Supervisor
direct entry
72
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21
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members occurring within Portland: Internal assignment

If the preliminary investigation indicates the need for further inquiry, the investigator shall contact the ______ or other appropriate prosecutorial agency for assignment of a _____ or prosecutor to the investigation to coordinate investigative and judicial proceedings.

A

DA’s Office

Deputy District Attorney

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22
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members occurring within Portland: Internal assignment

Who will create a case number for intakes for investigations for complaints that are without merit?

A

the Detective Division

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23
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members occurring within Portland: Internal assignment

Who shall send the final case file to the IA Captain?

A

Detective Division Commander

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24
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members occurring within Portland: Internal assignment

Who shall archive all criminal investigation case files?

A

IA

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25
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members:

The IA Captain shall maintain a Criminal Internal database that includes what information?

A 
case number
complainant's name
subject member's name
name of investigators
case status
allegation summaries
opening and closure dates of investigations
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26
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members:

The IA Captain shall meet ____ with IPR and the ______ or designee to discuss the commencement and ongoing coordination of criminal and administrative investigations, but shielding all IA ______ administrative investigative material from disclosure.

A

monthly
AC of Investigations
Garrity-protected

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27
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members:

Who shall document delays due to protection of the integrity of the criminal investigation?

A

IA Captain

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28
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members:

True of False:

Those individuals responsible for the criminal process and those responsible for the administrative process shall work collaboratively.

A

False.

“A clear line of separation shall be maintained”

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29
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members:

True or False:

Information from a Garrity-protected administrative interview shall be shared with the DA’s office and anyone else involved in the criminal investigation.

A

False

No info from or derived from Garrity-protected interview shall be shared with DA’s office/other prosecutor/anyone involved in criminal investigation

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30
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members:

All information developed in the criminal investigation shall be forwarded to ______.

A

IA

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31
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members:

The ____ shall take all steps necessary to prevent the disclosure of information from admin interviews of any employee subject to a criminal investigation. This includes securing _______ and _____.

A

IA Captain
interview recordings
transcripts

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32
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members: Internal assignment

If the criminal investigation is ongoing, can the AC of Investigations review findings or participate in a Police Review Board proceeding associated with the case?

A

No.

No one from the Investigations Branch, including AC of Investigations, shall review findings and/or participate in or attend any PRB proceeding associated with the case

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33
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members: Internal assignment

True or False:

All available administrative staff shall conduct work on the case.

A

False.

Admin staff authorized to conduct work on the case shall be limited strictly to those individuals necessary to conduct the work

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34
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members: Internal assignment

If necessary at the outset of the administrative investigation, who shall prepare a memorandum outlining specific procedures for maintaining the line of separation between the criminal and administrative investigations, including who is authorized to possess info about the admin case?

A

the Chief and IA Captain

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35
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members: Outside jurisdiction investigating

After receiving notification that an outside criminal investigation is being conducted, the ____ shall inform the _____ within ___ hours.

A

IA Captain or designee
AC of Investigations
24

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36
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members: Outside jurisdiction investigating

Who shall act as the liaison with the other jurisdiction to monitor the progress of the investigation and court action if the alleged criminal conduct occurred outside of Portland?

A

the IA Captain or designee

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37
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members: Outside jurisdiction investigating

What is the role of the liaison?

A

To offer assistance and gather info without influencing the course of the investigation

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38
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members: Outside jurisdiction investigating

Who shall coordinate investigative actions (such as interviews) with the agency conducting the investigation and/or the prosecutor so as to avoid jeopardizing the criminal case?

A

the IA Captain or designee

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39
Q

For alleged criminal actions by Bureau members: Outside jurisdiction investigating

Who shall ensure that no information from the administrative investigation is shared with anyone involved in teh criminal investigation or prosecution?

A

the IA Captain or designee

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40
Q

Dead Body Procedure: Radio Procedure

What is the code used to describe a homicide situation?

A

55-A

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41
Q

Dead Body Procedure: Radio Procedure

What is code used to describe all other deaths that are not homicide situations?

A

55-K

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42
Q

Dead Body Procedure

What shall an officer do if they observe any signs of life?

A

request medical to the scene to provide medical attention or determine death

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43
Q

Dead Body Procedure

If there is a possibility that a crime has been committed, the scene will be preserved by ____ and _____ on scene until relieved by an investigator or supervisor from the investigative detail.

A

officers

supervisors

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44
Q

Dead Body Procedure

When death has been established, who shall be contacted and provided details and circumstances surrounding the death?

A

the Medical Examiner’s office

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45
Q

Dead Body Procedure

Who shall be notified when the death appears to have resulted from natural causes and no physician is available to sign the death certificate or it is uncertain if a physician will sign the death certificate?

A

the Medical Examiner

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46
Q

Dead Body Procedure

How may a member contact the Medical Examiner’s office?

A

directly or request through BOEC

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47
Q

Dead Body Procedure

After discussing circumstances with the member, the ME may choose to ________ or authorize _________.

A

respond to the scene

the release of the remains to a mortuary

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48
Q

Dead Body Procedure

True or False:

The member shall not disturb the body or property at the scene of the death, nor permit any other person, other than the ME to do so.

A

True

Access to the scene should be restricted to preserve evidence

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49
Q

Dead Body Procedure

Members may occasionally be called to the scene of the death of a hospice patient. Hospice Situations in MultCo can be identified by the presence of a _______ containing medical info and orders.

A

red envelope

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50
Q

Dead Body Procedure

When the death has apparently resulted from an apparent drug overdose, suicide, or natural causes (with no family or physician present) and there is no suspicion of foul play, the member shall _____ notify ______.

A

immediately

the ME’s office

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51
Q

Dead Body Procedure

If the ME determines that suspicious circumstances exist or there is evidence that will assist in identifying a suspect involved in the distribution of the drugs associated with the overdose case, who may the ME request the member to contact?

A

Homicide sergeant on duty during business hours or on-call Homicide sergeant after hours (to respond to scene to investigate suspicious circumstances)

DVD sergeant/on-call DVD sergeant (to respond to scene to investigate drug connection surrounding overdose)

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52
Q

Dead Body Procedure

Who is responsible for the examination of the body and determination of the cause and manner of death?

A

ME’s office

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53
Q

Dead Body Procedure

Who is responsible for the criminal investigation?

A

the investigating detectives or detective sergeant upon their arrival

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54
Q

Dead Body Procedure

If the member determines that the death is an obvious homicide or the circumstances exist that may lead to a homicide investigation, the _____ on duty during business hours or on call after hours ___ be contacted by the ________.

A

Homicide Sergeant
shall
supervisor on the scene

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55
Q

If the member determines the death is an obvious homicide or the circumstances may lead to a homicide investigation, who else shall be notified besides the Homicide sergeant?

A

ME

may defer response to scene until after initial assessment by Homicide sergeant

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56
Q

When a death has resulted from a traffic accident, who shall be responsible for the complete investigation into the circumstances surrounding the accident and exchange information, as necessary, with the ME’s office?

A

the Traffic Division

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57
Q

When a death has occurred on a waterway within the city, who will be responsible for the investigation?

A

MCSO

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58
Q

If a death, or a crime leading to a death, occurs on land, but the body is found in a waterway, who will be responsible for the investigation?

A

PPB

MCSO will assist with retrieval and transportation of the body if needed

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59
Q

Dead Body Procedure

If a body is found in a waterway, and the initial investigation is unable to determine the investigative responsibility for the scene, how is responsibility for the investigation determined?

A

detectives and MCSO will consult with each other to determine the responsibility for the investigation

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60
Q

Sexual assault investigations

“Family member” defined

A

father, stepfather, mother, stepmother, brother, sister, cousin, uncle, aunt, grandparent, step-grandparent, parent’s/guardian’s current or former live-in boyfriend or girlfriend, separated or divorced parent, foster parent and a legal guardian

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61
Q

Sexual assault investigations

“Non-family member” defined

A

Any person not listed as a family member, including neighbors, friends, teachers, other temporary child custodians and strangers

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62
Q

Who investigates sexual assault cases involving victims age 14 years and older involving non-family perpetrators?

A

Sex Crimes Unit detectives

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63
Q

Who investigates sexual assault cases involving victims under 14 years old and all victims under 18 years old involving family perpetrators?

A

Child Abuse Team detectives

under 18 + family=CAT
under 14 + family/non family=CAT

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64
Q

5 Crimes Sex Crimes Unit/ Child Abuse Team Unit will be contacted for with suspect in custody:

A

Rape I, Sodomy 1, Sex Abuse 1, Unlawful Sexual Penetration I and II

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65
Q

For SCU/CAT callout, suspect is in custody AND: (4 incident circumstances)

A

a-victim/ofc is able to articulate crime has been committed
b-crime is no more than 120 hrs old AND
c-victim willing to cooperate w/investigation (rape exam) OR
d-nature or complexity of the crime requires detective response

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66
Q

Sexual Assault Investigations

Which 2 items of evidence are to be listed on the same receipt?

A

Sexual Assault Evidence Kit and victim’s undergarments

-any other clothing/evidence must be listed on separate receipt

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67
Q

CARES-NW is:

A

The Child Abuse Response and Evaluation Services Program at Emanuel Hospital

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68
Q

“Child” defined:

A

unmarried person under 18 or under 21 yrs and residing in/receiving care or services at a child-caring agency

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69
Q

True or False

An emancipated juvenile will not be considered a child.

A

True

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70
Q

Child abuse includes any physical injury to a child other than by _______, including any injury that appears to be at _____ with the explanation given as cause for the injury.

A

accidental means

variance

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71
Q

Child abuse includes any mental injury to a child that shall include only ______ and _______ impairment of the child’s mental or psychological ability to function, caused by ______ to the child, with __ ____ to the _____ of the child.

A 
observable
substantial
cruelty
due regard
culture
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72
Q

Child abuse includes sexual abuse, including but not limited to: (5 answers)

A

rape, sodomy, sexual abuse, incest, unlawful sexual penetration

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73
Q

Child abuse includes negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child including, but not limited to, failure to provide: (4 answers)

A

adequate food, clothing, shelter, or medical care

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74
Q

Child Abuse Investigations

“Shelter home” defined:

A

a confidential location for a child to stay as determined and arranged by DHS. location only known by DHS, Juvenile Court, or transporting member

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75
Q

Fractures of any bone in a child under the age of 3 and multiple fractures in a child of any age are considered _____.

A

Suspicious physical injury

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76
Q

Bruising, swelling or abrasions on the head, neck, or face of a child are considered _____.

A

Suspicious physical injury

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77
Q

Child Abuse Investigations

True or False:

If the allegations appear unfounded, the member may provide BOEC with a radio disposition in lieu of writing a report.

A

False

in all cases of reported physical or sexual abuse of a child, a police report will be written. Even unfounded calls require a special report to conform to state child abuse reporting laws.

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78
Q

5 circumstances when a child will be taken into protective custody:

A

1-child is in imminent danger if not taken into protective custody
2-there is a threat that abuse will occur if child is not removed from home (abuser in home, family not supportive of victim)
3-no other alternative resources (such as relative) to care for child
4-child under 10 is left without supervision
5-child’s conditions or surroundings reasonably appear to jeopardize child’s welfare

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79
Q

Child Abuse Investigations: Protective Custody

True or False:

If a DHS worker is present, the member may give the worker custody of a the child.

A

True

In other circumstances, member will transport child to confidential destination as directed by DHS or Juvenile Intake Unit

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80
Q

Child Abuse Investigations: Protective Custody

True or False

The responding member is responsible for the criminal investigation even when a DHS worker is present.

A

True

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81
Q

Child Abuse Investigations

A child ___ years of age or older may refuse an examination.

A

12

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82
Q

The only instrument for detection of deception that is authorized for use in criminal investigations is ____.

A

the polygraph

the only instrument used by PPB, all others are forbidden

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83
Q

The results of a polygraph exam are admissible in court when the exam is administered: (6 answers)

A 
1-in support of a warrant
2-is a condition of probation for sex offenders
3-for probationary maintenance
4-for bail hearings
5-for suppression hearings
6-for prison discipline hearings
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84
Q

Confessions and incriminating statements obtained during polygraph exams may be admissible in court. The polygraph will not be used for the following: (4 answers)

A

1-probable cause, arrest, prosecution, or withholding of property
2- employment purposes
3- on employees who are the subject of an internal or criminal investigation (some exemptions to this)
4- to examine sex crime victims as a condition of prosecution

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85
Q

9 subjects that may be inappropriate for polygraph testing:

A

1- an I.Q. below 70
2- younger than 14 (too immature)
3- under influence of drugs or alcohol
4- is pregnant
5- has medical hx including being prone to seizures, respiratory illness, recent major surgery, recent serious injury
6- is experiencing non-chronic pain, such as headache, and/or suffering from lack of sleep
7- has been involved in a lengthy interview or interrogation just prior to exam
8- is emotionally involved in a traumatic incident. (eg witnessed event, loss of loved one in homicide)-may reschedule these subjects for later date
9- has suffered a recent emotional shock, such as loss of job

86
Q

Who does a member contact to schedule a polygraph exam?

A

the polygrapher at the Detective Division. if unavailable, contact the clerical staff at Detective Division

87
Q

All reports for the case should be supplied to the polygrapher at least ____ days prior to the polygraph exam.

A

5

88
Q

4 polygrapher responsibilities:

A

1-adminster the test
2-determine when an interpreter is required
3-make all arrangements for obtaining the services of an interpreter
4-generate a special report detailing the interview with the subject and the examination results

89
Q

5 things poloygraph subject should be advised prior to exam:

A

1-date/time/location of exam
2-exam will typically last 3-4 hrs
3-no attorneys or other individuals are allowed to present during exam
4-poloygrapher will explain the entire procedure to the subject at the exam appointment
5-subjects need to be proficient in English for exam to be successful. If not, an interpreter will be provided during exam.

90
Q

Polygraph:

No attorneys or other individuals are allowed to be present during the examination. Exceptions to this are at the discretion of _______, and are limited to _____ or ________.

A

the Polygrapher
interpreter
polygraph students

91
Q

“Dying declaration” defined:

A

a statement made by a declarant while believing that death was imminent, concerning the cause or circumstances of what the declarant believed to be impending death

92
Q

True or False

A person making a dying declaration must appear to be aware of their impending death. They must express this in a verbal statement.

A

False

may be inferred from signs, nods, pressure of the hand, pointing to visible persons or objects in answering leading questions

93
Q

Whenever possible, a dying declaration should be taken from a victim when it is evident that the injured person may die. If at all possible, a dying declaration should be what 3 things?

A

1-reduced to writing
2-signed by the person making the declaration
3-duly witnessed

94
Q

True or False

When there is neither time nor opportunity to reduce a dying declaration to writing, the words used are admissible as evidence.

A

True

  • if the member cannot remember exact language, state the substance. must be sufficiently clear and definite to indicate the meaning/intent of person making statement
  • statement/substance of statement should be recorded in member’s notebook
95
Q

What is the first thing a member taking a dying declaration should ask the injured person?

A

if the person believes that they are dying

in the presence of witnesses

96
Q

When the member in charge of the scene of a crime or in a hospital is informed by a licensed physician that the criminally injured person cannot recover, the member will immediately notify ____ and ______.

A

a supervisor

the Detective Division

97
Q

Dying Declaration

In the event the person accused or suspected of inflicting the injury is in custody, they will be _____ for the purpose of _____. This ____ be done in the presence of ______ so that they may be able to testify as to the manner in which identification was made.

A

brought before the dying person
identification
should
witnesses

98
Q

9 responsibilities of member in charge at the scene of a crime:

A

1-notify BOEC of type of incident/request additional members if needed
2-arrest suspect if present
3-protect human life and property, render aid
4- ID and isolate witnesses (names/addresses/statement)
5-exclude all unauthorized persons from crime scene
6-a specific member shall be assigned crime scene log
7-relayy info to Records/Teletype and BOEC regarding crime and suspects
8-if crime scene needs immediate continuing investigation by detectives, BOEC will be notified

99
Q

True or False:

All members entering a major crime scene will submit a report documenting the reason for being in the crime scene and all actions taken while there.

A

True

100
Q

A Detective supervisor and/or detective from the Homicide detail will be notified in the following cases: (8 answers)

A

1-homicides
2-questionable deaths
3-suicides
4-serious assaults, with a possibility of death
5- abduction/kidnap
6- shootings or serious assaults involving police members, whether the member is the victim or not
7- custody cases involving agg murder, murder, manslaughter, assault 1 or 2, kidnap 1 or 2
8- hate crimes

101
Q

A Detective supervisor and/or detective from the Robbery detail will be notified in the following cases: (3 answers)

A

1-commercial robbery involving injuries or firearms discharge
2-all robbery 1 and 2 custodies
3- any robbery 1 or 2 with suspect info and the need for immediate follow-up

(all robbery reports should be faxed to rob detail prior to going off duty)

102
Q

7 responsibilities of Detectives assigned to crime scene:

A

1- assume command of investigation. responsible only to their own supervisor. will contact an on-duty sgt or relief commander if necessary for uniform members to stay at scene and assist
2-ascertain from uniformed members how far investigation has progressed (avoid duplicate work)
3- obtain detailed description of suspects and property for broadcast by BOEC
4-interview witnesses/ensure uniform have obtained thorough statement (witnesses kept separated until after interviewed)
5- interview suspects
6- request additional aid through their supervisor, if needed
7- when uniform and dets do joint investigation of major crime, duty of the det to make the formal report on the investigation. a copy of reports will be forwarded to uniform division/precinct involved

103
Q

Which types of cameras are authorized for use by uniform members? (crime scene photography)

A

35mm or digital cameras

104
Q

When will a Criminalist be called to photograph a scene?

A

major crimes

fatal accident scenes

105
Q

Arrest Warrants:

Sworn members may use force to break into a premise to execute an arrest warrant when ALL of the following conditions exist: (3)

A

1-member has reason to believe that the premise is the residence of the subject sought in the warrant
2-member has probable cause to believe the person sought by the warrant is currently w/in the premise
3- if, after notice of his/her authority and purpose, he/she is refused admittance

106
Q

Emergency Entries:

Members may make emergency entry w/o consent of person in possession of premise if they have reasonable basis for believing entry is required to: (4)

A

1-prevent serious harm to any person or property
2-render aid to injured or ill persons
3-locate missing persons
4-assist persons who are mentally incompetent/unable to care for themselves, are unaccompanied by a competent party, and may be in a situation where their welfare is at risk

107
Q

Which category of force is:

All critical firearm discharges, except as authorized to stop an aggressive animal/end suffering of an animal

A

category 1

108
Q

Which category of force is:

In-custody death

A

category 1

109
Q

Which category of force is:

Death as a result of member(s)’ use of force

A

category 1

110
Q

Which category of force is:

all intentional head, neck, throat strikes with hard objects/striking subject’s head against hard object

A

category 1

111
Q

Prohibited uses of force (3)

A

1-solely because other member is using force
2-for interrogation/torture
3-passive resistance

-physically moving a subject engaged in passive resistance is permitted when it is necessary and objectively reasonable

112
Q

Authorized uses of force (5)

A

1-prevent or terminate commission/attempted commission of offense
2-lawfully take person into custody, arrest, prevent escape
3-prevent suicide/serious self-inflicted injury
4- defend member/other from use of physical force
5-accomplish some official purpose/duty authorized by law/judicial decree

113
Q

PED shall submit a sexual assault kit to OSP for forensic testing within ___ days.

A

14

114
Q

Upon receiving notification from a medical facility that a sexual assault kit has been collected, a sworn member shall retrieve the SAK within ___ days.

A

7

115
Q

PED shall retail all sexual assault kits, including anonymous kits, for no less than ____ years after the SAK was collected

A

60

116
Q

As part of a MDT approach, what are all LE agencies in Oregon required to do for cases involving child abuse?

A

1-write a police report
2-notify DHS
3-notify DA’s office
4-noitify CARES-NW

*even if allegations are determined to be unfounded

117
Q

Members who observe a child who has suffered a suspicious physical injury ___ ensure that a designated medical professional conducts a medical assessment within ___ hours.

A

48

118
Q

Child abuse with suspicious physical injury: members shall ensure medical assessment w/in 48 hrs. Shall do any of the following to fulfill requirement: (3 options)

A

1-contact CARES-NW via phone/email
2-advise responding detective of injury/need for med assessment
3-if no responding det, advise DHS hotline of injury/need for med assessment

119
Q

Members facilitating the transportation of a child to a hospital for treatment for a ___ physical injury ___ immediately notify ______ who will contact a ____ or _____.

A 
serious
shall
their supervisor
CAT supervisor
Detective supervisor
120
Q

Child Sexual Abuse: Members shall request through their supervisors for the Detective Division CAT to respond in cases where: (3 answers)

A

1-a child has been sexual assaulted within 120 hrs
2-vic is under 14 and suspect is non-family member
3-vic is under 18 and suspect is family member

121
Q

Members who have ___ ____ to believe that a child is a victim of sexual abuse and that physical evidence of the abuse is likely to be destroyed ___ seek a physical exam. (SAK)

A

reasonable cause

shall

122
Q

In the event that a child under ___ years of age refuses to have an exam conducted __ the child’s parent or guardian refuses to allow medical evaluation, the member ___ take the child into _________. Members shall contact ____ and ___ for assistance.

A 
12
and
shall
protective custody
Detectives
DHS
123
Q

Members shall attempt to minimize the amount of interviews conducted with child abuse victims. Members not specifically trained in child interview techniques __ refrain from interviewing children under the age of ___.

A

shall

10

124
Q

For cases of sexual abuse, members may interview children over the age of ___, but only to the extent necessary to establish a criminal allegation.

A

10

125
Q

True or False:

For cases of physical abuse, if necessary, members may interview the child (if they are able to speak) using non-leading questions.

A

True

126
Q

Members ___ not interview children who are __ years of age or younger. These cases ___ be referred to ____, the assigned ____, or ____.

A 
10
shall
CARES-NW
DHS personnel
a CAT detective
127
Q

If a sexual crime occurred within ____ hours, a member __ conduct a short interview with the child to establish if the child needs an immediate medical examination.

A

120

may

128
Q

Pursuant to Oregon law, any person conducting a child abuse investigation who observes a child who has suffered ____ physical injury ___ immediately photograph the injuries. Anogenital injuries may only be photographed by a _______, but even these injuries must be photographed immediately.

A

suspicious
shall
medical provider

129
Q

In compliance with Karly’s Law, members may contact CARES-NW directly via email and provide info regarding a child abuse cases (name 4 things email should include).

Any photographic evidence __ be emailed to CARES-NW _____ uploading into DIMS.

A

case number, child’s name, child’s DOB, photographic evidence

shall
prior to

130
Q

Responding to child abuse calls on public school property:

If the initial response and investigation is conducted on public school premises, the _____ will first be notified by a responding member, unless that person is the subject of the investigation.

A

school administrator

131
Q

Responding to child abuse calls on public school property:

Ture or False:

According to state law, a designated school staff member’s presence for an interview is not required.

A

True

*The Bureau member shall use their best judgment on whether to include them

132
Q

A child MAY be taken into protective custody under which 2 conditions?

A

1-child under 10 is left w/o supervision

2-child’s conditions or surroundings reasonably appear to jeopardize the child’s welfare

133
Q

A member SHALL take a child into protective custody when: (3)

A

1-child is in immediate danger if not taken into protective custody
2-there is a threat that abuse will occur if the child is not removed from the home
3-there are no other alternative resources such as a relative to care for the child

134
Q

If a member intervenes and relocates a child (i.e moves them to or from a shelter care, writes a medical hold, or places w/ a relative or friend), they shall do the following 3 things:

A

1-write a GO and AB
2-notify DHS hotline
3-deliver via in-person or fax copies of police reports to juvenile court intake as soon as practical but no later than end of shift

135
Q

For cases where probable cause exists for ______ or _____ on a child physical abuse case, members __ contact Detectives or a CAT supervisor.

A

criminal mistreatment 1
misdemeanor assault
shall

136
Q

Child Abuse Investigations

Members shall write GO and AB reports when: (3)

A

1-arresting or citing a suspect
2-a child’s location is changed by a member’s intervention (shelter care, medical hold, placed w/ relative, friend or DHS)
3-a child is taken from a current custodian and given to another person, including a DHS worker

137
Q

Child Abuse Investigations

Members shall write a courtesy report for outside agencies for any of the following circumstances: (3)

A

1-location of occurrence is outside Portland Police jurisdiction
2-an outside agency advises they will not respond
3-an outside agency requests a courtesy report

138
Q

A CAT Detective MAY be requested and assigned under what circumstances?

A

victim(s) under 18 years of age AND perpetrator is a family member who is taken into custody for rape 1, sodomy 1, sex abuse 1, or unlawful sex pen 1 and 2

139
Q

Child Abuse Investigations

Detectives SHALL respond to the appropriate hospital when:

A

1-a child has been sexually assaulted w/in the last 120 hrs and there is likelihood of obtaining evidence through a SAK
2-a child is hospitalized due to a suspicious serious physical injury

140
Q

Incidents of child sexual abuse may be coordinated between DHS and OSU (formerly TRU), however, OSU may take the report only under the following circumstances: (3)

A

1-child is currently safe and away from perpetrator and incident is being reported 120 hrs after occurrence
2-caller is reluctant to make a direct report to a uniform member
3-caller is out of the area and their local LE agency will not take a courtesy report regarding an incident that occurred w/in Portland

141
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 1 if the person ____ causes ______ to another person by means of a ____ or ____ weapon.

A
  • intentionally
  • serious physical injury
  • deadly
  • dangerous
142
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 1 if the person ____ or ____ causes ______ to a child under __ years of age.

A
  • intentionally
  • knowingly
  • serious physical injury
  • 6
143
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 1 if the person violates (assault 2) knowing that the victim ____.

A

is pregnant

144
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 1 if the person _____, ____, or ____ causes _____ to another while operating a motor vehicle under the influence of intoxicants AND: (2 conditions)

A

1-person has at least 3 prev convictions for DUII or its statutory counterpart in any jurisdiction, in the 10 yrs prior to the date of current offense OR
2-person has a prev conviction for any of these crimes or their statutory counterparts AND victim’s death or serious phys inj in prev conviction was caused by person driving a motor vehicle (manslaughter 1 and 2, crim neg hom, assault 1, 2, 3)

145
Q

Assault in the first degree is a…

A

Class A felony

146
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 2 if the person ____ or ____ causes ______ to another.

A
  • intentionally
  • knowingly
  • serious physical injury
147
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 2 if the person ____ or ____ causes _____ to another by means of a ___ or ____ weapon.

A
  • intentionally
  • knowingly
  • physical injury
  • deadly
  • dangerous
148
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 2 if the person ____ causes _____ to another by means of a ____ or ____ weapon under ________.

A
  • recklessly
  • serious physical injury
  • deadly
  • dangerous
  • circumstances manifesting extreme indifference to the value of human life
149
Q

Assault in the second degree is a…

A

Class B felony

150
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 3 if the person _____ causes _______ to another by means of a ___ or ____ weapon.

A
  • recklessly
  • serious physical injury
  • deadly
  • dangerous
151
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 3 if the person ____ causes _____ to another under _______.

A
  • recklessly
  • serious physical injury
  • circumstances manifesting extreme indifference to the value of human life
152
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 3 if the person ____ causes _____ to another by means of a ___ or ____ weapon under _________.

A
  • recklessly
  • physical injury
  • deadly
  • dangerous
  • circumstances manifesting extreme indifference to the value of human life
153
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 3 if the person ____, ____, or _____ causes, by means other than a motor vehicle, _____ to the operator of a public transit vehicle while the operator is in control of or operating a vehicle.

A
  • intentionally
  • knowingly
  • recklessly
  • physical injury
154
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 3 if the person, while being aided by another person actually present, ____ or ____ causes ____ to another.

A
  • intentionally
  • knowingly
  • physical injury
155
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 3 if the person, while committed to a youth correction facility, ____ or ____ causes _____ to another knowing the other person is a staff member while the other person is acting in the course of official duty.

A
  • intentionally
  • knowingly
  • physical injury
156
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 3 if the person ___, ____, or ____ causes _______ to an emergency medical services provider while the emergency medical services provider is performing official duties.

A
  • intentionally-knowingly
  • recklessly
  • physical injury
157
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 3 if the person, being at least 18 years of age, ____ or ____ causes _____ to a child __ years of age or younger.

A
  • intentionally
  • knowingly
  • physical injury
  • 10
158
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 3 if the person ___, ___, or ____ causes, by means other than a motor vehicle, _____ to the operator of a taxi while the operator is in control of the taxi.

A
  • intentionally
  • knowingly
  • recklessly
  • physical injury
159
Q

A person commits the crime of assault 3 if the person ____, ____, or ____ causes ____ to a flagger or a highway worker while the flagger or highway worker is performing official duties.

A
  • intentionally
  • knowingly
  • recklessly
  • physical injury
160
Q

Assault 3 is a…

A

Class C felony

161
Q

Assault 3 is a Class B felony if:

The person recklessly causes serious physical injury to another by means of a deadly or dangerous weapon

OR

The person recklessly causes serious physical injury to another under circumstances manifesting extreme indifference to the value of human life

AND: (2 conditions)

A

1- The assault resulted from the operation of a motor vehicle AND
2-The defendant was the driver of the vehicle and was DUII

162
Q

A juvenile cannot be held in police detention for more than ___ hours. If a juvenile is in detention for __ hours an on duty supervisor ___ be notified.

A
  • 5
  • 4
  • must
163
Q

Juveniles under ___ years of age ___ ___ be handcuffed unless they present a _____ ___ to safety, meaning they are combative or threatening.

A
  • 12
  • shall not
  • heightened risk
164
Q

Juveniles ___ years of age and over ___ be handcuffed as adults.

A

-may

165
Q

A juvenile ___ ___ be handcuffed to a fixed rail or object.

A

-shall not

166
Q

Juveniles under __ years of age and juvenile ______ offenders ___ ___ be placed in a locked room unless a _________ can be documented.

A
  • 12
  • status
  • shall not
  • a risk to juvenile or member safety
167
Q

Juveniles ____ be temporarily detained only in quarters with ____ and _____ separation, meaning members will locate or arrange a juvenile within Bureau facilities so as to prevent ____, ____, or _____ contact between the juvenile and adults.

A
  • shall
  • sight
  • sound
  • physical
  • visual
  • auditory
168
Q

A notation ____ be made in the police report listing the _____ of detention and if the juvenile was handcuffed.

A
  • shall

- duration

169
Q

A staff member of the same sex ___ supervise personal hygiene activities and care, such as changing clothing or using the restroom, without ___ _____ to allow for privacy.

A
  • shall

- direct observation

170
Q

Any time a juvenile is held in custody at a Bureau facility, the custody ___ be ___ and ____ documented in the Juvenile Custody Log.

A
  • shall
  • promptly
  • properly
171
Q

True or False

All Bureau locations shall maintain a Juvenile Secure Custody Log.

A

False

All Bureau locations -that have secure holding facilities- shall maintain a Juvenile Secure Custody Log form for each holding room

172
Q

Juvenile Custody Logs ___ be completed at any secure holding facility to which the juvenile is taken (eg juvenile held at North Precinct before being taken to FED.)

A

-must

173
Q

All Juvenile Security Logs completed ___ be maintained at the secure holding facility they originated at for ___ years from the date of the last entry on the log.

A

-5

174
Q

Copies of completed Juvenile Security Logs ___ be forwarded to the Office of the Chief of Police, ____ Branch Chief, by the __ of ____, and ___ of ___, each year for the prior ___ months reporting.

A
  • will
  • Operations
  • 15th
  • January
  • 15th
  • July
  • 6
175
Q

Examples of misdemeanor/status offenses

A

MIP, curfew, truancy, City ordinance violations, non person-to-person misdemeanors, circumstances or situations that may endanger the juvenile’s welfare or welfare of others

176
Q

Juvenile status offenders ___ generally be released by ____ or with ____ rather than taken into temporary custody. Members __ take custody of a juvenile status offender in order to facilitate ____.

A
  • should
  • citation
  • warning
  • may
  • reunification
177
Q

Members may take custody of a juvenile status offender in order to facilitate reunification. Juveniles ages ___ to ___ will be released to a parent, guardian, or other responsible person if possible. If such a person is not available, juveniles ___ be taken to the _________ or other approved placement.

A
  • 12
  • 17
  • will
  • Juvenile Reception Center (Janus)
178
Q

In all juvenile cases a report __ be completed prior to ______.

When a juvenile is transported to Janus, a copy of the completed report __ be left with staff.

A
  • will
  • leaving duty
  • will
179
Q

True or False

Juveniles who are remanded offenders and have been on adult probation may be transported to MCDC.

A

False

Even though a juvenile has been on adult probation and remanded by adult court, juveniles are not to be transported to adult facilities. Members will transport juveniles to JDH.

180
Q

True or False

Juveniles showing signs of intoxication may be transported to Janus for monitoring and evaluation.

A

False

Any juvenile showing visible signs of illness, injury, or intoxication must be medically screened at an approved medical facility before admission will be allowed at JDH or Janus

181
Q

Custody of Juveniles

Members MAY take a juvenile into protective custody under what circumstances?

A
  • juvenile is found to be a victim of abuse, neglect
  • found in the company of arrested persons
  • in need of care for non-criminal/non-status related offenses, such as runaway/missing juveniles
182
Q

How are juvenile protective custody placements arranged? (except for runaways)

A

-through DHS hotline

reports will not include location/address/phone number of placement

183
Q

When a juvenile is taken into protective custody as a runaway, members ___ release the juvenile without ____ ___ to the custody of the juvenile’s parent or guardian, Juvenile Reception Center (Janus), or other approved placement. Members ___ release the juvenile to Janus or other approved placement if it ___ _____ that the child would not willingly remain at home if released to parent/guardian.

A
  • will
  • unnecessary delay
  • may
  • reasonably appears
184
Q

As soon as ____ after a juvenile is taken into custody a member ___ notify the juvenile’s parent, guardian or other person responsible for the juvenile.

A
  • practicable

- shall

185
Q

In the absence of actual contact with the person responsible for the juvenile, written notification ___ be left at the juvenile’s residence if known.

A

-will

186
Q

True or False

Victims and/or complainants are not required to sign complaints against juveniles.

A

True

Members need only notify victims and/or complainants that a representative of the juvenile court system will contact them regarding their case

187
Q

If juveniles are to be lodged in JDH or placed in protective custody (medical emergency, shelter care or placement with family or friend other than parent or guardian), all reports related to the case ___ be delivered to ___ prior to _____.

A
  • must
  • JDH
  • the end of the member’s shift
188
Q

In those instances when a juvenile is released all reports related to the case ___ be forwarded to Multnomah County ______.

A
  • will

- Juvenile Services Division

189
Q

Application for a search warrant may be made by a _______ or by any _______.

A
  • district attorney

- police officer

190
Q

Any magistrate authorized to issue a warrant of arrest may issue a warrant for:

A

1-Evidence/information concerning crime
2-Property that constitutes contraband/items criminally possessed
3-Fruits of a crime
4-Property used to commit or conceal commission of offense
5-A person for whose arrest there is PC or is unlawfully held in concealment

191
Q

Probable cause for a search warrant is based upon the member’s ____ knowledge and/or ______ information from another member, a ____ citizen, or _______ informant.

A
  • personal
  • hearsay
  • named
  • undisclosed
192
Q

Probable cause is relayed to the magistrate through use of an affidavit. The affidavit should: (2)

A

1-contain a clear and distinct description of the places to be searched and items to be seized
2-Provide facts and circumstances which provide pc for the search

193
Q

When hearsay information of a undisclosed informant is relied upon to establish probable cause, that information must be ____ __________ (i.e., information demonstrating ___ ______ of the informant or by personal _____ and corroboration.)

A
  • independently corroborated
  • past reliability
  • observation
194
Q

A copy of ______ and the original ______ will be left with the issuing magistrate. Search warrants will be served as soon as possible Extended delay is to be avoided.

A
  • search warrant

- affidavit

195
Q

A person commits the crime of Sexual Abuse 1 when that person:

A

subjects another person to sexual contact and:
a-vic is less than 14
b-vic is subject to forcible compulsion
c- vic incapable of consent-mentally defective/mentally incapacitated/physically helpless

196
Q

A person commits the crime of Sexual Abuse 1 when that person ____ causes a person under ____ years of age to touch or contact the ___, ___, or _______ of an animal for the purpose of _____ or _____ the sexual desire of a person.

A
  • intentionally
  • 18
  • mouth
  • anus
  • sex organs
  • arousing
  • gratifying
197
Q

Sexual Abuse 1 is a…

A

Class B felony

198
Q

A person commits the crime of Sexual Abuse 2 when the person subjects another person to _____, ____ or _____ sexual intercourse, ______ of the vagina, anus, or penis with any object other than the penis or mouth of the actor and the victim _________.

A
  • sexual intercourse
  • oral
  • anal
  • penetration
  • does not consent thereto
199
Q

A person commits the crime of Sexual Abuse 2 when the person subjects another person to ___ ____ and the victim is incapable of consent by reason of being under __ years of age and the actor is ___ years of age or older AND at any time before the commission of the offense, the person was the victim’s _____.

A
  • sexual contact
  • 18
  • 21
  • coach
200
Q

Sexual Abuse 2 is a…

A

Class C felony

201
Q

A person commits the crime of Compelling Prostitution if the person _____ uses force or _____ to compel another to engage in prostitution or attempted prostitution.

A
  • knowingly

- intimidation

202
Q

A person commits the crime of Compelling Prostitution if the person _____ induces or causes a person under ___ years of age to engage in prostitution.

A
  • knowingly

- 18

203
Q

A person commits the crime of Compelling Prostitution if the person _____ aids or ______ the commission of prostitution or attempted prostitution by a person under ___ years of age.

A
  • knowingly
  • facilitates
  • 18
204
Q

A person commits the crime of Compelling Prostitution if the person _______ induces or causes the ___, child, or ______ of the person to engage in prostitution.

A
  • knowingly
  • spouse
  • stepchild
205
Q

Compelling Prostitution is a…

A

Class B felony

206
Q

True or False

In the prosecution of Compelling Prostitution where age is a factor, it is a defense that the defendant did not know the person’s age or that the defendant reasonably believed the person to be older than 18 years of age.

A

False

It is not a defense. The state is not required to prove that the defendant knew the person was under 18.

207
Q

Criminal homicide constitutes Manslaughter 2 when it is committed ______.

A

-recklessly

208
Q

Criminal homicide constitutes Manslaughter 2 when a person ______ causes or aids another person to commit suicide.

A

-intentionally

209
Q

Criminal homicide constitutes Manslaughter 2 when a person, with ___ _______, causes the death of a child under ___ years of age or a _____ person AND the person has previously engaged in a ____ or _____ of assault or ______ of the victim or another child under __ years of age or a ____ person OR the person causes the death by ____ or _______.

A
  • criminal negligence
  • 14
  • dependent
  • pattern
  • practice
  • torture
  • 14
  • dependent
  • neglect
  • maltreatment
210
Q

Manslaughter 2 is a…

A

Class B felony

2021 Detective (10 decks)

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