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CompTIA Network+ 009 > Dion Network+ > Flashcards

Dion Network+ Flashcards

1
Q

Wi-Fi Standard is IEEE

A

802.11 (remember i and i being .11)

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2
Q

Ethernet Standard is IEEE

A

802.3 (ethernet is three)

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3
Q

Data in OSI model

A

Do * 3
Some
People
Fear
Birthdays

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4
Q

Do * 3
Some
People
Fear
Birthdays

A

Data
Segments
Packets
Frames
Bits

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5
Q

MAC Address in Data Link Layer controls

A

The address

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6
Q

LLC (Logic Link Controller) in Data Link controls

A

data flow and some error control

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7
Q

ICMP (Internet Control Protocol) is at which layer

A

Network

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8
Q

Router is at which layer

A

Network

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9
Q

Multi layer switch is at which layer

A

Network

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10
Q

Switch is at which layer unless told

A

Data link

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11
Q

H.323/RTP/NetBIOS at which layer

A

Session

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12
Q

Data formatting and encryption at which layer

A

Presentation

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13
Q

UDP data is called

A

Datagram

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14
Q

TCP data is called

A

Segments

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15
Q

Default frame in MTU

A

1500

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16
Q

Jumbo Frame in MTU

A

9000

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17
Q

We add source and destination ports at layer

A

4 (Transport)

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18
Q

We add our source and destination IP addresses at layer

A

3 (Network)

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19
Q

We add our source and destination MAC addresses at layer

A

2 (Data Link)

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20
Q

Windowing is done by which protocol

A

TCP

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21
Q

Ping is a command in which protocol

A

ICMP

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22
Q

ICMP is used for

A

network diagnostic and error reporting tool

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23
Q

Port 80

A

HTTP

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24
Q

Port 443

A

HTTPS

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25
Q

HTTPS uses which tunnels

A

SSL or TLS

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26
Q

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) uses port

A

25

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27
Q

SMTPS on which port

A

Secure version 587

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28
Q

SMTP on sends

A

emails

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29
Q

FTP is on ports

A

20 - actual data transfer 21 - sending control command

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30
Q

SFTP is secure FTP and is on port

A

22

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31
Q

SFTP is an FTP protocol through an

A

SSH connection

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32
Q

(TrivialFTP) TFTP is a simpler version of FTP on port

A

69

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33
Q

SMB is to read and write to servers on port

A

445

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34
Q

SMB is used in a LAN not across the

A

internet

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35
Q

Secure Shell (SSH) used for secure remote login over an unsecure network and is on port

A

22

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36
Q

SSH is for encrypted tunnel for text based

A

commands

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37
Q

SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is on port

A

5060 / 5061

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38
Q

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is on port

A

3389

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39
Q

Telnet is on port

A

23

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40
Q

DHCP is on port and (TCP or UDP)

A

67\68 and UDP

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41
Q

SQL for microsoft is port

A

1433

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42
Q

LDAP over SSL (LDAPS) is on port

A

636

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43
Q

DNS is on port

A

53 and TCP

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44
Q

Syslog is on port

A

514

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45
Q

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is for

A

controlling network devices

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46
Q

SNMP managers use port

A

161

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47
Q

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is on port

A

389

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48
Q

SNMP agents use port

A

162

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49
Q

NTP (Network Time Protocol) is on port

A

123

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50
Q

CAT 5 speed

A

100 (for all)

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51
Q

CAT 5e (enhanced) speed

A

1000Mbps/1 Gbps (*10)

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52
Q

CAT 6 speed

A

1Gbps
10Gbps if 55 meters or less

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53
Q

CAT 6a speed

A

10Gbps for 100meters

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54
Q

CAT 8 speed

A

40Gbps for 30 meters

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55
Q

RG-6 cable is used for

A

cable modem

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56
Q

Coaxial cables speeds

A

1Gbps for 300 meters

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57
Q

DAC cables speeds

A

active 100 Gbps at 15 meters
passive 100 Gbps at 7 meters

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58
Q

Twinaxial cables (better) are used for

A

SFP+ and QSFP between routers or switches

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59
Q

Twinaxial cables speeds

A

10G for 100m
100G for 7m

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60
Q

Plenum cables (fire resistant) used in what space

A

roof

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61
Q

Cable Speeds start with CAT 5 and go up by a factor of 10

A

CAT 5 (100Mbps), CAT 5e (1Gbps), CAT 6 (same but 10Gbps at 55m)
CAT 6a (10Gbps at 100m), CAT 8

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62
Q

Cabling standard 568B colouring (straight Through)

A

eg switch to computer

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63
Q

a cable for a switch to a swtich is

A

a crossover cabel

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64
Q

MDIX simulates the crossover for a cable for exam

A

don’t assume

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65
Q

CAT cabling Mnemonics for 568B

A

We Only Order Great Burgers While Guests Bring Beer

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66
Q

We Only Order Great Burgers While Guests Bring Beer (568B)

A

White-Orange, Orange, White-Green, Blue, White-Blue, Green, White-Brown, Brown

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67
Q

Single-mode Fiber (SMF) optical cable colour

A

Yellow

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68
Q

Multi-mode Fiber (MMF) optical cable colour

A

Aqua blue or orange

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69
Q

Subscriber Connector (SC) optical nick name

A

Stick and click (square shape)

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70
Q

Lucent Connector (LC) optical smaller nick name

A

Love connector

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71
Q

Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MTRJ) how many fibers

A

Two

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72
Q

Straight Tip Connector (ST) nick name great outdoors

A

stick and twist like BNC

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73
Q

Media converters and transeivers are which layer devices

A

Physical

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74
Q

Multi-Fiber Push on (MPO) have multiple what

A

Fibers

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75
Q

2.4GHz channels to be used

A

1 6 11

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76
Q

5 GHz has how many channels

A

24

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77
Q

5 GHz uses is based on the WiFi standard

A

802.11

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78
Q

802.11h wireless standardhas the features

A

Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) - looks for radar signals
Transmit Power Control (TPC) - minimum power consumption

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79
Q

802.11a specs

A

5GHz speed 54Mbps range 35m

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80
Q

802.11b specs

A

2.4GHz speed 11 Mbps range 140m

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81
Q

802.11g specs

A

2.4 GHz speed 54 Mbps range 140m

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82
Q

802.11n specs

A

5GHz speed 600 Mbps range 35m

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83
Q

802.11ac specs

A

2.4 and 5GHz speeds 1.3 Gbps

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84
Q

802.11ax specs

A

2.4, 5, and 6 GHz speed 9.6Gbps

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85
Q

802.11 2.4Ghz wireless which letters

A

b, g, n, ax

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86
Q

802.11 5GHz which letters

A

a, n, ac, ax

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87
Q

802.11 6GHZ which letters

A

ax

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88
Q

802.1X security for WiFi

A

different user logins

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89
Q

WPA uses which vector

A

TKIP very wea

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90
Q

WEP is associated with which term

A

InitializationVector (IV)

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91
Q

WPA is associated with the terms

A

TKIP and RC4

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92
Q

WPA2 is associated with the terms

A

CCMP and AES

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93
Q

WPA3 is associated with the term

A

SAE

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94
Q

Class A 255.0.0.0 first octet

A

1-127

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95
Q

Broadcast Storm

A

Multiple copies of frames being forwarded back and forth which then consumes the network

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96
Q

Network Access Control (NAC) is a

A

method for increasing the security of a given network by inspecting devices trying to connect to a network.

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97
Q

802.1x Authentication provides an

A

authentication framework for metworks and ensures only authenticated users can access network services

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98
Q

RADIUS server performs what function

A

Authentication

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99
Q

MTU default size for ethernet is

A

1500

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100
Q

Class B subnet mask 255.255.0.0 first octet public

A

128-191

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101
Q

Class C subnet mask 255.255.255.0 first octet public

A

192-223

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102
Q

Class D multicast first octet public

A

224-239

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103
Q

Class E first octet public

A

240-255

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104
Q

Private IP Class A Starting Value 10 what is range

A

10.0.0.0 -10.255.255.255

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105
Q

Private IP Class B Starting value 172.16 - 172.31 what is the range

A

172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255

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106
Q

Private IP Class C Starting value 192.168 what is the range

A

192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255

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107
Q

Loopback IP is Address

A

127.0.0.1

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108
Q

APIPA - automatic Private IP address range is (when DHCP cannot give IP address)

A

169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255

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109
Q

DORA stands for

A

Discover
Offer
Request
Acknowledge

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110
Q

DHCP assigns what

A

IP Address
Subnet mask
Default gateway
DNS/WINS server

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111
Q

RADIUS uses which protocol

A

UDP

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112
Q

RADIUS uses ports

A

1812 and 1813

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113
Q

IPSec provides security for what type of network

A

VPN

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114
Q

Kerberos uses a system of tickets to allow nodes to communicate over a non-secure network and securely prove their identity. NA

A

NA

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115
Q

APIPA address starts with

A

169

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116
Q

MTTR stands for

A

Mean Time to Repair

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117
Q

RTO stands for

A

Recovery time objective

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118
Q

RPO stands for

A

Recovery Point objective

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119
Q

MTBF stands for

A

Mean Time between failures

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120
Q

Crossover cables are used to connect two of the

A

same device together

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121
Q

CDA in three-tier hierarchical model stands for

A

Core Distribution Access

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122
Q

7 step syslog severity letters

A

E ACE WN ID

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123
Q

E ACE WN ID stands for

A

Emergency
Alert
Critical
Error
Warning
Notice
Information
Debugging

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124
Q

VTP transparent mode Virtual Switch is what?

A

VTP Transport mode does not synchronize VLAN configuration information with other switches. VTP advertisements when received are not applied to the VLAN database. This mode is used when you want to make the switch independent from current vlan structure. This mode has lowest impact when adding new switch to your switching topology.

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125
Q

SFP+ (Small Form-Factor Pluggable Plus) speeds

A

10Gbs

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126
Q

What is the purpose of a pointer (PTF) DNS record?

A

Maps an IP address to a hostname

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127
Q

Public IP Class A range

A

1-127

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128
Q

Public IP Class B range

A

128-191

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129
Q

Public IP Class C range

A

192-223

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130
Q

FTP and SMTP operate at which level of OSI

A

Application

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131
Q

IP is at which OSI level

A

Network

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132
Q

NFV, NSG and NSL stand for

A

Network functions virtualization, Network Security Group, Network Security Lists

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133
Q

A dual stack set up is running

A

IP4 and IP6 at the same time.

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134
Q

NSL (Network Security List) are associated with which part of the network

A

Infrastructure components eg load balancers

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135
Q

TLS is the protocol being used when SSL is omplemented and they stand for

A

Transport Layer Security and Secure sockets layer

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136
Q

NSG (Network Security Groups) control inbound and outbound traffic and act as virtual what?

A

Firewalls

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137
Q

the order of DHCP options from class, scope, server, reserve client

A

reserve client, class, scope, server

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138
Q

Forward DNS zone maps

A

domain names to IP addresses

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139
Q

Reverse DNS Zone have what types of records

A

pointer

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140
Q

FQDN stands for

A

Fully Qualified Domain Name

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141
Q

Structure of FQDN

A

Hostname, Domain Name, Top-Level Domain (TLD)

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142
Q

Purpose of a VPN concentrator

A

to terminate the VPN tunnels

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143
Q

RADIUS provides

A

centralized remote user authentication and accounting and also supports 802.1x port-based authentication

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144
Q

PAT (Port address translation)

A

able to share a single IP address amoung multiple computers

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145
Q

For IaC the following terms Playbooks/templates/reusable tasks, configuration drift/compliance, upgrades, and dynamic inventories are matched with

A

Automation

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146
Q

For Iac the following terms version control, central repository, conflict identification, and branching are matched with

A

Source control

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147
Q

Reverse Zone DNS lookup

A

IP addresses back to hostnames

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148
Q

Forward Zone DNS lookup

A

domain names into IP addresses

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149
Q

IPAM (IP address management) allows

A

integration of DNS and DHCP so that each is aware of changes in the other.

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150
Q

Port for POP3

A

110

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151
Q

DNS records to enter DKIM or SPF are what file type

A

TXT

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152
Q

801.q standard is used for

A

VLAN

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153
Q

802.1d standard is used for

A

STP (Spanning tree protocol) uses BPDU

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154
Q

802.1af standard is used for

A

POE

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155
Q

802.1x standard is used for

A

network authentication protocol

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156
Q

ISAMKP is a

A

Key management protocol

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157
Q

SAML is used in

A

SSO

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158
Q

RDP is on port and is on TCP or UDP

A

3389 TCP

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159
Q

OSI Level for Bridge

A

2

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160
Q

OSI Level for Switch

A

2 or 3

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161
Q

OSI Level for firewall

A

3 to 7

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162
Q

OSI Level for Hub

A

1

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163
Q

Is OSPF a classless protocol

A

Yes

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164
Q

Cabling Base-T are what type of cable

A

copper

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165
Q

Cabling Base-S is it single or double

A

Remember S is not single

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166
Q

802.3ad is for which protocol

A

LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)

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167
Q

MIMO is what?

A

MIMO uses multiple antennas for transmission and reception,

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168
Q

Is a high signal to noise ratio good on a wireless network?

A

Yes

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169
Q

Which cables to swap for CAT wiring from B to A

A

orange to green

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170
Q

Split Horizon is in which protocols

A

RIP (Routing Information Protocol) and EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol).

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171
Q

RCF 919 is a method for

A

Broadcasting internet datagrams

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172
Q

AUP stands for

A

Acceptable use policy

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173
Q

HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) and EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) are mobile broadband technologies designed to provide high-speed internet access for cellular networks. Both emerged during the era of

174
Q

Routing Protocols

A

RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is primarily used within a single autonomous system and is less suitable for inter-domain routing.

EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) is an interior gateway protocol designed for use within a single autonomous system.

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is an interior gateway protocol used within a single autonomous system, not for inter-domain routing.

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is designed for inter-domain routing between different autonomous systems, making it suitable for large-scale enterprise networks with diverse routing domains.

175
Q

Captive portals usually rely on 802.1x, and 802.1x uses

A

RADIUS for authentication.

176
Q

VRRP stands for

A

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) allows for automaƟc assignment of available routers to
participating hosts, ensuring conƟnuous network availability even if one router fail.

First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is a general term for protocols like VRRP that provide the
ability to automaƟcally failover to a backup router in case of the primary router failure, minimizing
downtime and maintaining network resilience.

177
Q

LLDP is

A

LLDP: A vendor-neutral protocol used to discover and share information between network devices,
such as identity, capabilities, and neighbors.
 Usage: Helps in identifying network topology, troubleshooting connectivity issues, and
ensuring proper network configuration.

178
Q

CDP is

A

CDP: A Cisco-proprietary protocol similar to LLDP, specifically used in Cisco networks to share
information about directly connected Cisco devices.

179
Q

QoS operates at which OSI levels

180
Q

Multicasting is

A

one to many (subscriber)

181
Q

Unicast is

A

one to one

182
Q

Broadcast is

A

One to all

183
Q

Anycast is

A

sent to nearest receiver on same IP

184
Q

Optical cable Multi mode distance (long/short)

185
Q

Optical Cable Single mode distance (long/short)

186
Q

Voltage for data centers

187
Q

IPv6 address of ::1

188
Q

nmap -o (with IP) does?

A

operating system detail of the target server.

189
Q

Anycast can only be used on IPv?

190
Q

show interface command does?

A

This command provides comprehensive details about the operational state of the interface, including its bandwidth, duplex mode, MAC address, IP address, input/output errors, and drops.

191
Q

TACACS+ was developed as a proprietary protocol by Cisco. Kerberos is a network authentication protocol designed

A

to provide strong mutual authentication for client/server applications using secret-key cryptography developed by MIT.

192
Q

nmap -sT does

A

initiates a TCP connect scan.

193
Q

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)

A

Allows for active router and standby router

194
Q

WAN circuit switched ratio (eg one to one)

A

one to many

195
Q

WAN packet switched ratio is eg one to one

A

many to many

196
Q

WAN frame relay

A

many to one

197
Q

NAT64 allows

A

IPv6-only devices to access IPv4 resources

198
Q

FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) network throughput, provided all network devices recognize their specific frame size. What is the frame size?

A

Jumbo frame

199
Q

captive portals are implemented by using

A

an HTTP redirect, an ICMP redirect, or a DNS redirect

200
Q

What metric does OSPF use for route selection?

201
Q

LACP

A

Link Aggregation Control Protocol

202
Q

nmap -p

A

scans the post and the computer listed
eg
20, 80, 445 10.245.20.1

203
Q

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) calculates the shortest path using

A

the Dijkstra algorithm,

204
Q

EIGRP uses the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)

A

to achieve rapid convergence and ensure that routing is loop-free and reliable.

205
Q

LLDP

A

protocol used for dynamically discovering and advertising capabilities of network devices on a local area network.

206
Q

HIDS is a

A

host-based intrusion detection system

207
Q

Broadcast only works on IPv?

208
Q

MIB in SNMP is

A

The management information base (MIB) is a translation file that is used to describe the structure of the management data of a device subsystem using a hierarchical namespace containing object identifiers (OID).

209
Q

IaC branching is

A

in version control systems allows developers to work on different features or fixes in isolation

210
Q

what does the application layer within software-defined networking do?

A

focuses on the communication resource requests or information about the network

211
Q

what does the Management layer within software-defined networking do?

A

is used to monitor traffic conditions, the status of the network, and allows network administrators to oversee the network and gain insight into its operations.

212
Q

what does the control layer within software-defined networking do?

A

uses the information from applications to decide how to route a data packet on the network and to make decisions about how traffic should be prioritized, how it should be secured, and where it should be forwarded to.

213
Q

what does the infrastructure layer within software-defined networking do?

A

contains the physical networking devices that receive information from the control layer about where to move the data and then perform those movements.

214
Q

Native VLANS use tagged or untagged traffic?

215
Q

The Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) achieves faster convergence compared to the original Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) through the use of

A

point-to-point links.

216
Q

nmap -sU

217
Q

nmap -sT

218
Q

nmap -sV

219
Q

RADIUS, TACACS+, and PAP are all protocols that contain known vulnerabilities that would require

A

additional encryption to secure them during the authentication process.

220
Q

Which of RDP and VNC (Virtual Network Computing) have security

221
Q

IMAP is on port

222
Q

IMAP over SSL is on port

223
Q

Transport layer security (TLS) can be used to encapsulate

A

frames or IP packets.

224
Q

Authentication header (AH) protocol performs

A

a cryptographic hash on the whole packet, including the IP header, plus a shared secret key, and adds this secret in its header as an Integrity check value (ICV).

225
Q

Encapsulating security payload (ESP) provides

A

(it attaches fields) confidentiality and/or authentication and integrity. It can be used to encrypt the packet rather than simply calculating a hash.

226
Q

Internet protocol security (IPSec) can be used to secure

A

IPv4 and/or IPv6 communications on local networks and as a remote access protocol.

227
Q

Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) Tunneling protocol allows the transmission

A

of encapsulated frames or packets from different types of network protocol over an IPv4 network.

228
Q

(CSMA/CA) stands for

A

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance

229
Q

(CSMA/CD) stands for

A

CSMA with Collision Detection

230
Q

Multimode fiber is inexpensive to deploy compared to single-mode fiber. As such, it does not support long distances as single-mode. Uses what light source

231
Q

the small form-factor pluggable (SFP) uses what connector

A

LC small connector

232
Q

(QSFP) cable stand for

A

Quad small form-factor pluggable

233
Q

Cable distances: SR, SX, FX, LX

A

300m, 300m, 2km, 5km

234
Q

Cable distance Twinaxial (10Gb), 10GBASE-LR, 10BASE-T (twisted pair)

A

5-10m, 10km, 100m

235
Q

The Fibre Channel connects storage area networks using 3 main types of components:

A

the initiator
the target
the Fibre Channel switch.

The initiator is the client device of the SAN. The target is the network port for a storage device. The Fibre Channel switch, sometimes referred to as a director, provides the connections between the initiator and the target.

236
Q

(APC) are a connector stands for

A

Angled physical contact

237
Q

The ultra physical contact (UPC) fiber connector defines

A

that the cable and connector are polished to the highest standard (a higher standard than with PC).

238
Q

Private IP Classes A, B, C, APIPA

A

10, 172, 192, 169

239
Q

The routing information protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol

A

the next hop router to reach a given network or subnet (vector)

240
Q

Hybrid Routing Protocol is an advanced distance vector comprised of two elements:

A

bandwidth and delay.

241
Q

OSPF is suitable for organizations with multiple

A

redundant paths between networks.

242
Q

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) relies on neighboring routers to report

A

paths to remote networks and uses a metric composed of administrator-weighted elements.

243
Q

A virtual IP (VIP) is a shared

A

address that is used by clients to access the service provided by the cluster.

244
Q

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) will consider how many routes

245
Q

In FHRP configurations each router must have a unique

A

MAC and IP address, but they share a common virtual IP address.

246
Q

Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) is the protocol that identifies routes within an

A

autonomous system (AS)

247
Q

OSPF is suitable for organizations with multiple

A

redundant paths between networks.

248
Q

RIP only considers the next hop router

A

to reach a given network or subnet (vector).

249
Q

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)

A

relies on neighboring routers to report paths to remote networks and uses a metric composed of administrator-weighted elements.

250
Q

The Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is a patch vector routing protocol used between routing

A

domains in a mesh internetwork.

251
Q

subinterface is bound to a

A

physical interface on a router and allocated a VLAN ID

252
Q

SVI is a virtual interface on a Layer 3 switch that is bound to a

253
Q

Top-of-rack switching refers to the practice of using switches specifically made to provide high-bandwidth links between

A

distribution switches and server nodes.

254
Q

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP), which can be used to auto-negotiate the

A

bonded link between the switch ports and the end system, detects configuration errors and recovers from the failure of one of the physical links.

255
Q

A trunk interconnects between

A

switches on large networks. A sysadmin will configure each switch as a trunk port for this purpose.

256
Q

Link aggregation means combining two or more separate cabled links into a single logical channel. When done from the host end, this is called

A

NIC teaming.

257
Q

What happens when an 802.1Q tagged frame is received on an untagged port?

A

The tag is stripped, and the frame is forwarded to the host

258
Q

(WPA2)-Personal uses a

259
Q

Cellular speeds 2G, 3G, 4G, 5G

A

14Kbps
3.1Mbps
150Mbps
50-300Mbps

260
Q

A Yagi (a bar with fins) antenna direction

A

unidirectional and outdoors

261
Q

A torus (donut) antenna

A

unidirectional and indoors

262
Q

The SNMP agent maintains a database called a

A

Management Information Base (MIB)

263
Q

An agent’s MIB on a device refers to each parameter stored in it by a numeric

A

object Identifier (OID). A tree structure stores the OIDs.

264
Q

A port security configuration validates the

A

MAC address of end systems that connect to a switch port.

265
Q

A 200 status code indicates that an HTTP request has

266
Q

A 404 status code indicates that the requested resource could not be

267
Q

A 500 status code indicates an internal

A

server error

268
Q

A 302 status code indicates a temporary

A

redirection

269
Q

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a

A

dictionary of vulnerabilities in published operating systems

270
Q

A cluster is a group of servers, each of which is referred to as a node, that provides

A

redundancy and fault tolerance for critical applications.

271
Q

A Service (SRV) record is a DNS record used to identify a record that is providing a

A

network service or protocol.

272
Q

External DNS servers refers to an external DNS zone that

A

internet clients must be able to access.

273
Q

Most external DNS servers are managed by third-party organizations and are referred to as

A

external DNS servers.

274
Q

Full tunnel allows internet access that is mediated by the corporate network that will alter the client’s

A

IP address and DNS servers and may use a proxy.

275
Q

Split tunnel allows the client to access the internet directly using its native

A

IP configuration and DNS servers.

276
Q

Virtual Network Computing (VNC) allows a site to operate a remote

A

desktop gateway that facilitates access to virtual desktops or individual apps running on the network servers.

277
Q

Tunnel mode is used for communication between VPN gateways across an

A

unsecure network.

278
Q

In a full tunnel VPN configuration, all of the client’s internet traffic is routed through the

A

corporate network.

This setup alters the client’s IP address and DNS servers and may use a proxy, offering better security by ensuring all data is encrypted and monitored.

279
Q

Split tunnel configuration allows the client to access the internet directly

A

using ISP-managed configurations, not full tunnel.

280
Q

ARP poisoning perpetuates a MitM attack by

A

broadcasting unsolicited gratuitous ARP reply packets with a spoofed source address.

281
Q

arp -a

A

reviewing the returned Media Access Control (MAC) address.

282
Q

arp -s

A

-s allows administrators to add an entry to the ARP cache. The administrator would add the MAC behind the IP.

283
Q

arp commands

A

-a reviewing the returned Media Access Control (MAC) address.
-s allows administrators to add an entry to the ARP cache. The administrator would add the MAC behind the IP.
-d will delete the entry for the IP address

284
Q

War driving uses a Wi-Fi sniffer to

A

detect wireless networks and then connect or try to break into them.

285
Q

a single firewall is that the single firewall configuration typically employs a

A

triple homed setup.

286
Q

What happens when a Topology Change Notification (TCN) is received in a network using STP?

A

Ports may change their status from forwarding to blocked or vice versa.

287
Q

The iptables command line utility is used to

A

edit the rules enforced by the Linux kernel firewall. It can change INPUT, OUTPUT and FORWARD chains that are firewall rulesets.

288
Q

The route command is a command utility to

A

configure and manage the routing table on a Windows or Linux host.

289
Q

show running-config interface

A

(displays concise summary information)

290
Q

show interface

A

(displays extended information)

291
Q

show interface ethernet counters

A

command displays interface statistics.

292
Q

show ip cache flow command displays

A

the NetFlow accounting statistics.

293
Q

Iperf is a network performance utility that can

A

generate TCP and UDP traffic to test bandwidth, latency, and packet loss.

294
Q

how mls netflow ip command displays

A

NetFlow IP entries.

295
Q

domain information groper (dig) utility is used to query

A

Domain Name System (DNS) server and return information about a particular domain name.

296
Q

The netstat command allows for checking the state of

A

ports on a local host

297
Q

arp commands

A

-a reviewing the returned Media Access Control (MAC) address.
-s allows administrators to add an entry to the ARP cache. The administrator would add the MAC behind the IP.
-d will delete the entry for the IP address

298
Q

iptables command line utility is used to

A

change INPUT, OUTPUT and FORWARD chains that are firewall rulesets.

299
Q

The data link layer describes

A

an agreement between the different systems on the same network segment on how to communicate.

300
Q

The network layer

A

handles logical addressing and routing

301
Q

the transport layer, enables

A

end-to-end communication between running applications on different hosts. eg TCP and UPD

302
Q

Session Layer

A

is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and synchronising communication between applications running on different hosts

303
Q

The presentation layer

A

data encoding, compression, and encryption.

304
Q

IPSec in Tunnel mode encrypts

A

both the header and payload

305
Q

IPSec in Transport mode encrpts

A

the payload of each packet but leaves the header

306
Q

SDN Data plane is

A

responsible for packets forwarding

307
Q

SDN Control plane

A

manages network traffic and policies

308
Q

ST Connector fiber single or multimode

A

single mode

309
Q

SC Connector fiber single or multimode

A

single and multimode

310
Q

LC Connector (small form) fiber single or multimode

A

single and multimode

311
Q

Dual LC connector fiber single or multimode

A

single and multimode

312
Q

Multi-fiber (MPO) is high density single or multimode

A

single and multimode

313
Q

A stateful firewall inspects everything

A

inside data packets, the characteristics of the data, and its channels of communication.

314
Q

DoT is

A

DNS over TLS (DoT) encrypts DNS queries and responses, providing protection against eavesdropping by external attackers.

315
Q

DoH is

A

DNS over HTTPS (DoH), DoT operates on the traditional DNS port (port 53), which makes it suitable for organizations looking to secure their DNS traffic without altering standard DNS traffic flow.

316
Q

IP helper address

A

enable a single DHCP server to provide DHCP IP addresses to every PC on the network

317
Q

The switch with the lowest bridge priority becomes

A

the root switch

318
Q

What ar ethe 7 steps of the problem solving model

A
  1. Identify the problem
  2. Establish a theory of probable cause
  3. Test the theory to determine the cause
  4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects
  5. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.
  6. Verify full system functionality amd implement preventive measures if applicable
  7. Document finding, action, outcomes and lessons learned throughout the process.
319
Q

DLP stands for

A

Data Loss Prevention

320
Q

In EIGRP the back up route when the primary route fails is called the

A

Feasible sucessor

321
Q

PKI Stands for

A

Public Key Infrastructure

322
Q

DHCP can not have a static

A

IP address

323
Q

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an

A

authentication framework that allows for the use of different authentication methods for secure network access technologies.

324
Q

PAP and CHAP based on password or certificates

325
Q

netstat command show

A

all active network connections

326
Q

arp show

A

IP to MAC address translations

327
Q

Acronym ACL

A

Access Control List: A set of rules used to control network traƯic and access to resource

328
Q

Acronym AH

A

Authentication Header: A protocol used to provide connectionless integrity and data origin
authentication

329
Q

Acronym ARP

A

Address Resolution Protocol: A protocol used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses.

330
Q

Acronym CAM

A

Content-addressable Memory: A type of memory used in networking devices for fast data lookup

331
Q

Acronym CDP

A

Cisco Discovery Protocol: A proprietary protocol used by Cisco devices to share information with directly connected devices

332
Q

Acronym CIA

A

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

333
Q

Acronym CLI

A

Command line interface

334
Q

Acronym DAC

A

Direct Attached Copper

335
Q

Acronym DAS

A

Direct attached storage

336
Q

Acronym DR

A

Disaster Recovery

337
Q

Acronym EAPoL

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN: A network port authentication protocol used in wired and wireless networks.

338
Q

Acronym ESP

A

ESP - Encapsulating Security Payload: A protocol used in IPSec to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data packets.

339
Q

Acronym GDPR

A

General Data Protection Regulation: A regulation in the EU governing data protection and privacy.

340
Q

Acronym GRE

A

GRE - Generic Routing Encapsulation: A tunneling protocol used to encapsulate a wide variety of network layer protocols.

341
Q

Acronym IAM

A

IAM - Identity and Access Management: A framework of policies and technologies for ensuring that the right users have the appropriate access to technology resources.

342
Q

Acronym ICS

A

Industrial Control System: Systems used to control industrial processes, including SCADA, DCS, and PLCs.

343
Q

Acronym IIoT

A

IIoT - Industrial Internet of Things: The use of IoT technology in industrial sectors and applications.

344
Q

Acronym IKE

A

Internet Key Exchange: A protocol used to set up a secure, authenticated communication channel in IPSec.

345
Q

Acronym IPAM

A

IPAM - Internet Protocol Address Management: Tools and processes for planning, tracking, and managing IP address space.

346
Q

Acronym IPSec

A

Internet Protocol Security: A suite of protocols used to secure Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet.

347
Q

Acronym IS-IS

A

IS-IS - Intermediate System to Intermediate System: A routing protocol used to move information eficiently within a computer network, a variant of the link-state routing protocol.

348
Q

Acronym LACP

A

Link Aggregation Control Protocol

349
Q

Acronym LDAP

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

350
Q

Acronym LLDP

A

Link Layer Discovery Protocol: A protocol used by network devices to advertise their identity and capabilities to neighbors on the same local network.

351
Q

Acronym MDIX

A

Medium Dependent Interface Crossover: A network interface that automatically crosses over the transmit and receive pairs of a cable

352
Q

Acronym NAC

A

Network Access Control: A security solution that controls access to a network based on policies, including authentication and compliance checks.

353
Q

Acronym OT

A

OT - Operational Technology: Hardware and software that detects or causes changes through direct monitoring and control of physical devices, processes, and events.

354
Q

Acronym PSK

A

PSK - Pre-shared Key: A shared secret used for securing wireless networks, typically used in WPA or
WPA2.

355
Q

Acronym RJ

A

RJ - Registered Jack: A standardized physical network interface for connecting telecommunications or networking equipment.

356
Q

Acronym SAML

A

SAML - Security Assertion Markup Language: An XML-based standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, particularly between an identity provider and a service
provider.

357
Q

Acronym SASE

A

SASE - Secure Access Service Edge: A network architecture model that combines network security functions with WAN capabilities to support the secure access needs of organizations.

358
Q

Acronym SCADA

A

SCADA - Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition: A system used for remote monitoring and control of industrial processes.

359
Q

Acronym SDN

A

SDN - Software-defined Network: An approach to networking that uses software-based controllers to manage network resources and services.

360
Q

Acronym SIP

A

SIP - Session Initiation Protocol: A protocol used to initiate, maintain, and terminate real-time sessions in IP networks, such as voice and video calls.

361
Q

Acronym SIEM

A

SIEM - Security Information and Event Management: A solution that provides real-time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and applications.

362
Q

Acronym SMB

A

SMB - Server Message Block: A network protocol used for providing shared access to files, printers, and serial ports between nodes on a network.

363
Q

Acronym SOA

A

SOA - Start of Authority: A DNS record that provides information about the DNS zone and the authoritative server for that zone.

364
Q

Acronym SSE

A

SSE - Security Service Edge: A framework that combines multiple security services, such as SWG, CASB, and ZTNA, to protect users and data in the cloud.

365
Q

Acronym SVI

A
  • Switch Virtual Interface: A virtual interface used to manage a switch and allow communication
    between VLANs.
366
Q

Acronym UTM

A

UTM - Unified Threat Management: A security solution that integrates multiple security features, such as firewall, antivirus, and intrusion detection, into a single device.

367
Q

Acronym VLSM

A

VLSM - Variable Length Subnet Mask: A technique that allows for more eƯicient allocation of IP addresses by using diƯerent subnet masks within the same network

368
Q

Acronym ZTA

A

ZTA - Zero Trust Architecture: A security model that assumes no implicit trust, requiring verification of every access attempt regardless of its origin.

369
Q

Routes use what type of cable for a direct connection

370
Q

ISAKMP is used with what to creat a secure session

371
Q

Ports used on RSTP

A

Root
Designated
Alternaive
Back up
Disabled

372
Q

CWDM is

A

is commonly used in metropolitan area networks (MANs) and in situations where operators want to maximize the capacity of their existing fiber infrastructure without the necessity of installing additional fibers.

373
Q

CWDM v DWDM in cost

A

more cost-effective

374
Q

DWDM is used in

A

used in long-haul telecommunications

375
Q

MAC Table is MAC linked to port and is on a

376
Q

ARP Table is a IP to MAC address and is on a

377
Q

ICV stands for

A

Integrity Value Check

378
Q

Authentication Header (AH) and Encapsulating security payload (ESP) are part of

379
Q

Point-to-point protocol (PPP) is an encapsulation protocol that works at which OSI Level

380
Q

NS record (DNS) tells the computer

A

where to go for th name.

381
Q

Administrative distance order OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP

A

BGP, EIGRP, OSPF, RIP

382
Q

Outgoing email uses

A

SNMP and encryption of TLS/STARTTLS

383
Q

Incoming email uses

A

POP or IMAP and encryption of SSL/TLS

384
Q

SSH uses TCP or UDP

385
Q

FTP uses TCP or UDP

386
Q

POP runs security on

387
Q

SMTP runs security

A

TLS/STARTTLS

388
Q

Transciever and media converter are in which OSI layer

389
Q

MAC, Bridge,and EUI are in which OSI layer

390
Q

UDP Protocols

A

67/68 DHCP, 69 TFTP, 123 NTP, 161/162 SNMP, 514 SYSLOG

391
Q

OSPF is a distance or link state routing protocol

A

Link state

392
Q

IS-IS (like OSPF) is a distance or link state routing protocol

A

Link state

393
Q

EIGRP using bandwidth and delay is a distance or link state routing protocol

A

Neither it is s hybrid of both

394
Q

Duplex mismatch can cause what type of error?

395
Q

MU-MIMO is used in which wireless technology

396
Q

IPv6 - Link local unicast

A

fe80::/10

fe80

397
Q

IPv6 - Multicast

A

ff00::/8

ff

398
Q

IPv6 - Unspecified

A

::/128

0::0

399
Q

IPv6 - Loopback

A

::1/128

::1

400
Q

3G has what technology

A

WCDMA, HSPA, HSPA+

401
Q

4G has what technology

A

LTE, LTE-A

402
Q

5G has what technology

A

GSM amd CDMA

403
Q

What does the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol encrypt (IP header, payload, optional authentication, whole packet)

A

payload nad optional authentication

404
Q

LC connector size wise is

405
Q

PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) is

A

unencrypted over plain text

406
Q

EAP-TLS (Extensible Authentication Protocol - TLS) uses what encryption and what for authentication

A

PKI & TLS encryption and certificates but hard to impliment

407
Q

CHAP (Challenge Handshake AUthentication Protocol) uses a

A

three way handshake weaker than EAP-TLS, hash based encryption

408
Q

MS-CHAP uses weak encryption so is susceptible to

A

dictionary attack

409
Q

NSG (Network Security Group) works like a

410
Q

NSG (Network Security Group) controles

A

traffic flow between subnets, VMs, or external sources.

411
Q

IAM (Identity and Access Management) purpose is to

A

manage user identities, roles, and permissions for cloud resources.

412
Q

IAM (Identity and Access Management) has the functionality of

A

Authentication: Who can access cloud resources (users, groups, service accounts).

Authorization: What actions they can perform (read, write, delete, manage).

Enforces role-based access control (RBAC).

Supports MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) for security.

413
Q

Order of Resolving a DNS query TLD, Authorative, root, local

A

local, root, tdl, authorative

414
Q

SVR record is for

A

Host name and port number

415
Q

IPSec Tunnell Mode encrypts the

A

entire IP packet

416
Q

IPSec Transport mode encrypts

A

only the payload

417
Q

A solid amber LED on a switch port signifies that the port is blocked

A

is blocked by the spanning tree algorithm, which is a network protocol that ensures a loop-free topology for any bridged Ethernet local area network.

418
Q

A flickering green LED, not a solid amber one,

A

indicates that the link is operating normally with traffic.

419
Q

A blinking amber LED, not a solid amber one, indicates

A

a fault such as a duplex mismatch.

420
Q

A solid green LED, not a solid amber one, indicates

A

that the link is connected but there is no traffic passing through.

421
Q

VLAN Port Type - Access Port function

A

Connects end devices only one VLAN and untagged

422
Q

VLAN Port Type Trunk port function

A

Connects switches or other VLAN-aware devices and carries traffic for multiple VLANs, tagged

423
Q

VLAN Port Type Hybrid or dynamic

A

Can operate as either an access or trunk port, depending on the connected device.

424
Q

If Windows detects a duplicate IP (Internet Protocol) address it will

A

display a warning and disable IP traffic.

425
Q

Header fields in an ethernet frame

A

Preamble, SDF, Destination MAC, source MAc and ether type

Error checking at the end FSC or CRC

426
Q

Tunneling is when an IPv6 packet is inserted into a

A

IPv4 packet

427
Q

ULA are IPv6 address that are

A

are private IP addresses

428
Q

NAT router stores port number on a

A

translation table

429
Q

RADIUS stands for

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

430
Q

TACACS+ stands for

A

Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus

431
Q

IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol) is for what type of system

A

Autonomous systems

CompTIA Network+ 009 (2 decks)

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