Dinsdag 301-600 Flashcards

1
Q

A user calls the IT department to report being unable to log in after locking the computer. The user resets the password, but later in the day the user is again unable to log in after locking the computer. Which of the following attacks against the user is MOST likely taking place?

A. Brute-force
B. On-path
C. Deauthentication
D. Phishing

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Brute-force attack is most likely taking place. A brute-force attack is a method of guessing a password by trying a large number of possible combinations until the correct one is found. In this scenario, the user reset the password, but it is still being guessed by the attacker, causing the user to be unable to log in after locking the computer.

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2
Q

Which of the following is used to elect an STP root?
A. A bridge ID
B. A bridge protocol data unit
C. Interface port priority
D. A switch’s root port

A

Answer: A

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3
Q

Which of the following will reduce routing table lookups by performing packet forwarding decisions independently of the network layer header?
A. MPLS
B. mGRE
C. EIGRP
D. VRRP

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
MPLS is a networking technology that allows data packets to be forwarded based on short path labels rather than long network addresses. This reduces the need for routing table lookups, as the packet forwarding decisions can be made independently of the network layer header.

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4
Q

A technician is deploying a new SSID for an industrial control system. The control devices require the network to use encryption that employs TKIP and a symmetrical password to connect. Which of the following should the technician configure to ensure compatibility with the control devices?
A.WPA2-Enterprise
B.WPA-Enterprise
C.WPA-PSK
D.WPA2-PSK

A

Answer: D

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5
Q

During a recent security audit, a contracted penetration tester discovered the organization uses a number of insecure protocols. Which of the following ports should be disallowed so only encrypted protocols are allowed? (Choose two.)
A. 22
B. 23
C. 69
D. 443
E. 587
F. 8080

A

Answer: BC

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6
Q

A network client is trying to connect to the wrong TCP port. Which of the following responses would the client MOST likely receive?
A. RST
B. FIN
C. ICMP Time Exceeded
D. Redirect

A

Answer: A

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7
Q

Network users reported that a recent firmware upgrade to a firewall did not resolve the issue that prompted the upgrade. Which of the following should be performed NEXT?

A. Reopen the service ticket, request a new maintenance window, and roll back to the anterior firmware version.
B. Gather additional information to ensure users’ concerns are not been caused by a different issue with similar symptoms.
C. Employ a divide-and-conquer troubleshooting methodology by engaging the firewall vendor’s support.
D. Escalate the issue to the IT management team in order to negotiate a new SLA with the user’s manager.

A

Answer: B

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7
Q

A client who shares office space and an IT closet with another company recently reported connectivity issues throughout the network. Multiple third-party vendors regularly perform on-site maintenance in the shared IT closet. Which of the following security techniques would BEST secure the physical networking equipment?

A. Disabling unneeded switchports
B. Implementing role-based access
C. Changing the default passwords
D. Configuring an access control list

A

Answer: A

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8
Q

Classification using labels according to information sensitivity and impact in case of unauthorized access or leakage is a mandatory component of:

A. an acceptable use policy.
B. a memorandum of understanding.
C. data loss prevention.
D. a non-disclosure agreement.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
This is basically saying the mandatory component of data loss prevention is classifying information sensitivity and impact of data leakage or unauthorized access using labels.

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9
Q

A network technician is troubleshooting a new web server connectivity issue. The network technician discovers the following on the support ticket:

  • The server’s IP address can be pinged from the client PCs.
  • Access to the web resource works correctly when on the server’s console.
  • No clients can access the server’s data via URL.
  • The server does not have a firewall configured.
  • No ACLs are preventing connectivity from the client’s network.
  • All services on the server are operating normally, which was confirmed by the server team.

Which of the following actions will resolve the issue?
A. Reset port security on the switchport connecting the server.
B. Adjust the web server’s NTP setting to match the client settings.
C. Configure A records for the web server.
D. Install the correct MIB on the web server.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Configure A records for the web server.

The problem is likely related to DNS resolution, as the clients are able to ping the server’s IP address but not access the web resource via URL. The other answers do not address this issue. Configuring A records for the web server will ensure that clients are able to access the web resource via its domain name

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10
Q

A technician is installing the Wi-Fi infrastructure for legacy industrial machinery at a warehouse. The equipment only supports 802.11a and 802.11b standards. Speed of transmission is the top business requirement. Which of the following is the correct maximum speed for this scenario?
A. 11Mbps
B. 54Mbps
C. 128Mbps
D. 144Mbps

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
b - 11 Mbps

a - 54 Mbps

54 is greater than 11, thus maximum.

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11
Q

A network administrator is given the network 80.87.78.0/26 for specific device assignments. Which of the following describes this network?
A. 80.87.78.0 - 80.87.78.14
B. 80.87.78.0 - 80.87.78.110
C. 80.87.78.1 - 80.87.78.62
D. 80.87.78.1 - 80.87.78.158

A

Answer: C

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11
Q

A Wi-Fi network was originally configured to be able to handle interference from a microwave oven. The microwave oven was recently removed from the office. Now the network administrator wants to optimize the system to maximize the range of the signal. The main sources of signal degradation are the numerous cubicles and wooden walls between the WAP and the intended destination. Which of the following actions should the administrator take?

A. Implement CDMA.
B. Change from omni to directional.
C. Change the SSID.
D. Change the frequency.

A

Answer: B

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11
Q

Which of the following would be BEST suited for a long cable run with a 40Gbps bandwidth?
A. Cat 5e
B. Cat 6a
C. Cat 7
D. Cat 8

A

Answer: D

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12
Q

A network device needs to discover a server that can provide it with an IPv4 address. Which of the following does the device need to send the request to?

A. Default gateway
B. Broadcast address
C. Unicast address
D. Link local address

A

Answer: B

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13
Q

A network security engineer locates an unapproved wireless bridge connected to the corporate LAN that is broadcasting a hidden SSID, providing unauthenticated access to internal resources. Which of the following types of attacks BEST describes this finding?

A. Rogue access point
B. Evil twin
C. ARP spoofing
D. VLAN hopping

A

Answer: A

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14
Q

Which of the following documents is MOST likely to be associated with identifying and documenting critical applications?
A. Software development life-cycle policy
B. User acceptance testing plan
C. Change management policy
D. Business continuity plan

A

Answer: D

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15
Q

A help desk engineer needs to configure two servers to have the same public IP addresses. Which of the following technologies should the engineer use?

A. NAT
B. VIP
C. DNS caching
D. RFC 1918
E. SDWAN

A

Answer: B

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15
Q

A network administrator is investigating a performance issue on a dual-link connection — VPN and MPLS — to a partner network. The MPLS is the primary path, and the VPN is used as a backup. While communicating, the delay is measured at 18ms, which is higher than the 6ms expected when the MPLS link is operational but lower than the 30ms expected for the VPN connection. Which of the following will MOST likely point to the root cause of the issue?

A. Checking the routing tables on both sides to ensure there is no asymmetric routing
B. Checking on the partner network for a missing route pointing to the VPN connection
C. Running iPerf on both sides to confirm the delay that is measured is accurate
D. Checking for an incorrect VLAN assignment affecting the MPLS traffic

A

Answer: A

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16
Q

Which of the following bandwidth management techniques uses butters at the client side to prevent TCP retransmissions from occurring when the ISP starts to drop packets of specific types that exceed the agreed traffic rate?
A. Traffic shaping
B. Traffic policing
C. Traffic marking
D. Traffic prioritization

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Traffic shaping.

Traffic shaping is a bandwidth management technique that allows the administrator to control the flow of traffic from the network to the client. The technique uses buffers at the client side to prevent TCP retransmissions from occurring when the ISP starts to drop packets of specific types that exceed the agreed traffic rate. Traffic shaping enables the administrator to prioritize traffic types and specify the maximum bandwidth that each traffic type can consume.

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17
Q

Which of the following is an advanced distance vector routing protocol that automates routing tables and also uses some features of link-state routing protocols?
A.OSPF
B.RIP
C.EIGRP
D.BGP

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) is an advanced distance vector routing protocol that automates routing tables and also uses some features of link-state routing protocols. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol used in larger networks that require fast convergence and scalability.

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17
Q

Which of the following record types would be used to define where SIP is found?

A.SRV
B.CNAME
C.A
D.MX

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. SRV.SRV (Service) record is used to define the location (hostname and port number) of servers for specified services. SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is a signaling protocol used for controlling communication sessions such as voice and video calls over IP networks. Therefore, SRV record type is used to define where SIP is found by specifying the hostname and port number of the server that provides the SIP service.

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18
Q

A PC user who is on a local network reports very slow speeds when accessing files on the network server. The user’s PC is connecting, but file downloads are very slow when compared to other users’ download speeds. The PC’s NIC should be capable of Gigabit Ethernet. Which of the following will MOST likely fix the issue?

A.Releasing and renewing the PC’s IP address
B.Replacing the patch cable
C.Reseating the NIC inside the PC
D.Flushing the DNS cache

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Replacing the patch cable is the most likely solution to fix the issue of slow download speeds when accessing files on the network server. A faulty or damaged patch cable can cause packet loss and reduce the overall speed of the network connection, even if the NIC is capable of Gigabit Ethernet. Releasing and renewing the PC’s IP address, reseating the NIC inside the PC, and flushing the DNS cache are unlikely to resolve the issue of slow download speeds on the network.

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19
Q

A company is designing a SAN and would like to use STP as its medium for communication. Which of the following protocols would BEST suit the company’s needs?

A.SFTP
B.Fibre Channel
C.iSCSI
D.FTP

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
STP = shielded twisted pair, an Ethernet cable sort. iSCSI works via Ethernet, answer is correct.

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20
Q

An administrator would like to have two servers at different geographical locations provide fault tolerance and high performance while appearing as one URL to users. Which of the following should the administrator implement?

A.Load balancing
B.Multipathing
C.NIC teaming
D.Warm site

A

Answer: A

21
Q

A company needs to virtualize a replica of its internal physical network without changing the logical topology and the way that devices behave and are managed. Which of the following technologies meets this requirement?

A.NVF
B.SDWAN
C.VIP
D.MPLS

A

Answer: A

22
Q

An administrator is investigating reports of network slowness in a building. While looking at the uplink interface statistics in the switch’s CLI, the administrator discovers the uplink is at 100% utilization. However, the administrator is unsure how to identify what traffic is causing the saturation. Which of the following tools should the administrator utilize to identify the source and destination addresses of the traffic?

A.SNMP
B.Traps
C.Syslog
D.NetFlow

A

Answer: D

22
Q

Which of the following devices and encapsulations are found at the data link layer? (Choose two.)
A.Session
B.Frame
C.Firewall
D.Switch
E.Packet
F.Router

A

Answer: BD

22
Q

An IT technician is working on a support ticket regarding an unreachable website. The technician has utilized the ping command to the website, but the site is still unreachable. Which of the following tools should the technician use NEXT?

A.ipconfig
B.tracert
C.arp
D.netstat

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
Use Traceroute or MTR: Traceroute (Windows) or MTR (Linux/macOS) can provide more detailed information about the network path between your computer and the web server. This can help identify where the connection is failing.

22
Q

A new office space is being designed. The network switches are up, but no services are running yet. A network engineer plugs in a laptop configured as a DHCP client to a switch. Which of the following IP addresses should be assigned to the laptop?

A.10.1.1.1
B.169.254.1.128
C.172.16.128.128
D.192.168.0.1

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
If no DHCP server is running yet, the laptop will be assigned a self-assigned IP address in the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) range. The APIPA range is 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254. Therefore, the correct answer is B. 169.254.1.128.

23
Q

An organization requires the ability to send encrypted email messages to a partner from an email server that is hosted on premises. The organization prefers to use the standard default ports when creating firewall rules. Which of the following ports should be open to satisfy the requirements?

A.110
B.143
C.587
D.636

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Port 587 is used for email message submission, typically by clients to an email server. It supports the encrypted transmission of email messages using Transport Layer Security (TLS) or Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Ports 110 and 143 are used for email retrieval by clients from an email server. Port 636 is used for LDAP over SSL.

24
Q

A technician troubleshoots a computer that has intermittent network connectivity and notices the termination point is loose. The technician also observes that the patch cable has already been replaced.

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A.Use a tone generator to trace the cable
B.Use a multimeter to determine if PoE is available on the switchport
C.Use a cable crimper to replace the RJ45 connector on the patch cable
D.Use a punchdown tool to reseat the copper in the wall jack

A

Answer: D

25
Q

Which of the following default ports is MOST likely used to send availability and environmental messages about specific devices across the network?
A.23
B.53
C.389
D.514
E.3306

A

Answer: D

26
Q

An ISP configured an internet connection to provide 20Mbps, but actual data rates are occurring at 10Mbps and causing a significant delay in data transmission. Which of the following specifications should the ISP check?
A.Throughput
B.Latency
C.Bandwidth
D.Jitter

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
The command that generated this output is “show route”.The output shows the routing table entries for the switch, with the network address, next hop IP address, and outgoing interface for each route. This information is used by the switch to determine the best path for forwarding packets to their destination.

27
Q

A fiber patch cable, which was being stored in an unsecure telecommunications closet with janitorial supplies, was damaged and caused an outage. A network technician replaced the broken cable with a new cable from a sealed bag. However, this solution did not resolve the outage. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation?

A.Incorrect pinout
B.Incorrect transceivers
C.Reversed transmit and receive
D.Dirty optical cables

A

Answer: D

27
Q

Which of the following has the capability to centrally manage configuration, logging, and firmware versioning for distributed devices?
A.WLAN controller
B.Load balancer
C.SIEM solution
D.Syslog server

A

Answer: A

28
Q

Many IP security cameras use RTSP to control media playback. Which of the following default transport layer port numbers does RTSP use?

A.445
B.554
C.587
D.5060

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
RTSP control channel port: TCP port 554 is the default port used by RTSP to establish and control the communication session between the client and the server. This port is used for sending commands and receiving responses during the session.

29
Q

An engineer is using a tool to run an ICMP sweep of a network to find devices that are online. When reviewing the results, the engineer notices a number of workstations that are currently verified as being online are not listed in the report.

The tool was configured to scan using the following information:

Network address: 172.28.16.0 -

CIDR: /22 -

The engineer collected the following information from the client workstation:

IP address: 172.28.17.206 -

Subnet mask: 255.255.252.0 -

Which of the following MOST likely explains why the tool is failing to detect some workstations?
A.The scanned network range is incorrect.
B.The subnet mask on the client is misconfigured.
C.The workstation has a firewall enabled.
D.The tool is unable to scan remote networks.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
Range is correct, so is subnet mask. So the only possible reason is the clients have firewall enabled and rejecting ICMP.

30
Q

A technician thinks one of the router ports is flapping. Which of the following available resources should the technician use in order to determine if the router is flapping?

A.Audit logs
B.NetFlow
C.Syslog
D.Traffic logs

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. SyslogPort flapping is when something connected to that network port is constantly reconnecting and disconnecting. As a result, Syslog can record and report that information as it stores logs from routers, switches and firewalls.

30
Q

Which of the following layers is where TCP/IP port numbers identify which network application is receiving the packet and where it is applied?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
TCP operates at Layer 4 of the OSI model aka Transport Layer

31
Q

Which of the following protocols can be routed?

A.FCoE
B.Fibre Channel
C.iSCSI
D.NetBEUI

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C. iSCSI. iSCSI is a routable protocol that uses TCP/IP to transport SCSI commands over IP networks. FCoE and Fibre Channel are non-routable protocols that use Ethernet or optical fiber to transport SCSI commands over LANs or SANs. NetBEUI is a non-routable protocol that uses broadcasts to transport NetBIOS commands over LANs.

32
Q

At which of the following OSI model layers does a MAC filter list for a wireless infrastructure operate?
A.Physical
B.Network
C.Session
D.Data link

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. Data link layer is where a MAC filter list for a wireless infrastructure operates.The data link layer is the second layer in the OSI model and is responsible for providing error-free transfer of data frames between nodes over a physical link. This layer is divided into two sub-layers: the Media Access Control (MAC) layer and the Logical Link Control (LLC) layer. The MAC layer is responsible for controlling how devices in a network gain access to the physical medium and transmit data. In wireless networks, a MAC filter list is a security feature that operates at the MAC layer and controls which devices are allowed to connect to the network based on their MAC addresses.

33
Q

A customer cannot reach a web application on a local server. The network consultant suspects that the server is not accepting the HTTPS connection. Which of the following commands should the consultant run on the server to determine what is occurring?

A.route
B.arp
C.nmap
D.netstat

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
GPT: The netstat command is a useful tool for checking open ports on a system, along with active connections and associated processes. By running the netstat command with appropriate options, the consultant can determine if the server is listening on the HTTPS port and if any connections are being established to the server on that port.The command would be netstat -ano on Windows and netstat -anp on Linux/Unix systems.

34
Q

A network administrator is configuring a static DSL connection on the perimeter router to use a backup route to the fiber connection using OSPF routing. The administrator notices all traffic is going over the DSL connection and both links are working. Which of the following should the administrator do to adjust the routing settings for the fiber connection to be used by the router?

A.Add the DSL connection to the neighbor table for OSPF protocol
B.Change the routing protocol to EIGRP for the fiber connection
C.Increase the administrative distance of the DSL connection
D.Create a separate VLAN for the DSL connection

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
Administrative distance is a metric used by routers to determine the preference of a route. The lower the administrative distance, the higher the preference. By increasing the administrative distance of the DSL connection, the router will prefer the fiber connection since it has a lower administrative distance.

34
Q

A bank installed a new smart TV to stream online video services, but the smart TV was not able to connect to the branch Wi-Fi. The next day, a technician was able to connect the TV to the Wi-Fi, but a bank laptop lost network access at the same time. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A.DHCP scope exhaustion
B.AP configuration reset
C.Hidden SSID
D.Channel overlap

A

Answer: A

35
Q

While troubleshooting a network outage, a technician discovers symptoms that indicate a patch cable is connecting the core switch to the router. A network engineer confirms the theory is plausible, and the technician tests the cable. The cable passes the test, and the technician properly plugs the cable back into the correct network ports. However, the network outage continues. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should take to troubleshoot the network outage?

A.Establish a new theory.
B.Verify full system functionality.
C.Establish a plan of action.
D.Continue to work the original theory.

A

Answer: A

36
Q

Newly crimped 26ft (8m) STP Cat 6 patch cables were recently installed in one room to replace cables that were damaged by a vacuum cleaner. Now, users in that room are unable to connect to the network. A network technician tests the existing cables first. The 177ft (54m) cable that runs from the core switch to the access switch on the floor is working, as is the 115ft (35m) cable run from the access switch to the wall jack in the office. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the users cannot connect to the network?

A.Mixed UTP and STP cables are being used.
B.The patch cables are not plenum rated.
C.The cable distance is exceeded.
D.An incorrect pinout on the patch cable is being used.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
the issue is likely related to:D. An incorrect pinout on the patch cable is being used.Explanation:When patch cables are crimped incorrectly, using an incorrect pinout, it can lead to connectivity issues or complete network communication failures. The fact that the existing cable runs (177ft and 115ft) are working, while the newly crimped patch cables in the room are causing connection problems for users, suggests that there may be a problem with the pinout configuration on the newly crimped cables.The total cable distance of 150ft (54m + 35m) is well within the Ethernet distance limitations, so the cable distance itself is not the likely cause of the issue. Plenum rating and cable type (UTP vs. STP) are also less likely to be the primary reasons for the network connectivity problem in this scenario.

37
Q

A junior network engineer is trying to change the native network ID to a non-default value that can then be applied consistently throughout the network environment. Which of the following issues is the engineer attempting to prevent?

A.DDoS
B.ARP spoofing
C.VLAN hopping
D.Rogue DHCP

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
The junior network engineer is attempting to prevent VLAN hopping by changing the native network ID to a non-default value that can be consistently applied throughout the network environment.Explanation:VLAN hopping is a security vulnerability that can occur in situations where a switch incorrectly forwards traffic between different VLANs that should be isolated from each other. One common method attackers use to exploit VLAN hopping is by sending frames with 802.1Q tags (VLAN tags) that belong to different VLANs, causing the switch to incorrectly forward the traffic between VLANs.

37
Q

A network technician is attempting to increase throughput by configuring link port aggregation between a Gigabit Ethernet distribution switch and a Fast Ethernet access switch. Which of the following is the BEST choice concerning speed and duplex for all interfaces that are participating in the link aggregation?

A.Half duplex and 1GB speed
B.Full duplex and 1GB speed
C.Half duplex and 100MB speed
D.Full duplex and 100MB speed

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
1. The access switches are fast ethernet so only 100mb/full duplex. All interfaces would need to be set to the highest possible link speed of all devices, which is 100mb. The gigabit interfaces would need to be set to 100/full.

38
Q

A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity from a wall jack. Readings from a multimeter indicate extremely low ohmic values instead of the rated impedance from the switchport. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.Incorrect transceivers
B.Faulty LED
C.Short circuit
D.Upgraded OS version on switch

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most likely cause of extremely low ohmic values (indicating a short circuit) instead of the rated impedance from the switchport is a short circuit within the cabling or the network equipment. Explanation: Short circuit: A short circuit occurs when there is an unintended connection between two conductors or components that are not supposed to be electrically connected. This can result in extremely low resistance (ohmic value), causing a significant current flow. In the context of network cabling, a short circuit could occur due to damaged or frayed cables, improper termination, or physical damage to the cabling infrastructure.

39
Q

A technician is concerned about unauthorized personnel moving assets that are installed in a data center server rack. The technician installs a networked sensor that sends an alert when the server rack door is opened. Which of the following did the technician install?

A.Cipher lock
B.Asset tags
C.Access control vestibule
D.Tamper detection

A

Answer: D

40
Q

Which of the following routing protocols is BEST suited for use on a perimeter router?
A.OSPF
B.RIPv2
C.EIGRP
D.BGP

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
BGP is a path vector routing protocol that is designed for use between different autonomous systems (ASes) on the internet. It is commonly used for inter-domain routing, making it well-suited for perimeter routers that connect to external networks and ISPs. BGP allows the router to exchange routing information and make routing decisions based on policies, route preferences, and path attributes. It provides granular control over routing decisions and is particularly suited for large-scale networks with complex routing requirements.The other options are less suitable:A. OSPF is an interior gateway protocol commonly used within an autonomous system (AS). B. RIPv2 is also an interior gateway protocol and might not be the best choice for a perimeter router, especially in larger networks, due to its slower convergence and less advanced features compared to BGP.

40
Q

Which of the following routing protocols has routes that are classified with an administrative distance of 110?
A.BGP
B.OSPF
C.EIGRP
D.RIP

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
OSPF is the correct answer.

41
Q

An administrator is preparing an organization for a potential disaster. The administrator configures the network switches and turns off the equipment in a data center. Which of the following is this scenario an example of?

A.Warm site
B.Cold site
C.Cloud site
D.Hot site

A

Answer: A

42
Q

A network administrator is creating a subnet for a remote office that has 53 network devices. An additional requirement is to use the most efficient subnet. Which of the following CIDR notations indicates the appropriate number of IP addresses with the LEAST amount of unused addresses?
A./24
B./26
C./28
D./32

A

Answer: B

42
Q

A technician is setting up DNS records on local servers for the company’s cloud DNS to enable access by hostname. Which of the following records should be used?
A.A
B.MX
C.CNAME
D.NS

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
1. CNAME (Canonical Name) record: A CNAME record is used to create an alias or pointer to another domain name. It allows you to associate multiple hostnames with a single IP address or another domain name. In this scenario, using a CNAME record, you can map a hostname on your local servers to the corresponding hostname in the company’s cloud DNS. This is useful when you want to provide a user-friendly name for accessing resources in the cloud.

43
Q

A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company purchases a new phone that will be used while traveling to different countries. The CEO needs to be able to place outgoing calls and receive incoming calls on the phone using a SIM card. Which of the following cellular technologies does the CEO’s phone need?

A.WDMA
B.CDMA
C.GSM
D.SLA

A

Answer: C

44
Q

Which of the following is a valid alternative to maintain a deployed proxy technology while saving physical space in the data center by moving the network service to the virtualization infrastructure?

A.NFV
B.SDWAN
C.Networking as code
D.VIP

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
Network functions virtualization (NFV) is a network architecture concept that leverages IT virtualization technologies to virtualize entire classes of network node functions into building blocks that may connect, or chain together, to create and deliver communication services

45
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely be used to review disaster recovery information for a system?

A.Business continuity plan
B.Change management
C.System life cycle
D.Standard operating procedures

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Business continuity planThe business continuity plan (BCP) is specifically designed to address disaster recovery and continuity of operations in the event of a disaster or disruptive incident. It outlines the processes, procedures, and policies to be followed to ensure the organization can continue its critical functions during and after a disaster.Therefore, to review disaster recovery information for a system, the most likely document to consult would be the business continuity plan (option A).

46
Q

A customer has an attached USB printer that needs to be shared with other users. The desktop team set up printer sharing. Now, the network technician needs to obtain the necessary information about the PC and share it with other users so they can connect to the printer. Which of the following commands should the technician use to get the required information? (Choose two.)

A.arp
B.route
C.netstat
D.tcpdump
E.hostname
F.ipconfig

A

Answer: CF

Explanation:
To obtain the necessary information about the PC and share it with other users for connecting to the printer, you can use the following commands: C. netstat - This command can provide information about open network connections, listening ports, and other network-related details on the PC.F. ipconfig - This command displays the IP configuration of the PC, including the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server information. Using these commands, you can gather the relevant network information to share with other users so they can connect to the shared USB printer.