Dignity Subject Based Flashcards
1
Q
Kaya ka nahihirapan huminga dahil sa sakit sa baga dahil sa sigarilyo. Ang problema mo ay ang patuloy mong paninigarilyo gayong nasabihan ka nang nakakasama ito sa iyong kalusugan.
A
Biobehavioral
2
Q
Ang pagkakaron ni Roberta ng “hepatoma” ay dahil sa nahawa siya ng “hepatitis” sa kanyang asawa. Ang “hepatitis” ay maaaring pagsimulan ng “hepatoma”. Hindi naman sinabi sa kaniya na maaari pala itong mangyari.
A
Biopsychosocial
3
Q
Sa pagkaka-alam ni Fatima di maganda ang operasyon sa malapit na ospital sa kanila. Ayon sa paniniwala ng mga tao - basta nadala mo sa ospital na iyon, mamamatay ang tao. Kaya nang nasabihan siya na kailangan siyang pa-opera sa ospital na iyon, hindi siya pumayag. Kaya naman pumutok na tuloy ang kaniyang “appendix”.
A
Ethnocultural
4
Q
Kaya naman nagkaron ng “scabies” si Sister e dahil punta ng punta sa mga “squatter communities” at dalaw ng dalaw sa mga bahay ng may sakit. Diyan siya na-assign ng kaniyang “superior” dahil “apostolate” nila ang mag-alaga ng maysakit.
A
Biopsychosocial
5
Q
ng ikinamatay niya? Tinamaan ng kidlat.. nakuryente.
A
Biomedical
6
Q
The “C” in the acronym “SCOAP” stands for
a. Circumstances
b. Culture
c. Context
d. Circularity
A
C
7
Q
Apart from familial illnesses, the inspection of genograms can reveal
a. Contextual clues for current behavior
b. Repeating psychosocial patterns
c. Possible causes of family dysfunction
d. All of the above
A
D
8
Q
An example of a life cycle stage that is basically “centripetal” is
a. The unattached young adult
b. The newly married couple
c. The family with adolescents
d. The family in later life
A
D
9
Q
APGAR has
a. Good specificity but poor sensitivity
b. Poor specificity but good sensitivity
c. Poor specificity but poor sensitivity
d. Good specificity but good sensitivity
A
A
10
Q
The following is an example of enmeshment:
a. Right or wrong, he is my brother and I will defend him.
b. I haven’t lost a child myself, but I think I can feel how hurt you are.
c. He shouldn’t have ridiculed you in public. I feel just as angry as you.
d. I am afraid for your life. This man is dangerous.
A
A
11
Q
Climate change does not have any positive effect on human health
A
False
12
Q
In the interest of time and in fillment of their expected roles, physicians must take it upon themselves to go to disaster-stricken areas, with or without the assistance of government
A
False
13
Q
Doctors are exempted from participating in discussions with regards to climate change and disasters
A
False
14
Q
Second crisis of the family when they come into realization that they must accept and adjust the outcome and undergo different family reactions to this type of outcome
A
Adjustment to Permanency of Outcome
15
Q
Give small doses over time depending on how much information the patient can receive
A
Reaction to Diagnosis - Impact Phase
16
Q
Physician should check signs of non-compliance.
A
Major Therapeutic Efforts
17
Q
64 years old, male, experiencing malaise, weakness, and vomiting
A
Onset of Illness
18
Q
initiates a period of gradual movement from the sick role to some form of adaptation
A
Early Adjustment of Outcome - Recovery
19
Q
Celso Castro, 52 year old businessman, has been diagnosed with hypertension for the past 15 years. Blood pressure has been well-controlled and Celso was able to enjoy his life. In fact, his oldest son Carlo, (age) is getting married next month and is expecting his own child in 4 months. His wife Magda and other children, Marilyn 23, Celine 19 and Claude 14 are all excited about these upcoming events. However, one week ago during a game of golf with his friends, Celso suffered from stroke. You are the physician in charge of the case.
Apart from undoubtedly giving the most appropriate, evidence-based and cost-effective (can;t be read) treatment, you do a psychosocial evaluation and management of Celso and his family. In what stage of the family life cycle is the Castro family?
a. Family with adolescents
b. Family with young adults
c. launching family
d. Family in later life
A
C
20
Q
elso has already been evaluated and started on physical therapy to strengthen motor power. You already considering to send Celso home. In what stage of the family illness trajectory is the Castor family?
a. Major Therapeutic Efforts b. Impact Phase: Reaction to Prognosis
c. Early Adjustments to Outcome
d. Adjustment to Permanency of Outcome
A
C
21
Q
Which of the following statements is true regarding the impact of the onset of illness?
a. Effect is greater if there is a debilitating course of a chronic illness
b. The family suffers more apprehension and anxiety when the diagnosis is given earlier
c. Burden on caregiver is greater in acute illnesses
d. The family’s ability to handle stress of chronic illnesses may be limited
A
A
22
Q
To evaluate the Castro family’s ability to adapt to the illness situation, which of the following factors is/are essential?
a. Availability of resources to meet the demands of the illness
b. Low level of family vulnerability to stress
c. Adequate and appropriate style of problem -solving
d. All of the above
A
D
23
Q
The following statement is part of the Philosophy of Comprehensive Primary Health Care as expounded by the Alma Ata conference:
a. Health is a right, the gross inequality in the health status of the people is unacceptable and economic and social development is basic to the fullest attainment of health.
b. Improve health statistics in the shortest time possible so that governments will be convinced to invest in health.
c. Health can be improved mainly by cost effective and specific health interventions.
d. Provide acceptable, accessible and affordable basic primary care services for the poor and the highest possible level of health for those who can pay.
A
A
24
Q
The Pasay City Barangay Health Workers (BHWs), perform the following roles EXCEPT:
a. Together with other leaders of the Barangay Health Committee, BHWs create plans, mobilize constituents and implement measures to address health [and other] issues of their barangay b. Conduct periodic city-wide health campaigns such as Ligtas Tigdas and Garantlsadong Pambata alongside the Pasay Health Center staff c. Assist in the health center by eliciting and recording the patients' chief complaints and vital signs at the registration desk d. Assess patients in their barangays and prescribe antibiotics to patients with common infections thus saving their patients’ time in lining up in a crowded health facility e. None of the above is an exception
A
D
25
What stage of growth is characterized by slow loss of cells through death that is just balanced by the formation of new cells through growth and division?
a. Acceleration
b. Lag period
c. Exponential
d. Stationary
D
26
Which of the following statements is TRUE for endotoxins:
a. the endotoxin is also commonly referred as to lipopolysaccharide.
b. endotoxin is generally produced by both gram negative and gram positive bacteria
c. staphylococcus aureus produces a powerful endotoxin involved in food poisoning
d. it is more heat labile compared to exotoxins.
A
27
A 30 year old male has been receiving clindamycin for an anaeorobic infection. He developed intractable diarrhea with abdominal pain. Colonscopy showed yellow white pseudomembrane and an exotoxin was identified in the stool. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Clostridium difficile
b. E. coli
c. Shigella
d. Salmonella typhi
A
28
Bacteria will grow within a certain temperature range. ost of the bacteria pathogenic to man are:
a. barophilic
b. mesophilic
c. psychrophilic
d. thermophilic
B
29
Which of the following is a property of a Gram negative bacteria?
a. thick peptidoglycan layer
b. teichoic acid
c. muramic acid
d. endotoxin on outer membrane
D
30
On blood agar plate (BAP), hemolysis surrounding colonies of some bacteria with green zone are termed:
a. alpha hemolytic
b. beta hemolytic
c. gamma hemol
A
31
What is the enteric bacteria that can cause gastroenteritis which is exclusively transmitted by humans?
a. Salmonella enteritidis
b. Shigella dysenterae
c. Vibro cholera
d. Staphylococcus aureus
B
32
The following microorganisms are cells EXCEPT:
a. virus
b. fungi
c. bacteria
d. protozoa
A
33
What is the correct group of reagents and order in performing the Gram Stain?
a. Crystal violet, iodine, 95% alcohol safranin
b. Crystal violet, 95% alcohol, iodine, safranin
c. Carbolfushcin, acid alcohol, safranin
d. Crystal violet, iodine, acid alcohol, safranin
A
34
What is the predominant gram negative organism found in the large intestines of man used as an index of fecal pollution?
a. Salmonella spp
b. Escherichia coli
c. Bacteroides fragilis
d. Lactobacillus spp
B
35
A 65 yr old driver, heavy smoker and alcoholic beverage drinker went to the OPD due to cough and fever of 2 weeks duration. This was associated with poor appetite and weight loss. He was given Amoxicillin for 1 week without improvement of symptoms. A few days prior to consult, he expectorated blood tinged sputum. Lab work-ups were done. Initial impression was PTB. The following are the characteristics of the organism, EXCEPT:
a. acid fast bacilli
b. weakly gram (+) bacteria
c. lipid rich cell wall
d. grows in blood agar plate
D
36
Viruses are the smallest infectious agents. The following are distinctive characteristics of the viruses, EXCEPT:
a. viruses are very sensitive to the usual antibiotics
b. viruses replicate from their own genetic material
c. viruses are obligate intracellular parasites
d. viruses contain only a single type of nucleic acid as their genome
A
37
Most common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in children especially in the first 4 years of life.
a. Influenza virus
b. Parainfluenza virus
c. Measles virus
d. Respiratory Synctial Virus
D
38
The finding of gram positive cocci, catalase test positive and coagulase test positive can presumptively identify which of the following organisms?
a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Staphylococcus viridians
C
39
Microorganisms have characteristics that differentiate them from each other. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a. Both DNA and RNA are found in a virus
b. fungi and virus contain muramic acid on their cell wall envelope
c. bacteria and fungi replicate by binary fission
d. the virus have an independent metabolic activity
C
40
The bacterial cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Basic structure of cell membrane is rich in proteins and usually contains sterols.
b. Membrane has roles in synthetic, homeostatic, secretory and electron transport processes.
c. The cell membrane is not a functional equivalent of many eukaryotic organelles.
d. The cell membranes of Gram-positive and Gram-negative cells are different in composition, structure, and function.
B
41
The pili is commonly found in which organism
a. Gram (+) bacteria
b. Gram (-) bacteria
c. Virus
d. Fungus
B
42
Aerobic bacteria have the ability to break down toxic forms of oxygen. The following enzymes are found in these organisms EXCEPT
a. Superoxide dismutase
b. Peroxidase
c. Catalase
d. Coagulase
D
43
The most common mounting medium to study fungi in skin scrapings and hairs because of its ability to lyze keratin
a. PAS
b. 10% KOH
c. India ink
d. LCPB
B
44
A mass of intertwined hyphal elements is called
a. Mycelium
b. Rhizoids
c. Conidia
d. Arthrospores
A
45
The hepatitis profile done on a patient showed a HbsAg negative, and Hbs antibody positive results. What would be the best interpretation for these results?
a. The patient probably has chronic active hepatitis.
b. The patient is immune to Hepatitis B.
c. The patient is probably in the “window phase” of the infection.
d. The patient has acute Hepatitis B infection.
B
46
Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
a. Spleen
b. Adenoids
c. Bone marrow
d. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue
C
47
T lymphocytes mature in which organ?
a. Bone marrow
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Thymus
D
48
A 25-year-old college student came from her summer vacation in Boracay and noted that the hypopigmented area on her face intensified. This was also described to be itchy. She applied unrecalled steroid cream with no improvement. If this is tinea versicolor, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. The skin scrapings can be easily confirmed by LCPB mount.
b. The organism is hydrophilic.
c. In hypopigmented lesions, the organism has the ability to diminish melanin synthesis.
d. Annelide formation is seen in skin scrapings.
C
49
Traveler’s diarrhea is often caused by:
a. ETEC
b. EPEC
c. EIEC
d. EHEC
A
50
Spores are important structures for survival of some pathogens. Which of the following statements best describes the endospore?
a. Endospores are large, dehydrated, metabolically active forms.
b. Endospore is a reproductive structure of some bacterial cell that maintains its existence in the environment.
c. Resistance of spore is due to dehydrated state, calcium dipicolinate, and specialized coats.
d. Sporulation reproduces cell identical to that which sporulated
C
51
This Escherichia coli strain causes dysentery-like disease similar to Shigella dysenteriae
a. ETEC
b. EPEC
c. EIEC
d. EHEC
D
52
This organism causes food poisoning with the reheated fried rice as the most common vehicle
a. Bacillus cereus
b. Bacillus subtillis
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium botulimum
A
53
Which of the following will develop if an 8 year old girl bitten by a dog in the face was given human rabies immunoglobulins (HIRG)
a. Innate, inborn, non-specific immunity
b. artificial active adaptive/acquired specific immunity
c. artificial passive adaptive/acquired specific immunity
d. natural active adaptive/acquired specific immunity
e. natural passive adaptive/acquired specific immunity
C
54
Which of the immunoglobulin classes is termed as homocytotrophic or reaginic antibody?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM
C
55
In-utero infection of neonate is demonstrated by the presence of which class immunoglobulin in the serum of the newborn?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM
E
56
Asthma is a medical condition that is a hypersensitivity reaction. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is it?
a. Hypersensitivity type I
b. Hypersensitivity type II
c. Hypersensitivity type III
d. Hypersensitivity type IV
A
57
All of the following are mycotic infections EXCEPT:
a. Aspergillosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Mycobacteriosis
d. Sporotrichosis
C
58
What is the protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid genome in a virus?
a. Envelope
b. Capsid
c. Capsomers
d. Viral cell wall
B
59
Gram staining of the sputum will not show which of the following organisms?
a. Klebsiella pneumonia
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B
60
If the patient presents with productive cough and runny nose, the most likely etiologic agent is:
a. Influenza virus
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Respiratory synctial virus
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C
61
To provide better symptomatic management the physician had the patient confined to the hospital. After two more days the patient developed small ulcerated mucosal lesions in the posterior portion of oral mucosa, near the molars. At this point, the etiologic agent is more likely to be:
a. Gram negative intracellular diplococci
b. Gram positive cocci in clusters
c. An enveloped RNA virus
d. A single stranded DNA virus
C
62
A long-term complication of this infection, due to infective organisms, is:
a. Subacute sclerosing pancephalitis
b. Chlamydia pneumonia
c. Chronic varicelliform eruptions
d. Herpes zoster
A
63
A few days more after initial hospitalization, the patient developed pneumonia. The following might be found in the exudative material in the lungs:
a. Cowdry type A nuclear inclusions
b. Warthin-Finkeldey cells
c. Negri bodies
d. Large ovoid dense eosinophilic inclusions
B
64
A routine aerobic bacterial culture was taken from the respiratory specimen of this pneumonia patient. Among the following, the most likely organism that will grow is:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Neisseria meningitides
C
65
To demonstrate nuclear changes due to HSV infection, the following stain is most often used:
a. H&E
b. Wright’s stain
c. Periodic acid Schiff
d. Giemsa
D
66
Genetic material encoding for exotoxins of bacteria are more likely found in:
a. Nuclear DNA
b. RNA
c. Mitchondrial DNA
d. Plasmids
D
67
Which of the following is correct regarding chronic inflammation?
a. It always follows acute inflammation
b. the key inflammatory cell is the macrophage
c. IL-2 secreted by CD4+ T helper cells activates macrophages
d. Transforming growth factor alpha triggers scarring
B
68
Which of the following is correct regarding granulomatous inflammation?
a. It is defined by the presence of granulation
b. Epithelioid histiocytes are so-called because they begin to express epithelial proteins such as cytokeratins
c. It is a characteristic feature of a pyogenic granuloma
d. It is a feature seen in tuberculosis
D
69
A 35-year-old woman had bilateral silicone breast implants placed five years ago. Since that time, she has noted increased firmness with slight deformity of the breast on the right. The implants are removed, and there is evidence for leakage of the implant contents on the right. Which of the following cell types is most likely to be most characteristic of the inflammatory response in this situation?
a. Mast cell
b. Eosinophil
c. Giant cell
d. Plasma cell
C
70
A 5-year-old boy experiences fever and chills of 3 days duration. Examination of the pharynx shows swelling, erythema, and pharyngeal purulent exudates. Which of the following types of inflammation does this boy most likely have?
a. Granulomatous inflammation
b. Acute inflammation
c. Abscess formation
d. Chronic inflammation
C
71
A 65-year-old man has had increasing dyspnea for 10 years. He has no cough or fever. He had chronic exposure to inhalation of silica dust for many years in his job. A chest x-ray now shows increased interstitial markings and parenchymal 1-3cm solid nodules. His pulmonary problems are most likely to be mediated through which of the following inflammatory processes?
a. Neutrophilic infiltrates producing leukotrienes
b. Foreign body giant cell formation
c. Plasma cell synthesis of immunoglobulin
d. Macrophage elaboration of growth factors
B
72
an episode of marked chest pain lasting 4 hours brings a 58-year-old man to the emergency room. He is found to have an elevated serum creatinine kinase. An angiogram reveals a complete blockage of the left circumflex artery 2 cm from its origin. Which of the following substances would you most likely expect to be elaborated around the region of tissue damage in the next 3 days as an initial response to increase myocardial function and promote healing?
a. Immunoglobulin G
b. Complement component C3b
c. Prostaglandin
d. Vascular endothelial growth factor
D
73
A 51-yr old man has had a fever and dry cough for 3 days, and now has difficulty breathing and cough productive of sputum. On physical examination his temperature is 38.5 C. Diffuse rales are auscultated over lower lung fields. A chest radiograph shows a right pleural effusion. A right thoracocentesis was performed. The fluid obtained has a cloudy appearance with a cell count showing 15,500 leukocytes per microliter, 98% which are neutrophils. Which of the following terms best describes his pleural process:
a. serous inflammation
b. purulent inflammation
c. fibrinous inflammation
d. granulomatous inflammation
B
74
Alcoholic injury to the liver causes accumulation of:
a. triglycerides
b. lipofuscin
c. hemosiderin
d. melanin
A
75
Accumulation of carbon dust in tissues is termed:
a. Ochronosis
b. Hemosiderosis
c. Anthracosis
d. Cholesterolosis
C
76
What process is involved in the formulation of chalky deposits in cases of acute pancreatitis?
a. steatosis
b. glycation
c. saponification
d. metastasis
C
77
The major mechanism of apoptosis in humans utilizes the:
a. mitochondrial pathway
b. reduction-oxidation reaction
c. death-receptor pathway
d. peroxidase reaction
A
78
Bacterial infection superimposed on an area of liquefactive necrosis results in:
a. enzymatic fat necrosis
b. caseation
c. wet gangrene
d. infarction
C
79
Which substance requires modification to cause cell injury?
a. cyanide
b. paracetamol
c. mercuric chloride
d. arsenic
B
80
A localized area of coagulative necrosis is termed:
a. abscess
b. infarct
c. gangrene
d. pus
B
81
Leading type of cancer in men:
a. skin cancer
b. prostate cancer
c. lung cancer
d. testicular cancer
B
82
Ultraviolet rays are implicated in:
a. gastric cancer
b. urinary bladder cancer
c. squamous cell carcinoma, skin
d. bronchogenic carcinoma
C
83
Characteristics of benign tumors:
a. invasive
b. cohesive
c. immortal
d. escape from regulatory control
B
84
Each of the following statements concerning multi-stage carcinogenesis is CORRECT, EXCEPT:
a. DNA damage is involved during initiation
b. requires a long time for tumors to evolve
c. involves multiple genetic events
d. implicated in tumors of epithelial origin
C
85
The following are common characteristics of metastatic cells EXCEPT:
a. Often resemble primary tumor
b. spread by lymphatic vessels
c. vascular spread
d. invade basement membranes
e. incapable of degrading extracellular matrix
E
86
Select the gene most likely associated with the condition. A 50-year-old woman presents to her physician with fatigue, fever and splenomegaly. Blood work-up indicates granulocytic leukocytosis in peripheral blood (20,000/uL). Her physician diagnosed the patient as being in the early stages of chronic myelogenous leukemia.
a. _____ oncogene
b. c-src oncogene
c. BCR/abl oncogene
d. c-myc oncogene
C
87
Which of the following is a true neoplastic process?
a. Hamartoma
b. Choristoma
c. Dysplasia
d. Fibroma
B
88
The mechanism of development of edema in a child with kwashiorkor would be:
a. Decreased synthesis of albumin and other proteins by the liver
b. Albuminuria
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Chronic passive congestion of the liver
A
89
Disturbances in the laminar flow of blood predisposes a patient to develop:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Shock
c. Thrombosis
d. Hyperemia
C
90
Seen in chronic passive congestion of the liver
a. Centrilobular necrosis
b. Central veins and adjacent sinusoids filled with erythrocytes
c. Nutmeg appearance of the liver
d. All of the above are correct
D
91
Heart failure cells seen in the chronic passive congestion of the lungs is indicative of:
a. Old hemorrhages
b. Predisposition to mural thrombi
c. Damaged myocytes
d. Cardiac hypertrophy
A
92
The difference between a thrombus and a thromboembolus is:
a. The thrombus is adherent to the blood vessel wall
b. The thromboembolus is adherent to the blood vessel wall
c. Line of Zahn is seen only in a thrombus
d. Only the thrombus can cause vascular obstruction
A
93
Seen in Lines of Zahn except:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Platelets
c. Fibrin
d. Foam cells
D
94
Edema due to nephritic syndrome is caused by
a. Salt retention
b. Renal excretion of albumin
c. Lymphatic blockage
d. Low production of albumin
A
95
The PHARMACODYNAMICS of digoxin is described by which of the following
a. It is 25% bioavailable
b. 20-40% is protein bound
c. ⅔ is excreted unchanged in the kidney
d. It inhibits the Na-K-ATPase pump
D
96
Which of the following parameters describe/s the PHARMACOKINETICS of a drug
a. Mechanism of action
b. Half-life
c. Target receptors
d. Response of organ to drug
B
97
The reason why the amount of orally administered drug may be markedly reduced before it reaches systemic circulation
a. High absorption rate
b. High first-pass effect
c. Low first-pass effect
d. Low excretion rate
B
98
A drug which decreases agonist potency by binding reversibly to the active site of receptor
a. Physiologic antagonist
b. Chemical antagonist
c. Competitive antagonist
d. Non-competitive antagonist
C
99
Given that Therapeutic Index = TD50/ED50, the following may be said about a drug with givn therapeutic index
a. A drug with a lower TI has a higher probability of toxicity
b. A drug with a lower TI has a higher probability of loss of efficacy
c. A drug with a lower TI is less likely to cause adverse effects
d. The equation is incorrect.
A
100
Intrinsic ability of a drug to achieve a therapeutic endpoint
a. Efficacy
b. Bioavailability
c. Therapeutic index
d. Tolerance
A
101
A specific macromolecule, usually a protein, to which a drug binds bringing about changes in function of a system
a. Agonist
b. Antagonist
c. enzyme
d. receptor
D
102
Acetabulol is a beta blocker with partial agonist activity. This means that Acetabulol
a. Is a reversible antagonist of the beta receptor
b. Activates the beta receptor but not with maximal efficacy
c. partially binds to the beta receptor
d. decreases agonist efficacy by binding to site other than the beta receptor
B
103
Which one of these receptors has the fastest response time
a. ion channels
b. G protein coupled receptor
c. tyrosine kinase linked receptor
d. intracellular receptor
A
104
A drug repeatedly administered at dosing interval equal to its elimination half life will reach 75-87.5% of its steady state concentration after how many hours?
a. 2 to 3
b. 4 to 5
c. 6 to 7
d. 8 to 9
A
105
The cytochrome P450 isoenzyme that metabolizes the most number of drugs is
a. CYP2D
b. CYP2C
c. CYP3A
d. CYP1A
C
106
The CYP 450 enzymes play a role in which phase of hepatic metabolism
a. Phase I
b. Phase II
c. Phase III
d. Phase IV
A
107
The equivalence of blood concentration of two preparations of the same drug measured over time
a. Bioavailoability
b. Bioequivalence
c. Efficacy
d. Therapeutic equivalence
B
108
Which of the following is TRUE about volume of distribution
a. It is directly proportional to plasma drug concentration
b. It is inversely proportional to the amount of drug in the body
c. It decreases with increased protein binding
d. It assumes a uniform concentration of the drug in the body
D
109
A drug has a half life of 4 hours. If the person who took a drug has a plasma concentration of 2 mcg/ml at noon, when will his plasma concentration be 1 mcg/ml?
a. 1 hr later
b. 2 hrs later
c. 4 hrs later
d. 8 hrs later
C
110
Which of the following drugs has the best chance of penetrating the blood brain barrier?
a. drugs highly bound to plasma protein
b. drugs composed of large molecules
c. drugs that are highly lipid soluble
d. drugs that are hydrophilic
C
111
The following statement about Adverse Drug Reaction is true
a. ADRs are unintended and noxious response to drug at the recommended dose for treatment
b. ADRs are unintended and harmful response to drug at any dose
c. ADRs are usually immunologic in nature
d. Adverse drug events are unintended response to drug where causality between drug and reactions have been established in clinical trials
A
112
A drug which will most likely decrease blood pressure, slow heart rate, and cause bronchoconstriction
a. Alpha agonist
b. Alpha antagonist
c. Beta agonist
d. Beta antagonist
D
113
Prazosin was given to a 63-year-old male patient presenting with hypertension and benign prostatic hypertrophy. Prazosin selectively blocks which adrenergic receptor?
a. Alpha-1
b. Alpha-2
c. Beta-1
d. Beta-2
A
114
Atropine may cause all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Cycloplegia
b. Dry mouth
c. Hypotension
d. Mydriasis
C
115
The elimination of ethanol is independent of time or concentration. This type of kinetics is known as
a. Distribution kinetics
b. First-pass kinetics
c. First-order elimination
d. Zero-order elimination
D
116
When the elimination of the drug is directly proportional to its plasma concentration, this type of kinetics is demonstrated
a. Distribution kinetics
b. First-pass kinetics
c. First-order elimination
d. Zero-order elimination
A
117
Which of the following is NOT an antihypertensive drug?
a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Atenolol
c. Enalapril
d. Digoxin
D
118
Which of the following is NOT used to treat heart failure?
a. Furosemide
b. Dobutamine
c. Enalapril
d. Nifedipine
D
119
A 17-year-old female diagnosed to have Dilated Cardiomyopathy on amiodarone, furosemide, enalapril, digoxin, spironolactone, and carvedilol suddenly had nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances and premature ventricular contractions in bigeminy. The drug known to have these adverse effects is
a. Digoxin
b. Enalapril
c. Enalapril-Digoxin
d. Furosemide-Amiodarone
A
120
Herbal medicines in the Philippines which had been scientifically validated
a. Lagundi for asthma
b. Sambong for urolithiasis
c. Tsaang gubat as antispasmodic
d. All of the above
D
121
Which among the following is the most potent diuretic also shown to have peripheral vasodilating effects
a. Furosemide
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Spironolactone
d. Acetazolamide
A
122
The following is/are true regarding the potential benefits of pharmacogenomics:
a. More effective medicines
b. Less adverse drug reactions
c. Decreased cost of hospitalization
d. All of the above
D
123
Entameba dispar and Entameba histolytica can be differentiated by the following EXCEPT:
a. Microscopy
b. PCR
c. Culture
d. ELISA
A
124
Pseudopodia can be found in this parasite:
a. Balantidium coli
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Trypanosoma brucei
B
125
This parasite is a flagellate
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Balantidium coli
A
126
Malabsorption and steatorrhea (fatty stools) may be a clinical feature of this infection:
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Balantidium coli
A
127
The mature cyst of this protozoan has 8 nuclei:
a. Entameba coli
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Endolimax nana
d. Iodameba buetschii
A
128
The following features can be used to differentiate Entameba coli from Entameba histolytica cysts
a. Shape of chromatoidal bar ends
b. Size of cyst
c. Shape of nuclei
d. All of the above
D
129
A large glycogen vacuole is a prominent feature of this parasite:
a. Entameba coli
b. Entameba histolytica
c. Endolimax nana
d. Iodameba buetschii
D
130
Fulminant infections with this parasite reduces the median survival time of HIV patients:
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Balantidium coli
C
131
The drug of choice for giardiasis
a. Metronidazole
b. Abendazole
c. Chloroquine
d. Primaquine
A
132
The drug of choice for amebiasis
a. Metronidazole
b. Abendazole
c. Chloroquine
d. Primaquine
A
133
The most common cause of chronic diarrhea among HIV patients
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Balantidium coli
C
134
The most common cause of brain lesions among HIV patients
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Balantidium coli
C
135
The following parasites have a pulmonary phase, EXCEPT:
a. Ascaris
b. Ancylostoma
c. Necator
d. Trichuris
D
136
The following parasite have the embryonated egg as the infective stage:
a. Ascaris
b. Schistosoma
c. Necator
d. Strongyloides
A
137
The following parasites inhabit the small intestines, EXCEPT
a. Ascaris
b. Ancyclostoma
c. Necator
d. Trichuris
D
138
The following parasites have infective larval stages, EXCEPT:
a. Schistosoma
b. Ancylostoma
c. Necator
d. Trichuris
D
139
The following parasites can affect the lungs:
a. Entameba histolytica
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. Ascaris
d. All of the above
D
140
The following statements are true about Paragonimus:
a. The infective stage is the cercaria
b. The crab is an intermediate host
c. This can be seen in an AFB Smear
d. The fish is an intermediate host
B
141
The following diagnostic tests are relevant to Schistosomiasis:
a. COPT
b. Kato-Katz
c. Liver Ultrasound
d. All of the above
D
142
The following are fish-borne trematodiases:
a. Heterophydiasis
b. Ophistorchiasis
c. Clonorchiasis
d. All of the above
D
143
These parasites are snail-borne parasites, EXCEPT
a. Angiostrongylus
b. Capillaria
c. Schistosoma
d. Echinostoma
B
144
These parasites may affect the liver, EXCEPT:
a. Fasciola
b. Ophistorchis
c. Schistosoma
d. Capillaria
D
145
Iron-deficiency anemia is a complication of:
a. Ascariasis
b. Amebiasis
c. Hookworm infection
d. Giardiasis
C
146
Rectal prolapse is a complication of:
a. Ascariasis
b. Trichuriasis
c. Hookworm infection
d. Giardiasis
B
147
Intestinal obstruction can be a complication of:
a. Ascariasis
b. Trichuriasis
c. Hookworm infection
d. Giardiasis
A
148
Fresh water fish harbors the infective stage for this parasite
a. Schistosoma
b. Paragonimus
c. Echinostoma
d. Capillaria
D
149
162. The oocyst of this protozoan is infective once shed in feces
a. Cyclospora
b. Isospora
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Giardia
D
150
Autoinfection occurs in:
a. Strongyloides
b. Capillaria
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Cyclospora
A or B
151
Periodic Chemotherapy or Mass Drug Administration is a control strategy for:
a. Entameba histolytica
b. Schistosoma
c. Echinostoma
d. Capillaria
B
152
The prevalence of giardiasis among children in urban poor areas in Metro Manila has been documented to be:
a. 50%
b. 80%
c. 5%
d. 20%
D
