Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Human Disease Test 2 > Digestive, Reproductive, and Urinary Disorders > Flashcards

Digestive, Reproductive, and Urinary Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Common manifestations of disorders

A

Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Emesis definition

A

forceful expulsion of chyme (food and digestive juices) from the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Signs and symptoms of emesis

A

often associated with increase salivation, pallor, and sweating. May be preceded by retching/dry heaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hematemesis

A

presence of blood in vomit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

coffee-grounds

A

old brown, partially digested blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

frank blood

A

obvious blood; large amount, new (red) hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

yellow or green vomit

A

bile from duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment for emesis

A

Zorfran (anti emetic) and fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cause of diarrhea Large Volume

A

secretory or osmotic diarrhea related to infection, short transit time, lactose intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cause of small volume diarrhea

A

associated with inflammatory bowel disease, stool may contain blood/mucus/pus, and may be accompanied by abdominal cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Steatorrhea cause

A

fatty particles associated with malabsorption syndromes, frequent bulky greasy loose stools. A lot of CF patients have this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Constipation Acute cause

A

inadequate dietary fiber, inadequate fluid intake, failure to respond to defecation reflex, muscle weakness/inactivity, drugs that slow peristalsis, mechanical obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What types of drugs that slow peristalsis

A

opiates (morphine), anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chronic constipation cause

A

hemorrhoids, diverticulitis and severe constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cause of fluid and electrolyte imbalance

A

loss of fluid via vomiting and diarrhea, ions lost with fluid, acid-base imbalance due to lost hydrochloric acid and bicarb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Main forms of fluid and electrolyte cause

A

dehydration, overhydration ( rare and not usually a problem for normal kidney), water intake must balance water loss, drinking too much is usually better than too little,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Water is absorbed primarily by what?

A

digestive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

during dehydration water is lost by what?

A

kidney excretion depending on bodys needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During evaporation water is lost how?

A

through the skin and exhalation of the lungs, profuse sweating, exercise, fever, hot weather, loss of fluid via vomiting and diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Signs and Symptoms of dehydration

A

thrist, dry sticky mouth, dizziness/tiredness, dec.urine output, dry skin, rapid heartbeat and breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment for dehydration

A

drink more water, electrolyte and carbohydrate rich solutions, dec.sodium intake, and avoid caffeinated beverages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cleft lip/palate

A

developmental abnormality of mouth and face, arises in 2nd or 3rd month of gestation and be inherited/enviromental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cleft lip cause

A

failure to fuse in weeks 4-8 of fetal development. Can be unilateral or bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cleft palate cause

A

failure of hard and soft palates to fuse, opening between oral and nasal cavities, causing feeding problems in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treatment for cleft palate and cleft lip

A

surgical repair, speech therapy, orthodontia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Oral Candidiasis

A

Thrush, candida albicans in normal oral flora, opportunistic infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Symptoms of thrush

A

red swollen patches on oral mucosa, makes eating and drinking painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How to treat with thrush

A

topical antifungal agent (Nystatin, Mycostatin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cause of dysphagia

A

neurologic deficit with cranial nerves (V, VII, IX, X, XII), brain damage, achalais (failure to lower/open esophageal sphincter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Muscular disorders

A

muscular dystrophy, ALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mechanical obstruction that cause dysphagia

A

congenital atresia, stenosis, esophageal diverticula, and tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Gastro Esophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) cause

A

At the lower end of the esophagus, where it joins the stomach, there is a circular ring of muscles called the lower esophageal sphincter, after swallowing the LES relaxes and allows food to enter stomach and then contracts to prevent food back up. The LES becomes weak or relaxed when the stomach is distended, which allows liquids in the stomach to go back into esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Acid Reflux becomes GERD when?

A

it causes bothersome symptoms or injury to esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Signs and symptoms of GERD

A

stomach pain, non-burning chest pain, difficulty swallowing, painful swallowing, persistent laryngitis/hoarseness, persisten laryngitis/hoarseness, persistant sore throat, chronic cough, new onset asthma, or asthma wheeze only at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acid reflux complications

A

ulcers, stricture, lung and throat problems, esophageal cancer, Barretts esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Barretts esophagus is what?

A

esphageal cells are replaced with intestinal cells due to repeated acid exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Diagnostic tests of GERD

A

endoscopy, 24 hour esophageal pH study, esophageal manometry (involves swallowing a tube that measures the muscle contractions of the esophagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Treatment for GERD

A

weight loss, head of bed raised 6=8 inches, avoid acid reflux inducing foods, avoid large and late meals, proton pump inhibitors, histamine H-2 blockers, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hiatal Hernia cause

A

protrusion of a portion of stomach through esophageal hiatus into thoracic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sliding hernia most common slides up when?

A

when the person is supine, it returns to normal when standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Paraesophageal hernia more likely to ulcerate due to what?

A

compressed vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Chronic esophagitis may cause what?

A

fibrosis and stricture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Symptoms of a hernia

A

seen in conjunction with GERD, heart burn, sour taste in mouth, increased discomfort when lying down or bending over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Treatment of a hernia

A

frequent small meals, avoid lying down after meals, avoid restrictive clothing around waist, elevate head of bed, antacids, if severe surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Gastroenteritis cause

A

usually due to infection (e coli, salmonella, contaminated food/water), may be allergic reaction to foods or drugs, inflammation of stomach (vomiting), inflammation of intestines (diarrhea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

E coli

A

some strains extremely virulent, present in cows, release toxins that damage intestinal mucosa and blood vessels, can cause bloody diarrhea and acute renal failure, may cause death in kids, elderly or those with low immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Treatment of a gastroenteritis

A

usually self limiting, provide adequate fluids and electrolytes, antibiotics in persistent/severe cases of E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Prevention of gastroenteritis

A

hand washing, properly cook food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Peptic ulcers (PUD) found where?

A

most common in proximal duodenum, also found in antrum of stomach and lower esophagus, genetic predisposition is questioned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Peptic ulcers are more common in who?

A

men, elderly, type O blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

peptic ulcers are caused by?

A

increased acid pepsin secretion, breakdown of gastric mucosal barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Precipitating factors of peptic ulcers

A

inc. acid pepsin secretion due to ingestion of alcohol, NSAIDS, ceffeine, certain foods and abnormal feedback mechanism, breakdown of mucosal barrier due to heliobacter pylori, inadequate blood supply, excessive glococorticoids, ulcerogenic substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Heliobacter pylori

A

present in 50% of people; most have no complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Complications of peptic ulcers

A

bleeding, perforation, obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Treatment of peptic ulcers

A

difficult to heal due to stomach acids irritates lesions, antibiotics, meds to reduce acid secretion, remove exacerbating factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Cholelithiasis

A

formation of gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cholecystitis

A

inflammation of the gallbladder and cystic ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Cholangitis

A

inflammation of bile ducts due to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Cause of gallbladder disorders related to gallstones

A

inflammation in biliary structures may provide focus for stone formation, stones initially form in bile ducts, gallbladder, cystic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cholesterol gallstones are more common in who?

A

women especially associated with obesity, inc. cholesterol intake, giving birth multiple times, oral contraceptives/estrogen supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Bile pigment stones associated with what?

A

hemolytic anemia, alcoholic cirrhosis, biliary tract infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Signs and symptoms of gallbladder disorders

A

frequently asymptomatic, if large stone obstructs duct may become biliary colic, pain in upper right quadrant, pain often radiates to back and right shoulder, nausea/vomiting, fever and leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Treatment of gallbladder

A

surgical removal via laproscopic cholecystectomy, long term medication use to dissolve stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Hepatitis A

A

transmission via oral fecal route, 2-6 week incubation period, fecal shedding of virus weeks before onset of signs, acute, self-limiting infection (not chronic/ not carriers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Hepatitis B

A

transmission via blood and body fluids, 1-6 month incubation period, may be asymptomatic carrier or develop acute infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Hepatitis C

A

originally referred to as non A non B, proven existence in 1989, transmitted via blood and body fluids, 2-6 week incubation period, may be carrier or develop chronic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Hepatitis D

A

requires presence of Hep B for replication, increase severity of Hep B infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Hepatitis E

A

similar to Hep A, oral fecal transmission, 2-9 week incubation, no carrier/chronic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Researchers questions the existence of hepatitis what?

A

F and G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Signs and symptoms of Hepatitis

A

preicteric stage- general systemic signs of infection, mild upper right quadrant discomfort, elevated liver enzymes in serum. Icteric stage- jaundice, dark urine, hepatomegaly with tenderness, may be prolonged clotting times. Posticteric stage- slow recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Treatment of Hepatitis

A

supportive measures, anti viral drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Cirrhosis cause

A

the 3 general causes are alcoholic liver disease (most common), biliary cirrhosis due to obstructed bile flow, postnecrotic cirrhosis (due to chronic hepatitis or long term exposure to toxic agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Signs and Symptoms of cirrhosis

A

ascites (fluid in peritoneal cavity), generalized edema, esophageal varices (due to portal hypertension), anemia and increased bleeding, jaundice, and hepatic encephaolopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Treatment of Cirrhosis

A

supportive measures, emergency treatment of reptured esophageal varcies, portocaval shunt, liver transplant, make end life decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Acute pancreatitis causes

A

alcohol abuse, gallstones, viral infection, drug reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute pancreatitis

A

severe epigastric and abdominal pain that radiates to back, shock, fever, abdominal distention, and decreased bowel sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Treatment of acute pancreatitis

A

20% mortality rate, nothing by mouth/orally, analgesics (not morphine), treat shock and electrolyte imbalance, monitor all other vitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Structural abnormalities in female reproductive system

A

changes in uterine position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Normal anatomical position in females

A

Antevered (tipped forward) Anteflexed (bent foward over bladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Retroversion

A

tipped backward (1st-3rd degree) could compress colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Retroflexion

A

Bent back towards rectum, could also impress colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Anteflexion

A

bent forward toward bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

cause of positional abnormalities in female reproductive system

A

congenital anatomic variation, childbirth, pathologic conditions (scar tissue/tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Supporting structures for uterus, bladder, rectum become weakened due to?

A

multiple/difficult childbirths, trauma, aging, effects appear from menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Signs and symptoms of positional abnormalities in females?

A

often asymptomatic, may be infertile due to poor positioning of the cervix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Symptoms associated with 3rd degree retroversion

A

back pain, dysmenorrhea (heavy/difficult menstration), dyspareuma (painful intercourse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Prevention of positional abnormalities in females

A

kegel exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Uterine prolapse 1st degree

A

cervix drops into vagina

90
Q

uterine prolapse 2nd degree

A

uterine body drops into vagina

91
Q

uterine prolapse 3rd degree

A

cervix and uterus outside of vagina

92
Q

treatment of uterine prolapse

A

pessary X 6 weeks, surgery

93
Q

Cystocele

A

protrusion of bladder into anterior vaginal wall, bladder doesnt completely empty

94
Q

Treatment of cystocele

A

surgery if severe

95
Q

Rectocele

A

protrusion of rectum into posterior wall of vagina, interferes with defecation

96
Q

Treatment of rectocele

A

surgery if severe

97
Q

Primary amenorrhea

A

absence of menarche after age 16 years, has gone through other normal changes that occur during puberty

98
Q

Cause of primary amenorrhea

A

chromosome abnormality, congenital absence/hypoplasis of uterus, defect of hypothalamus, anorexia, chronic illness, infections that occur in the womb or after birth, turmors

99
Q

treatment of primary amenorrhea

A

hormone therapy, weight management, meds for tumor removal, surgery, treatment for systemic illness

100
Q

Secondary amenorrhea

A

absence of menstruation for 6 months or greater, in women who previously had regular menstrual cycles without the presence of birth control, menopause, or pregnancy

101
Q

Cause of secondary amenorrhea

A

suppression of hypothalamus/pituitary, stress, sudden weight loss, low % body fat, obesity, anemia, chemo, and ovarian tumors

102
Q

Treatment for secondary amenorrhea

A

treat underlying cause, may require hormone therapy, weight management

103
Q

Endometriosis

A

very common but not well understood, a problem that affects a woman’s uterus.

104
Q

Cause of endometriosis

A

endometrial tissue established at ectopic sites via migration up fallopian tubes, development from embryonic tissue at other sites, spread through blood or lymph systems, transplantation during surgery. Ectopic tissue responds to hormone cycle proliferation, degeneration, and bleeding

105
Q

Signs and symptoms of endometriosis

A

may be asymptomatic, abdominal pain, dysmenorrhea, inflammation at ectopic site, dyspareunia, infertility

106
Q

Treatment of endometriosis

A

hormone therapy, laparoscopy to lyse adhesions/remove ectopic tissue, total hysterectomy

107
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

the most common preventable cause of infertility in the US. May be acute or chronic

108
Q

Cause of PID

A

majority arise from STDs, may follow childbirth/insertion of IUD, usually originates as vaginitis/cervicitis.

109
Q

Signs and symptoms of PID

A

lower abdominal pain, pain increases with walking, purulent foul smelling vaginal discharge, systemic signs of infection (Fever)

110
Q

Treatment of PID

A

appropriate antibiotics, treat sexual partners

111
Q

Uterine Leiomyoma

A

fibroids, can vary in size and number and may be accompanied by infertility, miscarriage, and early onset of labor

112
Q

Cause of Uterine leiomyoma

A

cause may be unknown, benign tumor of myometrium, common in women during reproductive years, usually occurs as multiple/well defined masses

113
Q

Signs and symptoms of uterine leiomyoma

A

frequently asymptomatic, menorrhagia, urinary frequency, constipation, heavy sensation of lower abdomen, may cause infertility

114
Q

Treatment of uterine leiomyoma

A

depends of severity of symptoms and desire to have kids, surgery to remove tumors, and hysterectomy

115
Q

Ovarian cysts (benign) cause

A

cause unknown, usually multiple or large fluid filled sacs

116
Q

Signs and symptoms of ovarian cysts

A

abdominal discomfort, urinary retention due to compression, tortion of ovary if cyst is mobile, and bleeding into peritoneal cavity

117
Q

Treatment of ovarian cysts

A

may disappear spontaneously, birth control, surgery

118
Q

Epispadias

A

urethral opening on dorsal surface of penis, may cause repeated infections

119
Q

Hypospadias

A

urethral opening on ventral surface of penis, often associated with cryptorchidism

120
Q

Treatment to both epispadias and hypospadias

A

surgery to provide normal urinary flow and normal sexual function

121
Q

Cryptorchidism

A

testes fail to descend into scrotum, may remain in abdominal cavity or inguinal cavity

122
Q

Possible causes of Cryptorchidism

A

hormonal abnormalities, short spermatic cord, small inguinal ring

123
Q

If cyrptorchidism is left untreated what can happen?

A

impaired spermatogenesis and increased risk of testicular cancer

124
Q

treatment of cyrptorchidism

A

surgical repair before age 2/ may have spontaneous decent before age 1

125
Q

Hydrocele

A

excessive fluid collection in tunica vaginalis

126
Q

Tunica

A

serous membranes surrounding testicles

127
Q

Vaginalis

A

between the parietal and visceral layer of the scrotal sac

128
Q

Hydrocele may be due to what?

A

congenital form associated with inguinal hernia, acquired form may be due to infection, injury, tumor or unknown

129
Q

Varicocele

A

varicose veins, dilated vein in spermatic cord usually on left side, develops after puberty

130
Q

Treatment of varicocele

A

if mild treat with jockstrap, if extensive it requires surgery

131
Q

Torsion of the testes

A

testis rotates on spermatic cord, frequently occurs during puberty, compresses arteries and veins

132
Q

Treatment of torsion of testes

A

may first try to manual manipulation to restore blood flow, usually requires surgery

133
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis cause

A

usually associated with UTI, primarily caused by E coli, sometimes associated with STDs

134
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute bacterial prostatitis

A

dysuria, urinary frequency and urgency, low back pain, systemic signs of infection, severe inflammation, prostrate enlarged and tender

135
Q

Treatment of acute bacterial prostatitis

A

antibiotics (Cipro/Ciprofloxacin)

136
Q

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy cause

A

hyperplasia of prostrate tissue, associated with aging, enlarged glands compresses urethra

137
Q

Signs and symptoms of prostatic hypertrophy

A

decreased force of uninary stream, incomplete bladder emptying, enlarged prostrate on rectal exam

138
Q

Treatment of prostatic hypertrophy

A

meds to shrink prostrate, transurethral resection, thermo ablation

139
Q

Chlamydia

A

only grows intracellulary, spread via vaginal/rectal intercourse, may be spread by oral-genital contact

140
Q

how can babies be infected by chlamydia?

A

vaginal delivery

141
Q

Signs and symptoms of chlamydia in a female

A

often asymptomatic, urethritis, purulent discharge, and may spread to fallopian tubes

142
Q

Signs and symptoms of chlamydia in a male

A

urethritis, dysuria, itching/whitish discharge, painful/swollen scrotum

143
Q

Treatment of chlamydia

A

antibiotics for affected person and sexual partner(s), Azithromycin (single dose) or Doxycycline (BID for 7 days)

144
Q

Cause of Gonorrhea

A

gram -, diplococcus/gonococcus, spread during sexual contact, vaginal delivery can infect newborn

145
Q

Signs and symptoms of gonorrhea female

A

may be asymptomatic, greenish/yellowish purulent discharge, dysuria (itching/burning), pelvic pain

146
Q

Signs and symptoms of gonorrhea male

A

purulent discharge, dysuria, may lead to epididymitis (swelling of scrotum)

147
Q

In addition to genital infections Gonorrhea can also cause other infections by way of diverse sexual contact like what?

A

oral and pharyngeal infections, rectal infections, ocular and periocular infections, gonococcal arthitis

148
Q

Treatment of Gonorrhea

A

Antibiotics (more due to eloborate MDR strains) Ceftriaxone IM once pluse Azithromycin PO once, or Doxcycline PO BID for 7 days

149
Q

Syphilis cause

A

transmitters by directed contact with infected lesion (chancre is name of lesion), may be transmitted by contact with infected body fluid

150
Q

Signs and symptoms of primary syphilis

A

3 week incubation period, chancre develops at point of contact, chancre heals spontaneously in several weeks

151
Q

Signs and symptoms of secondary syphilis

A

if primary is not treated, macular/papular rash, systemic signs of infections, symptoms end in a few weeks

152
Q

Signs and symptoms of latent syphilis

A

may last for years, usually asymptomatic

153
Q

Signs and symptoms of tertiary syphilis

A

Begins 2-7 years after initial infection, gumma develops, destruction in multiple organs

154
Q

Treatment of syphilis

A

Antibiotics (primary is Penecillin)

155
Q

Genital Herpes cause

A

HSV-1 usually causes cold sores although may cause genital outbreaks, transmitted by direct contact with secretions, infants infected during vaginal delivery

156
Q

Signs and symptoms of genital herpes acute stage

A

tingling sensation precedes lesion, vesicle blister surrounded by erythematous area, vesicle ruptures after several days –> ulcer, crust forms and ulcer heals, initial episode sometimes mild

157
Q

Signs and symptoms of genital herpes latent stage

A

virus migrates to dorsal root ganglion (low spine) viruses may linger in body secretions after lesions heal

158
Q

Signs and symptoms of genital herpes reactivation (active stage)

A

may be trigged by decrease in host resistance, virus migrates back to mucosa and skin, replicates in cells to form new vesicles

159
Q

Treatment of genital herpes

A

no cure, one can transmit the virus even though there is no outbreak (latent shedding), acyclovir to lessen acute symptoms, Valtrex once oral daily administration (reduces # of outbreaks and reduces risk of spreading virus), improved dietary supplements

160
Q

Genital warts cause

A

elevated flesh colored lesions (papillomas) fibrous tissue over growth usually seen on the external genitalia or peri anal area, 90% caued by HPV types 6 and 11

161
Q

Transmission of genital warts

A

spread by sexual activity involving genital contact does not have to be intercourse, Common STD, may cause PAP smear abnormalities. CDC estimates 20 million people in US had HPV in 2005

162
Q

Treatment of genital warts

A

topical meds, carbon dioxide laser treatment, cryosurgery (freeze off), electrocautery (burn off), debridement, interferon injections

163
Q

Prevention of genital warts

A

avoid sexual contact with infected individuals, vaccination (GARDISAL for types 6 and 11 and HPV Types 16 and 18) this causes 70% of cervical cancer, topical cream (Aldara)

164
Q

Trichomoniasis cause

A

is a protozal infestation of the urethra, vagina, or prostate, single unit protozoan flagellate, transmitted by sexual intercourse affects 10-15% of the sexually active. Women may increase their risk by vaginal sprays or douches

165
Q

Signs and symptoms of Trichomoniasis Female

A

10-25% of females asymptomatic. Acute vaginitis strong smelling, greenish/yellowish frothy discharge, itching swelling, dyspareunia, and dysuria

166
Q

Signs and symptoms of Trichomoniasis Males

A

usually asymptomatic, if present urethritis, dysuria

167
Q

Treatment of Trichomoniasis

A

Flagyl (antibiotic), Bactericidal, Trichomonacidal, Amebicidal

168
Q

Erythropoiesis definition

A

is used to describe the process of RBC formation or production

169
Q

What organ produces erythropoitin?

A

kidneys

170
Q

The kidneys can detect low levels of what in the blood?

A

oxygen

171
Q

The kidney is responsible for what?

A

turning of the faucet of RBC production is the kidney

172
Q

Urinalysis

A

urinate in a sterile cup and then test it

173
Q

What should urine usually look like?

A

usually clear, straw colored or amber, depends on the concentration or dilution

174
Q

pH of urine

A

4.5-8.0, low the pH the more acidic it is

175
Q

Specific gravity increases when urine is what?

A

concentrated/dehydrated

176
Q

Specific gravity decreases when urine is what?

A

diluted/hydrated

177
Q

What should not be in the urine?

A

WBCs, RBCs, protein, bacteria, pus

178
Q

Blood urea nitrogen test

A

BUN, a metabolite; this will inc. due to a dec. in glomerolo-filtrate rate

179
Q

Electrolyte test

A

Na+ K+, there could be an imbalance depending on kidney function

180
Q

Intravenous pyelogram test IVP

A

diagnostic test, contrast dye is used via IV, then xrays are taken to look for a problem or blockage

181
Q

CT, MRI

A

better clarity

182
Q

Cystoscope

A

scope used to look into bladder/lower urinary tract

183
Q

Urethritis

A

swelling of the urethra/ureters

184
Q

Cystitis

A

inflammation of bladder

185
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

very painful infection in the kidneys, may affect one or both, may be from bacterial organisms passage from the bladder to the kidneys

186
Q

Cause of Urinary tract infections

A

organisms usually ascent urinary tract, usually from perianal area, hygiene is very important, begins in urethra ascending up to the bladder

187
Q

E coli

A

most common organisms/associated with lower UTI, organism from the bowel, infection may result from poor hygiene

188
Q

Benign prostrate hyperplasia

A

more common in older men, prostate enlargement slows flow of urine, proximity to the anal area/irritation

189
Q

Honeymooners syndrome

A

a form of bacterial cystitis, common for individuals who recently became sexually active to experience, bacteria are introduced during frequent or prolonged sexual activity through the urethra

190
Q

Urinary Catheters

A

very commonly used in health care (Foley Cath), used during surgeries and for individuals confined to bed, may also be used in individuals with damaged urinary function

191
Q

Cystitis signs and symptoms

A

may have systemic signs, inflamed bladder wall and urethra, lower abdominal pain, dysuria, cloudy urine

192
Q

Pyelonephritis signs and symptoms

A

same as cystitis, plus dull aching pain in the lower back/flank, systemic signs more pronounced

193
Q

Treatment of UTIs

A

antibiotics, better hygiene, urinate frequently, increase fluid intake

194
Q

Glomerulonephritis/Acute poststreptoccal glomerulonephritis cause

A

both common 2 weeks after strep infection, type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, inflammation causes decrease in GFR, decreased blood flow in kidneys triggers rennin

195
Q

Signs and symptoms of UTI

A

lower back/flank pain, dark cloudy urine, oliguria (dec urine output), facial edema leading to generalized edema, general signs of inflammation, increased blood pressure

196
Q

Treatment of glomerulonephritis

A

supportive, diuretics, angiotensis-converting enzyme inhibitors, sodium restriction, antibiotics, bed rest

197
Q

Urolithiasis cause

A

kidney stones, build up of mineral salts in kidneys, addition of deposits at site, may be caused by prolonged dehydration, immobilization, infection, excessive calcium in diet, hereditary predispositioin, more common in men

198
Q

Signs and symptoms of urolithiasis

A

frequently asymptomatic, back/flank pain, if ureter is obstructed there is extreme abdominal distension, intense spasms of pain, nausea and vomiting, chills/fever, possibly hematuria

199
Q

Treatment of urolithiasis

A

inc. fluid intake, analgesics, lithotripsy, urethroscopy, surgery

200
Q

Adult polycystic kidney disease cause

A

autosomal dominant, gene defect in chromosome 16, multiple cysts develop in both kidneys, 1st clinical manifestation midlife, develop chronic renal failure, life expectancy is about 10 years from onset

201
Q

signs and symptoms of adult polycystic kidney disease

A

back pain, hematuria, enlarged kidneys, hypertenstion

202
Q

Treatment of adult polycystic kidney disease

A

treat infections or hypertension, dialysis, transplant

203
Q

Acute renal failure cause

A

decrease blood flow to kidney and or inflammation and necrosis, severe prolonged shock can lead to heart failure, free hemoglobin or myoglobin are toxic to the tubules

204
Q

Signs and symptoms acute renal failure

A

oliguria, inc. BUN, metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, weakness/confusion due to toxins

205
Q

Treatment of acute renal failure

A

reverse underlying cause, inc. renal blood flow, short term dialysis until kidneys recover

206
Q

Chronic renal failure/ESRD cause

A

gradual irreversible destruction of the kidneys over a long period of time, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, hypertension, diabetes, long term exposure to nephrotoxins

207
Q

Early signs and symptoms of chronic renal failure

A

polyuria, general malaise, anemia, inc. BP

208
Q

Late signs and symptoms of chronic renal failure

A

uremic signs approx 90% loss of nephron function, oliguria then anuria (no urine output), pruritic hyperpigmented skin, congestive heart failure/arrhythmias, encephalopathy, osteoporosis, systemic infections

209
Q

Treatment of late signs and symptoms of chronic renal failure

A

control systemic effects, Inc, RBCs, dialysis, transplant

210
Q

What are the 3 stages of chronic renal failure?

A

Decreased renal reserve, renal insufficiency, end stage

211
Q

Decreased renal reserve

A

nephrons lost about 60%, remaining nephrons adapt and increase filtration capacity, GFR is dec. serum creatinine higher than average, yet normal, normal urea

212
Q

Renal Insufficiency

A

change in blood chemistry, nephrons lost about 75%, GFR is decreased to 20% or normal, tubule function is decreased, erythropoiesis is dec. ( bone marrow supression)

213
Q

End stage Renal Failure (LATE)

A

nephrons lost about 90%, GFR is negligible (none), fluid, wastes, electrolytes are retained in body, ALL systems are affected: osteoporosis, leathery skin, metabolic acidosis, electrolyte imbalance, CHF (arrhythmias), Encephalopathy (mentally confused), oliguria or anuria develop

214
Q

What are the 3 types of Dialysis

A

peritoneal dialysis, hemodialysis, continuous renal replacement (CRRT)

215
Q

Peritoneal dialysis

A

least invasive, uses the persons own peritoneum as dialyzing membrane. Tube is place in the peritoneum, diffusion of wastes takes place via the clean fluid and membrane, contaminated fluid is drained out/replaced with fresh, patient could do this by his/herself

216
Q

How ofter is peritoneal dialysis done?

A

3 weeks

217
Q

How long is peritoneal dialysis done?

A

5-8 hours

218
Q

Hemodialysis

A

blood is drawn out of the body and filtered through an artificial kidney and then blood is returned to the persons circulation. Needs and access (permacath or central venous line), most patients have to go to Dialysis center but some can do this at home

219
Q

How often is hemodialysis done?

A

3-4 times per week

220
Q

How long does hemodialysis take?

A

3-5 hours

221
Q

CRRT

A

continuous, utilized for clinically unstable patients for days, an extremely porous blood filter containing a semi permeable membrane is used in all methods

222
Q

Kidney transplant

A

need a match or donor, chance of rejection, immunosuppressive drugs indefinitely, life can be normal if there is no rejection, sometimes the underlying disease that destroyed the original kidneys will destroy the new ones.

Human Disease Test 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions