Digestive Function Flashcards

1
Q

A patient with a history of hypertension, obstructive sleep apnea, sliding hiatal hernia, presents to the primary care office with complaints of heartburn at night for the past 6 weeks. The patient states that they’re compliant with the medication regimen prescribed to them by their gastroenterologist and they’ve even raised the head of their bed about 6 inches, but they haven’t noticed an improvement in heartburn symptoms.

Patient Information:
Age - 48
Gender- M
BMI: 24.9

Vital signs:
Temp- 37°C
HR- 87
BP- 124/84
RR- 19

Current Medications:
Cardizem 5mg daily
Omeprazole 40mg daily
Famotidine 20mg daily

The patient states that they’d prefer not to increase their omeprazole dose because they’re worried about increasing their dementia risk. Which of the following interventions would be best for the provider to recommend to this patient?

A. Suggest the patient talk to their cardiologist about switching blood pressure medications.

B. Counsel the patient on dietary changes that include eating less at night and consolidate most of their food intake into the first two meals of the day.

C Increase the famotidine dose to 40mg daily. Perform a mini cognitive assessment.

D. Explore weight loss strategies and refer the patient to a general surgeon to repair the hiatal hernia

A

Drugs that relax the lower esophageal sphincter, such as calcium channel blockers, are contraindicated in patients with sliding hiatal hernias (Rogers, p. 1325, 2022). This patient has hypertension which seems to be somewhat under control, but it is possible/ likely that the patient could be managed on a drug from a different class.

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2
Q

Which of the following clinical presentations would be most consistent with Hirschsprung Disease?

Patient #1

Information:
Age – 3 days

Gender- F
PMH (infant):
*Single liveborn infant delivered by Cesarean
*Abnormal findings on neonatal screening for cystic fibrosis

Presentation:
* Abdominal distention, palpable “dough-like” dilated intestinal loops
* Bile colored emesis
* Radiologic exam confirms meconium present in small intestine

Patient #2

Information:
Age- 3 days
Gender- M
PMH (infant):
* Single liveborn infant delivered vaginally

  • Preterm newborn
    PMH (mother):
  • Unspecified Preeclampsia
  • Gestational Diabetes
  • Preterm labor with preterm delivery

Presentation:
Patient is icteric. Serum bilirubin concentration 23 mg/dL.

Patient #3

Information:
Age – 26y/o
Gender- M
PMH:
* current everyday smoker
* vitamin d deficiency

Presentation:
Complains of diarrhea and bright red hematochezia. Abdomen is tender to palpation. Serum albumin level 3.0 g/dL.

Patient #4

Information:
Age- 59
Gender- F
PMH:
*Alcohol dependency

  • alcoholic hepatitis
  • Cirrhosis

Presentation:
Patient is icteric. Patient complains of anorexia, fatigue, and melena. RBC 3.2 million cells/mcL,

A

patient #1 hirschspring disease

patient #2 pathologic jaundice
patient #3 chrons disease
patient #4 bleeding esophageal varices

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3
Q

Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiologic processes associated with hepatic encephalopathy?

A. excessive amounts of the inhibitory neurotransmitter serotonin produced in the gut may contribute to decreased levels of consciousness

B. it is thought the accumulation of products (that would otherwise be detoxified by the liver) leads to transient inhibition of postural muscles known as asterixis

C. the body develops collateral vessels to shunt the blood around the diseased liver

D. neurotransmission within the brain is altered when osmotic changes occur in the presence of glutamine

A

excessive amounts of the inhibitory neurotransmitter serotonin produced in the gut may contribute to decreased levels of consciousness –The neurotransmitter thought to be involved in this process is GABA

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4
Q

A patient presents to your office with a chief complaint of greasy, pale, foul-smelling stools. Which of the following would not be on your differential:
A Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
B Pancreatic insufficiency
C Bile duct malfunction
D H. pylori infection

A

H pylori infection generally causes gastritis and erosions of the gastric/duodenal lining, but typically does not result in steatorrhea

the rest create steatorrhea (greasy foul smelling stool)

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5
Q

To reduce the risk of hepatic encephalopathy in patients with liver failure, the NP should advise the patient on all of the following, except:
A Eat a low protein diet
B Avoid opioid analgesics
C Use lactulose to avoid constipation
D Avoid alcoholic beverages entirely

A

eat low protein

healthy intake of protein is necessary to avoid malnutrition, so a diet with healthy proteins including lean meats, legumes, and low-fat dairy is recommended.

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6
Q

You are a nurse practitioner working in the emergency department. A patient presents with gross voluminous hematemesis. Past medical history of alcoholism and gastritis leads you to believe the patient has an underlying condition of:

A. Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease

B. Portal hypertension

C. Gastric ulcers

D. Chronic mesenteric ischemia

A

Portal hypertension – causes the development of varices due to the prolonged pressure in the portal vein, “particularly in the lower esophagus and stomach” (Rogers, 2023, p. 1342). “Esophageal varices is the most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension, [with] acute rupture of esophageal varices [causing] hemorrhage and voluminous vomiting of dark colored blood”

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7
Q

Risk factors which increase the chance of development for stomach and esophageal adenocarcinomas include all of the following except:

A Gastroesophageal reflux disease

B Smoking

C Diets high in nitrates and salts

D Use of proton pump inhibitors

A

proton pump inhibitors are the treatment of choice to reduce GERD symptoms and are often prescribed for chemo-prevention of Barretts esophagitis

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8
Q

A mother is concerned about her infant noting increased fussiness and changes in stool, which would be most concerning?

A A one week old with mustard seed stool

B A 6 month old with current jelly stools

C A 12 month old with pale, greasy, foul smelling stool with oil droplets and intermittently constipated

D A 2 year old with hard small stool

A

a 6 month old with currant jelly stools is concerning for intussusception. Based on age and chief complaint. The telescoping of the intestines needs to be reversed to prevent serious complications

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9
Q

A 36-year-old male presents to his primary physician with a history of GERD, he states he constantly is having heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia, he just had, and upper endoscopy completed, that shows a protrusion of an abdominal structure into the thoracic cavity, you would suspect what type of diagnosis for this patient?

A. Gastric ulcer

B. Hiatal hernia

C. Small bowel obstruction

D. Gastritis

A

Hiatal hernia (correct) – this is characterized as a protrusion of the abdominal structure into the thoracic cavity, clinical manifestations include, GERD, heart burn, regurgitation, dysphagia, and epigastric pain, diagnosis is confirmed by upper endoscopy

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of duodenal ulcers?

A. Malabsorption

B. Alcohol use

C. H. pylori

D. Oral intake of vitamins

A

duodenal ulcers occur with greater frequency than other types of peptic ulcers and are generally caused by H. pylori infection and NSAID use

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11
Q

A patient is admitted to the labor and delivery unit, she is 39 weeks and 2 days pregnant, she is showing signs of active labor, she is 9 cm dilated, her waters broke on its own and you notice the waters is a dark greenish color. What is the baby at risk for?

A. GERD

B. Meconium ileus

C. Meconium aspiration syndrome

D. Meconium plug syndrome

A

Meconium aspiration syndrome (correct) – this occurs following contamination of amniotic fluid associated with fetal hypoxia, gasping respirations cause aspiration of the contaminated amniotic fluid deep into the fetal lung, meconium the substance that fills the entire intestine before birth, it is dark greenish

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12
Q

The diarrhea caused by viral infections like rotavirus and C. difficile, resulting in large volume of stool high in chloride or bicarbonate-rich fluids is an example of what type of diarrhea?

A Motility diarrhea

B Secretory diarrhea

C Osmotic diarrhea

D Steatorrhea

A

secretory diarrhea. The is caused by excessive mucosal secretions of chloride or bicarbonate-rich fluid or overall inhibition of net sodium absorption. Causes are viral, bacterial endotoxin, bacterial overgrowth, neoplasm, ulcerative colitis, crohn’s disease and fecal impaction. This is hormone mediated.

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13
Q

A 7 year old child presents to the clinic for symptoms of anorexia, diarrhea, bone pain, Fatigue and irritability. Labs show anemia, hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia. The clinician suspects the child has celiacs disease, after testing this suspicion is confirmed. The clinician knows the treatment for this disease consists of the following except?

A Life long gluten free diet

B Increase in malt in the diet

C Addition of fat soluble vitamins

D Iron supplements

A

increase in malt in the diet. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disease causing damage to the small intestinal villous epithelium when gluten is introduced. It has a strong genetic predisposition. This causes atrophy to the small intestinal mucosa because of shedding of the epithelial cells and results in hypertrophy of the mucosa. The severity of the disease depends on the length of time the mucosa is exposed to gluten. This causes malabsorption, anemia, vitamin deficiencies and systemic inflammation. Malt, barley, rye and wheat all need to be excluded from the diet to reduce damage to the mucosa.

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14
Q

A 55 year old presents 3 weeks of jaundice, dark urine and clay colored stool. He states that he has been fatigued and experiencing abdominal pain. Assessment shows hepatomegaly with pain on palpation. After testing the patient is diagnosed with viral hepatitis. What phase of the disease is the patient in?

A. Prodromal

B Icteric

C Recovery

D Chronic active hepatitis

A

icteric phase. This is the second phase of viral hepatitis. The patient presents with 2-6 weeks of the above symptoms 1-2 weeks after prodromal phase and lasts 2-6 weeks. During this time the liver function is negatively affected.

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15
Q

Which of the following organs is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption in the digestive system?
A. Stomach
B. Liver
C. Small Intestine
D. Pancreas

A

Small Intestine - This is the correct answer as the small intestine is the primary site for nutrient absorption in the digestive system. It features villi and microvilli that increase the surface area to maximize nutrient uptake.

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16
Q

Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of a duodenal ulcer?
A. Severe chest pain during physical activity
B. Gnawing or burning pain in the epigastric region that occurs 2-3 hours after meals
C. and tenderness in the lower abdomen
D. Persistent diarrhea with blood

A

Gnawing or burning pain in the epigastric region that occurs 2-3 hours after meals

17
Q

Which of the following are common clinical manifestations of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in children?
A. Frequent vomiting or regurgitation
B. Persistent cough or wheezing
C. Difficulty swallowing
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

18
Q

Patient with a 10-year history of GERD reports smoking 1 pack of cigarettes a day for the past 30 years and reports a new onset of nocturnal reflux, and difficulty swallowing. The patient also states that the medication for reflux is “not working anymore.” The NP understands that the patient is at increased risk for the following conditions EXCEPT:

A. Esophageal Cancer
B. Esophageal Varices
C. Barrett’s Esophagus (BE)
D. Esophageal Strictures

A

Esophageal Varices

Rationale Esophageal varices are caused by portal hypertension, where the increase in pressure from the portal vein makes a new vascular pathway to bypass the obstruction in the liver. The new path causes the esophagus to swell and bleed

19
Q

The patient presents to the clinic with slurred speech, tremors, and jaundice. She says it started 2 days ago and denies any medical history. The chart review shows a new placement of the Paragard intrauterine device (IUD) 2 weeks ago. On the exam, the patient’s cornea is notable for green-yellow rings and yellow sclera. Bloodwork is remarkable for low serum ceruloplasmin and elevated AST/ALT. CBC and v/s are normal. The NP suspects:

A Gall Stones, and need for gall stone removal
B. Galactosemia and need to start a galactose-free diet
C. Fructosemia and the need for Vitamin C supplementation
D Wilson Disease, remove Paragard and anticipate chelation therapy.

A

Wilson’s Disease, remove Paragard, and anticipate chelation therapy.

Rationale: Wilson’s Disease is a genetic disorder where the liver cannot excrete copper. Elevated levels of copper can cause indistinct speech, dystonia, green-yellow rings in the cornea, anorexia, intention tremors, and jaundice. Paragard is made with copper and is contraindicated in Wilson disease. It should be considered for removal

20
Q

Patient reports losing their job and breaking up with their partner. The patient also states that they ingested many Tylenol pills and was sent to the ER for medical clearance. The NP will assess for:
A. Urinary Tract infection
B. Acute Liver Failure
C. Esophageal Atresia
D. Celiac Disease

A

Acute Liver Failure

Rationale: The patient is at risk for acute liver failure. The patient ingested large amounts of Tylenol and needs to be treated with N-acetyl cysteine (Mucomyst) within 16 hours of consumption. Acetaminophen overdose is the leading cause of acute liver failure in the US

21
Q

A patient presents with dyspepsia and upper abdominal discomfort that radiates to the epigastric area. The patient reported that the pain improves after meals but worsens 2 to 5 hours after a meal. The patient reports that he has been taking NSAIDs for back pain. The patient also reports bloating and weight gain. This presentation suggests the presence of which of the following?
A Gastric Ulcer
B Gastroesophageal reflux disease
C Duodenal ulcer
D Pancreatitis

A

Duodenal ulcers –occur with greater frequency than other types of peptic ulcers and are generally caused by H. pylori infection and NSAID use. The patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with a duodenal ulcer. The characteristic manifestation of a duodenal ulcer is chronic, intermittent pain in the epigastric area. The pain begins 2 or 3 hours after eating, when the stomach is empty. Pain is relieved rapidly by ingestion of food or antacids, creating a typical pain-food-relief pattern

21
Q

A patient presents with right lower quadrant abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. During the physical assessment, you noticed pain with abdominal palpation and rebound tenderness to the right lower quadrant. White blood cell count is 12,000 cells/mm³ with elevated C-reactive protein. This suggests which of the following acute processes?

A. Appendicitis

B. Pancreatic cancer

C. Pancreatitis.

D. Diverticulitis

A

Appendicitis –is an inflammation of the vermiform appendix. Epigastric or periumbilical pain is the typical symptoms of an inflamed appendix. The pain may be vague at first but will increase in intensity over 3 to 4 hours. It may subside and then migrate to the right lower quadrant, indicating extension of the inflammation to the surrounding tissues. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia follow the onset of pain, and a low-grade fever is common. Diarrhea occurs in some individuals, particularly children, others have constipation. Perforation, peritonitis, and abscess formation are the most serious complications of appendicitis.

21
Q

A patient diagnosed with cirrhosis, with a history of hepatitis C and alcohol use disorder, presents with ascites and shortness of breath. Paracentesis was performed, removing 1.3 L of fluid. Before the patient’s discharge, you want to educate the patient. Which of the following is inappropriate?

A. “Cirrhosis involves the replacement of normal healthy liver tissue with scar tissue, causing significant scarring in the liver that can obstruct biliary channels and blood flow.”

B. “Alcohol increases the rate of cell death and severity of inflammation in the liver. If you stop drinking alcohol, it will slow the progression of liver damage and improve the process of regeneration.”

C. “Cirrhosis can cause immune suppression and increase the risk of infection. I highly recommend receiving the flu vaccine for this season.”

D. “If you rest, take vitamin supplements, and follow a nutritious diet, liver damage can be reversible.”

A

it would be inappropriate to say “If you rest, take vitamin supplements, and follow a nutritious diet, liver damage can be reversible.”

21
Q

Which of the following is not a concern for individuals who experience gastroesophageal reflux disease?

A Barrett esophagus
B. Esophagitis
C. Asthma attacks
D. Weight gain

A

weight gain

GERD symptoms may contribute to weight loss

22
Q

Which of the following causes of intestinal obstruction is being described: Inflamed sac-like herniations of mucosa

A. Hernia
B. Diverticulosis
C. Fibrous adhesions
D. Volvulus

A

Diverticulosis is inflamed saccular herniations of mucosa through the tunica muscularis of the colon

22
Q

Jeffery is a nurse practitioner who is educating a student on cystic fibrosis. Which of the following statements indicates that the student needs more education on this disease?

A. Cystic fibrosis is a disease that only effects the lungs
B. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a dysfunction of the CF transmembrane regulator protein
C The hallmark pathophysiologic triad of cystic fibrosis is obstruction, infection and inflammation
D. PERT therapy is required for the entirety of life for individuals with cystic fibrosis

A

A

Cystic fibrosis is found throughout the airways, sweat glands, digestive tract, pancreas, hepatobiliary system and reproductive system

23
Q

A 74-year-old female presents to her primary care practitioner’s office with reports of chronic constipation. She reports that she has infrequent stools, straining with at least 50% of her bowel movements, and after stooling, a feeling of incomplete emptying of her bowels. The patient denies having any recent changes to her medications, weight, or diet and denies any recent illnesses. The practitioner diagnoses her as having primary constipation. Which of the following findings would indicate primary constipation instead of secondary constipation?

A. Presence of impaired colonic motor activity in diagnostic studies.
B. Constipation occurs after starting a new opioid medication.
C. Detection of a mass in her pelvis upon imaging studies.
D. Testing positive for hypothyroidism after thyroid functioning testing.

A

Presence of impaired colonic motor activity in diagnostic studies.

24
Q

A 67-year-old male presents to his local emergency department with a complaint of progressive dysphagia and chest pain. He has a medical history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and his dysphagia has rapidly progressed from solids to now liquids, leading to unintentional weight loss. The chest pain is constant and is radiating to his back. Endoscopic examination and evaluation discovered a mass in the patient’s distal esophagus. Which of the following best describes the progressive process of development of esophageal cancer in this patient’s presentation?

A. GERD leads to squamous cell carcinoma due to prolonged acid exposure.
B. Chronic GERD leads to Barrett’s esophagus, which then develops into adenocarcinoma.
C. Esophageal cancer typically starts as a metastatic disease, leading to a rapidly progressive spread to other organs.
D. Alcohol and smoking lead to adenocarcinoma of the esophagus due to squamous metaplasia.

A

Chronic GERD leads to Barrett’s esophagus, which then develops into adenocarcinoma

25
Q

A practitioner is performing a house call to a family of refugees who have recently arrived in the United States. The practitioner visits the family and notices that the 4-year-old child of the family is presenting with signs of malnutrition. Upon examination, the child has a distended abdomen, edema, and is irritable. The child’s hair is also brittle and sparse and appears reddish yellow. The family states that they cannot afford much protein, and their diet consists of rice and beans. Labs are drawn, demonstrating low serum albumin, hypokalemia, and heightened cortisol levels. Based on the symptoms and findings of the examination, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Iron deficiency anemia.
B. Celiac disease.
C. Kwashiorkor.
D. Marasmus.

A

Kwashiorkor is a form of severe malnutrition caused by a lack of protein intake but a high amount of carbohydrates, which can have a poor prognosis if not immediately corrected (Rogers & Brashers, 2023, pp. 1387-1388). Children are often found with distended abdomens, micronutrient deficiencies, dry and brittle hair that is discolored, and edema in dependent regions.

26
Q

A nurse practitioner is taking care of a patient in a primary care setting. The patient is a 23 year old female who has been taking naproxen for ankle pain. She has no other previous medical history and denies smoking or drinking. She states she has been having “stomach pain that wakes her up during the night”. Which of the following the provider suspect?

A. GERD

B. Duodenal ulcer

C. Ischemic ulcer

D. Paralytic ileus

A

A duodenal ulcer is a type of ulcer typically caused by H. pylori and NSAID use, such as naproxen (Rogers & Brashers, 2023, p. 1331). The pain typically occurs when the stomach is empty, such as the middle of the night

27
Q

A nurse practitioner in the emergency department is precepting a student and educating them about pancreatitis. Which of the following is not a cause of acute pancreatitis?

A. Gallstones

B. Alcoholism

C. Infection

D. Hypocalcemia

A

Hypocalcemia

note that sustained hypercalcemia can be a result of having pancreatitis

28
Q

Which of the following is the protein associated with Celiac Disease?

A. Gliadin

B. Fibrin

C. Glutamate

D. Actin

A

Gliadin is the protein component of wheat, barley, and rye, commonly known as gluten

29
Q

An older adult client presents with symptoms of fatigue, numbness, and tingling in their extremities. They report a history of gastric atrophy and mention challenges with nutrient absorption. What is the most likely cause of the client’s symptoms based on their condition?
A. Dehydration due to delayed gastric emptying
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency due to decreased intrinsic factor production
C. Iron deficiency anemia due to mucosal injury
D. Hypoglycemia due to altered intestinal microflora.

A

Vit B12 could be a consequence of decreased intrinsic factor production, which is linked to gastric atrophy. If there is no intrinsic factor, the small intestine cannot absorb vitamin B12 as it is supposed to. This can cause fatigue and neurological manifestations like numbness and tingling.

30
Q

A nurse practitioner is evaluating a patient presenting with complaints of infrequent bowel movements and discomfort. Based on the Rome IV criteria, which finding is most indicative of chronic constipation?

A. Straining during ≥25% of toilet visits over the preceding three months.
B. Loose stools are achievable without laxatives.
C. Lumpy, hard feces on <10% of defecations.
D. Symptoms associated with irritable bowel syndrome.

A

Straining during ≥25% of toilet visits over the preceding three months.

31
Q

A nurse practitioner is providing prenatal counseling to a pregnant client who is concerned about the risk of her baby developing cleft lip (CL), cleft palate (CP), or both (CL/P). The client has a history of diabetes and takes medication for morning sickness. What is the most important information for the nurse practitioner to convey to the client regarding risk factors for cleft lip and palate development?
A. “Your history of diabetes does not affect the development of cleft lip or palate in your baby.”
B. “Taking medication for morning sickness may increase the risk of cleft lip and palate.”
C. “Ensuring you consume adequate B vitamins, including folic acid, can reduce the risk of cleft lip and palate.”
D. “Cleft lip and palate are only caused by genetic mutations, so your lifestyle does not impact the risk.”

A

Ensuring you consume adequate B vitamins, including folic acid, can reduce the risk of cleft lip and palate.”

32
Q

What is one of the immediate interventions for a patient with a suspected small bowel obstruction?

A. Management and replacement of fluids and electrolytes

B. Begin oral intake of clear liquids to assess for tolerance.

C. Preparing the patient for surgery to relieve the obstruction.

D. Encourage deep breathing exercises to promote bowel motility.

A

Management and replacement of fluids and electrolytes

33
Q

Greg arrives at your clinic, complaining of abdominal issues with no significant history in the past. Which of these findings would help to differentiate a patient’s diagnosis of Crohn’s disease versus ulcerative colitis?

A. Being male

B. Moderate abdominal pain with bowel movements

C. Presence of “skip lesions” in the intestines on imaging

D. Lab findings of anemia & hypokalemia

A

“Skip lesions” in Crohn’s disease that are transmural

34
Q

Doug, a 40 year-old male, comes to your clinic after stating he’s “felt sluggish” for the past few days. While reviewing his past medical history, he states he’s been a smoker for 15 years (one pack/day), and that he used to drink a 6 pack of beer a day for 10 years,, but has cut down to 1 drink a day. His lab values indicate elevated AST/LFT, bilirubin of 3.5 and chronic anemia that began 2 years ago. Which statement during your review of systems would be the most critical to assess immediately?

A. “My belly feels a little swollen, like I’ve eaten too much lately”

B. “The left side of my stomach has always been tender, but it’s gone down the last couple months”

C. “Every now and then I used to cough up a little blood, but it’s been occurring more frequently”

D. “I’m not sure why my skin has been slightly yellow lately. Can you tell me why?

A

C.

the most alarming to the provider should be his hematemesis, which can develop over years and manifests in bloody vomiting that can indicate varices due to portal hypertension