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Diagnostic Tools Flashcards

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1
Q

what is level one of the diagnostic hierarchy?

a) organic disorders
b) functional psychosis
c) non-psychotic disorders
d) personality disorders

A

a) organic disorders

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2
Q

what is level two of the diagnostic hierarchy?

a) organic disorders
b) functional psychosis
c) non-psychotic disorders
d) personality disorders

A

b) functional psychosis

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3
Q

what is level three of the diagnostic hierarchy?

a) organic disorders
b) functional psychosis
c) non-psychotic disorders
d) personality disorders

A

c) non-psychotic disorders

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4
Q

what is level four of the diagnostic hierarchy?

a) organic disorders
b) functional psychosis
c) non-psychotic disorders
d) personality disorders

A

d) personality disorders

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5
Q

what is the difference between a diagnosis and a formulation?

A

diagnosis is a general description of a condition which prescribes treatment and predicts course
formulation explains an individual condition and its features and predicts a response to treatment

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6
Q

what psych drug side effect is described as:

restlessness, fidgeting legs, pacing and leg shuffling?

A

akathisia

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7
Q

how is akathisia managed?

A 
anticholinergics
propanalol
cyproheptadine
BZDPs
clonidine
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8
Q

what psych drug side effect is described as: spastic contractions of certain muscles/muscle groups, often painful e.g. tongue protrusion, grimace, torticolisis

A

acute dystonia

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9
Q

what psych drug side effect is described as involuntary, repetitive, purposeless movements of tongue/lips/face/trunk/extremeties. it may be generalised or just affect one muscle group. it is mainly caused by prolonged antipsychotic use and is often irreversible

A

tardive dyskinesia

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10
Q

why should anticholinergics not be used to treat tardive dyskinesia?

A

exacerbate symptoms

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11
Q

what is neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused by?

A

reaction to medication (generally antipsychotic)

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12
Q

what psych drug side effect is caused by blockage of dopaminergic hypothalamo-spinal tracts that inhibit preganglionic sympathetic neurones?

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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13
Q

what psych drug side effect is characterised by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability and altered mental state?

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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14
Q

in neuroleptic malignant syndrome, high creatine phosphokinase can lead to what dangerous side effect?

A

rhabdomyolysis

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15
Q

management of NMS is to stop the causative drug and supportive treatment. what drug can be given to decrease muscle rigidity?

A

dantrolene

lorazepam

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16
Q

overdose of what drug can lead to serotonin syndrome?

A

SSRIs

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17
Q

serotonin syndrome and NMS can be easily confused. how does their onset differ?

a) NMS 1-3 days, SS <12hrs
b) NMS <12hrs, SS 1-3 days

A

a) NMS 1-3 days, SS <12hrs

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18
Q

fill in the gaps in relation to NMS and SS:
hyporeflexia is present in ___, hyperreflexia and clonus are present in ___.. Pupils are normal in ___ but dilated in ___. bowel activity is decreased in ___ but increased in ___.

A

NMS; SS.
NMS; SS.
NMS; SS.

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19
Q

what is the difference between a problem drinker and a heavy drinker?

A

problem drinker experiences harm as a consequence of drinking
heavy drinker drinks more alcohol than is healthy/safe in the long term

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20
Q

how many men and women drink over the recommended daily amounts of alcohol?

a) 5% men, 2% women
b) 10% men, 5% women
c) 20% men, 10% women
d) 40% men, 20% women

A

c) 20% men, 10% women

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21
Q

what is the recommended daily units of alcohol for men and women?

a) 1 men, 0.5 women
b) 3 men, 2 women
c) 6 men, 4 women
d) 10 men, 8 women

A

b) 3 men, 2 women

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22
Q

wernicke-korsakoff syndrome is a combination of which 2 disorders?

A

wernicke’s encephalopathy and korsakoff’s psychosis

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23
Q

which of these is NOT an eye sign of wernicke-korsakoff’s?

a) nystagmus
b) bilateral LR palsy
c) dilated pupils
d) conjugate gaze palsy

A

c) dilated pupils

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24
Q

which of these is NOT an ataxic sign present in wernicke-korsakoff’s?

a) twitching
b) broad based gait
c) cerebellar signs
d) vestibular paralysis

A

a) twitching

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25
Q

are the cognitive signs of acute stupor and coma, amnestic syndrome and confabulation more characteristic of wernicke’s encephalopathy or korsakoff’s psychosis?

A

korsakoff’s psychosis

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26
Q

what does CAGE stand for in the alcohol assessment?

A

C - have you tried to cut down?
A - do you get angry when people criticise your drinking?
G - do you feel guilty about drinking?
E - do you ever need an eye-opener?

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27
Q

what happens to the pupils of someone who has taken amphetamine?

a) dilated
b) restricted
c) stay the same

A

a) dilated

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28
Q

what class drug is amphetamine?

a) A
b) B
c) C

A

b) B

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29
Q

is amphetamine addictive?

a) yes
b) no

A

a) yes

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30
Q

what class drug is cannabis?

a) A
b) B
c) C

A

b) B

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31
Q

is cannabis addictive?

a) yes
b) no

A

a) yes

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32
Q

what happens to the pupils of someone who has taken cocaine?

a) dilated
b) restricted
c) stay the same

A

a) dilated

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33
Q

what chemical does cocaine increase in the body?

a) monoamine
b) serotonin
c) dopamine

A

c) dopamine (35x normal)

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34
Q

what is the antidote for cocaine?

a) naloxone
b) paracetamol
c) BZDPs

A

c) BZDPs

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35
Q

what class drug is cocaine?

a) A
b) B
c) C

A

a) A

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36
Q

is cocaine addictive?

a) yes
b) no

A

a) yes

37
Q

what happens to the pupils of someone who has taken BZDPs?

a) dilated
b) restricted
c) stay the same

A

b) restricted

38
Q

what class drug are BZDPs and GHB?

a) A
b) B
c) C

A

c) C

39
Q

are BZDPs and GHB addictive?

a) yes
b) no

A

a) yes

40
Q

what are BZDPs and GHB agonists for in the body?

a) GABA
b) serotonin
c) dopamine

A

a) GABA

41
Q

what happens to the pupils of someone who has taken Heroin?

a) dilated
b) restricted
c) stay the same

A

b) restricted

although pupils dilate in withdrawal

42
Q

what class drug is heroin?

a) A
b) B
c) C

A

a) A

43
Q

what is the antidote for heroin overdose?

a) naloxone
b) paracetamol
c) BZDPs

A

a) naloxone

44
Q

is heroin addictive?

A

yes u idiot

45
Q

what is heroin an agonist for in the body?

a) GABA
b) opioid
c) dopamine

A

b) opioid

46
Q

what class drug is ketamine?

a) A
b) B
c) C

A

b) B

47
Q

is ketamine addictive?

a) yes
b) no

A

a) yes

48
Q

what is ketamine an antagonist for in the body?

a) GABA
b) opioid
c) NMDA

A

c) NMDA

49
Q

what class drug is LSD?

a) A
b) B
c) C

A

a) A

50
Q

is LSD addictive?

a) yes
b) no

A

b) no

51
Q

what is LSD an agonist for in the body?

a) GABA
b) opioid
c) dopamine

A

c) dopamine

52
Q

what class drug is MDMA?

a) A
b) B
c) C

A

a) A

53
Q

is MDMA addictive?

a) yes
b) no

A

b) no

54
Q

what happens to the pupils of someone who has taken MDMA?

a) dilated
b) restricted
c) stay the same

A

a) dilated

55
Q

what class drug is mephedrone?

a) A
b) B
c) C

A

b) B

56
Q

is mephadrone addictive?

a) yes
b) no

A

a) yes

57
Q

what chemical is mephedrone an agonist for in the body?

a) monoamine
b) serotonin
c) dopamine

A

a) monoamine

58
Q

what class drug are psilocybin mushrooms?

a) A
b) B
c) C

A

a) A

59
Q

what chemical is mushrooms agonists for in the body?

a) monoamine
b) 5HT
c) dopamine

A

b) 5HT

60
Q

what kind of mood disorder is this:
one that is not caused by another medical or psychiatric condition
a) primary
b) secondary

A

a) primary

61
Q

fill in the blank:

in a _________ mood disorder, once the underlying conditions is treated, the mood disorder is treated

A

secondary

62
Q

how can a primary mood disorder be further classified?

a) depressive vs manic
b) acute vs chronic
c) unipolar vs bipolar

A

c) unipolar vs bipolar

63
Q

to be classified as bipolar, a patient with a primary mood disorder must have at least one episode of

a) wellness
b) psychosis
c) mania/hypomania

A

c) mania/hypomania

64
Q

what delusional disorder does this describe?

delusions of infidelity of spouse/partner

A

othello

65
Q

what delusional disorder does this describe?
delusion of being loved by someone who is inaccessible/have little contact with
a) cotard’s
b) fregoli
c) de clerambault’s

A

c) de clerambault’s

66
Q

what delusional disorder does this describe?
delusional parasitosis – one’s skin is infested by parasites
a) cotard’s
b) ekbom’s
c) fregoli

A

b) ekbom’s

67
Q

what delusional disorder does this describe?
one no longer exists, is about to die, rotting etc
a) cotard’s
b) capgras
c) fregoli

A

a) cotard’s

68
Q

what delusional disorder does this describe?
a familiar individual has been replaced by an identical looking imposter
a) folie a deux
b) capgras
c) fregoli

A

b) capgras

69
Q

what delusional disorder does this describe?
a familiar individual is disguising themselves as various strangers (usually persecutory)
a) folie a deux
b) multiple personality disorder
c) fregoli

A

c) fregoli

70
Q

what delusional disorder does this describe?
delusional disorder shared by 2+ people in a close or dependant relationship. Usually chronic and persecutory/grandiose
a) folie a deux
b) multiple personality disorder
c) fregoli

A

a) folie a deux

71
Q 
what disorder does this describe?
2+ distinct identities that take control of a shared body and may have memory loss of each identity for the other. Due to childhood trauma before personality is fixed
a) folie a deux
b) multiple personality disorder
c) fregoli
A

b) multiple personality disorder

72
Q

loss of memory following a traumatic or stressful event is described as dissociative _______

a) amnesia
b) fugue
c) stupor
d) anaesthesia
e) convulsions

A

a) amnesia

73
Q

An unexpected ‘journey’ lasting several months with confusion about own identity or assumption of another. Memory of the episode is lost after. This is described as a dissociative _____

a) amnesia
b) fugue
c) stupor/motor disorder
d) anaesthesia
e) convulsions

A

b) fugue

74
Q

motionless/mute, unresponsive or partial paralysis is described as dissociative _____

a) amnesia
b) fugue
c) stupor/motor disorder
d) anaesthesia
e) convulsions

A

c) stupor/motor disorder

75
Q

loss of sensation e.g. glove and stocking which may accompany a motor disorder is described as dissociative ______

a) amnesia
b) fugue
c) stupor/motor disorder
d) anaesthesia
e) convulsions

A

d) anaesthesia

76
Q

pseudo-seizures with no raised serum prolactin afterwards are described as dissociative _______

a) amnesia
b) fugue
c) stupor/motor disorder
d) anaesthesia
e) convulsions

A

e) convulsions

77
Q 
which section of the MHA is this:
admission for assessment, up to 28 days. non renewable. applied for by an AMPH/NR, recommended by 2 doctors (one section 12.2 approved)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5(2)
e) 5(4)
A

a) 2

78
Q 
which section of the MHA is this:
admission for treatment. lasts 6 months, can be renewed for a further 6 months
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5(2)
e) 5(4)
A

b) 3

79
Q 
which section of the MHA is this:
emergency treatment. used if section 2 would cause delays. AMHP recommends to 1 doctor. normally converted to section 2
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5(2)
e) 5(4)
A

c) 4

80
Q 
which section of the MHA is this:
detention of patient already in hospital (not A+E), lasts 72 hours. made by FY2+. mental disorder present + risk to self/others
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5(2)
e) 5(4)
A

d) 5(2)

81
Q 
which section of the MHA is this:
nurses holding power, lasts 6 hours
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5(2)
e) 5(4)
A

e) 5(4)

82
Q 
which section of the MHA is this:
AMHP can apply for patient to be removed from home for MHA assessment to be completed
a) 17
b) 135
c) 136
A

b) 135

83
Q 
which section of the MHA is this:
allows police to detain patients with suspected mental disorder from public
a) 17
b) 135
c) 136
A

c) 136

84
Q 
which section of the MHA is this:
dictates inpatients leave attended/unattended from ward
a) 17
b) 135
c) 136
A

c) 136

85
Q

does the mental capacity act apply solely to those with mental disorders?

a) yes
b) no

A

b) no

86
Q

what are the 3 criteria used to judge if someone has capacity?

A
  1. understand information relevant to decision
  2. retain the info
  3. use/weigh it up as part of the decision making process
    they must also be able to communicate their decision
87
Q

when discussing a formulation, how is the chronology organised?

A

predisposing
precipitating
maintaining

88
Q

when discussing a formulation, how is the history split into 3 elements?

A

biological
psychological
social

89
Q

what does this mnemonic stand for?

All Brave Sane Men Think That Pizza Is Italian Really

A 
Appearance
Behaviour
Speech
Mood (objective, subjective, affect)
Thought form
Thought content
Perceptions
IQ (cognition)
Insight
Risk

PSYCH (3 decks)

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