Diabetes & eating disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Discuss the flow of glucagon and insulin post-prandially in T2DM.

A

Glucagon stays high during meals, as it is not inhibited by the insulin release as in healthy subjects
Insulin release is delayed and reduced.

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2
Q

What are the anabolic actions of insulin in glucose metabolism?

A

o Glucose transport into muscle and adipose tissues (GLUT4)
o Glycolysis –> energy
o Glycogenesis

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3
Q

What are the anabolic actions of insulin in lipid metabolism?

A
o	Lipogenesis (TG in adipose tissues and synthesis of FFAs in liver)
o	Lipoprotein lipase activity (LPL; adipose tissue)
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4
Q

What are the anabolic actions of insulin in protein and electrolyte metabolism?

A

o Transport of amino acids
o Protein synthesis
o Potassium enters into the cell

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5
Q

What are the actions of insulin in glucose metabolism that decrease catabolism?

A

o Decreased gluconeogenesis (liver)

o Decreased glycogenesis (liver and muscle)

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6
Q

What are the actions of insulin in lipid metabolism that decrease catabolism?

A
Decreased...
o	Lipolysis
o	LPL (muscle)
o	Ketogenesis
o	Fatty acid oxidation (liver)
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7
Q

What are the actions of insulin in protein metabolism that decrease catabolism?

A

Decreased Protein catabolism

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8
Q

Explain how glucose stimulates insulin release in healthy people.

A

Glucose enters the beta cells with GLUT2 –> To glucose-6-phosphate by glucokinase –> glycolysis to pyruvate –> TCA cycle –> ATP –> K channels shut –> Ca 2+ channels open –> insulin storage granules go to membrane –> insulin release

Insulin secreted as pro-insulin (Insulin + P-peptide)

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9
Q

Discuss the 2 phases of insulin secretion and how it relates to diabetes

A

First phase insulin
• The initial burst of insulin, 5-10 minutes after Beta cells are exposed to a rapid increase in BG (5-10 min after meal)
• “uncontrolled” flux of release
• Important to decrease glucagon, decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis, decrease lipolysis and prepare target cells for the action of insulin

Second phase insulin
• Lasts longer than phase 1
• After the acute response (first phase), insulin secretion rises more gradually and is directly related to the degree and duration of the stimulus
–> Diabetic patients do not have the first phase = problem
The second phase is better preserved in type 2 diabetes (= lasts longer)

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10
Q

What are 2 incretins and where are they produced?

A
  • GLP-1 is secreted from proglucagon in the enteroendocrine L-cells (ileum and colon)
  • GIP is derived from proGIP in the K-cells of the jejunum
    Both are released in the presence of nutrient ingestion
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11
Q

Diabetes is the cause of __% of strokes

A

30%

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12
Q

Diabetes is the cause of __% of heart attacks

A

40%

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13
Q

Diabetes is the cause of __% of kidney failure requiring dialysis

A

50%

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14
Q

Diabetes is the cause of __% of non-traumatic leg and foot amputations

A

70%

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15
Q

Diabetes is the cause of __% of blindness

A

Leading cause

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16
Q

What is LADA?

A

Latent autoimmune diabetes of adults;
Type of type 1 diabetes diagnosed in adulthood, often with a slower course of onset than type 1 diabetes diagnosed in juveniles (islet failure, not insulin resistance)

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17
Q

What is MODY?

A

Maturity onset diabetes of the young” (MODY) refers to any of several hereditary forms of diabetes mellitus caused by mutations in an autosomal dominant gene disrupting insulin production

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18
Q

Explain the onset of T1DM in a person.

A
  1. Genetic predisposition (100% of B cells present and functional)
  2. Silent insulin/B cell destruction (% B cells goes down. This process can take years) – Autoimmune
  3. 30% of B cell function = alterations in glucose tolerance
  4. 15% of B cells – diagnostic –> clinical diabetes
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19
Q

Who has the highest chance of developing T1DM:
Offspring of affected mother?
Offspring of affected father?

A

Offspring of affected mother: 1 in 50

Offspring of affected father: 1 in 14

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20
Q

Incidence of type 1 diabetes increases with time, while type 2 has stabilized. Why?

A
  • Genetics? HLA, DR3, DR4
  • Infection? Coxsackie virus
  • Alimentation (Cow’s milk?)
    Seasonal variations in T1DM: vitamin D?
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21
Q

What proportion of people with T1DM get diagnosed during adulthood?

A

42% (almost half) of people with type 1 diabetes were diagnosed between age 31 and 60. People often assume they have type 2 diabetes.

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22
Q

What proportion of B-cell loss is needed for pre-diabetes? For diabetes diagnosis?

A

Loss of 50% of B cell mass/function = pre-diabetes

Loss of 80% of B cell mass/function = type 2 diabetes diagnosis

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23
Q

Name 6 possibilities for insulin resistance in non-diabetic people

A
  • Children in puberty
  • People with type 2 diabetes
  • Late term pregnant women
  • People ill with an infection
  • People on steroids
  • People experiencing high stress levels
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24
Q

What are the 4 values for diabetes diagnosis and when are they used for diagnosis?

A

FPG >= 7.0 mmol/L (need 2 measurements if asymptomatic)
o Fasting = no intake for at least 8h

A1C >= 6.5% (in adults)
o Not for suspected T1DM

2hPG in a 75g OGTT >= 11.1 mmol/L

Random PG >= 11.1 mmol/L

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25
Q

What are the 3 values for pre-diabetes diagnosis?

A

Postprandial glycemia (or post load) ≥ 7.8 mmol/L = IGT

FPG ≥ 5.6 mmol/L = IFG

A1C 6.0-6.5% = Prediabetes

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26
Q

What is the recommended macronutrient distribution in diabetes? Fiber? Trans fat? SFA?

A

CHO 45-60%
Protein 15-20% (or 1.0-1.5 g/kg BW)
Fats 20-35%

Fiber: Increased to 30-50g/d; > 1/3 (10-20g/d) from viscous soluble fiber (e.g oats, barley, psyllium, konjac mannan, pulses, F&V)

Avoid trans fats; reduce SFA to < 9% of kcals; replace with PUFAs from mixed n-3/n-6 sources (e.g. nuts, canola oil, soybean oil, flaxseed), MUFAs from plant sources (e.g. extra virgin olive oil, high oleic oils, avocados), whole grains, or low GI CHO

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27
Q

What can a weight loss of 5-10% accomplish in people with diabetes and BMI≥25?

A

Nutritionally balanced, calorie reduced diet should be followed to achieve and maintain a lower, healthier BW
Weight loss of 5-10% of initial BW = improved insulin sensitivity, glycemic control, BP control, lipid levels

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28
Q

What should people with diabetes replace SFA with?

A

Polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) from mixed n-3/n-6 sources (e.g. nuts, canola oil, soybean oil, flaxseed)
Monounsaturated fatty acids (MUFAs) from plant sources (e.g. extra virgin olive oil, high oleic oils, avocados),
Whole grains, or
Low-GI carbohydrates

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29
Q

What is the first step for management of hyperglycemia after diagnosis of T2DM? What if not at target? What is the time goal for attainment of A1C?

A
  1. Initiate intensive healthy behaviour interventions or E restriction and increased PA to achieve and maintain healthy BW (+ Provide counselling on a diet best suited to the individual based on the values, preferences, and treatment goals)
  2. If not at target: Add pharmacotherapy

Timely adjustments to healthy behaviour interventions and/or pharmacotherapy should be made to attain A1C within 2-3 months for healthy behaviour interventions alone or 3-6 months for any combination with pharmacotherapy

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30
Q

Name advantages of the mediterranean diet

A

Decreased A1C
Decreased CVD
Decreased retinopathy, BP, CP
Increased HDL

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31
Q

Name advantages and disadvantages of a low-GI diet

A

Advantages:
Decreased A1C
Decreased CVD
Decreased LDL, CRP, hypoglycemia, diabetes medication

Disadvantage: None

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32
Q

Name advantages and disadvantages of a high-fiber diet

A

Advantages:
Decreased A1C (viscous fiber)
Decreased CVD
Decreased LDL, non-HDL-C, ApoB

Disadvantage: GI side effects

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33
Q

Name advantages and disadvantages of a vegetarian diet

A
Advantages:
Decreased A1C
Decreased CHD
Decreased weight
Decreased LDL

Disadvantage: Low B12

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34
Q

Name advantages and disadvantages of the DASH diet

A

Advantages:
Decreased A1C
Decreased CHD
Decreased weight, BP, LDL, CRP

Disadvantage: None

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35
Q

Name advantages and disadvantages of the Portfolio diet

A

Advantages:
Decreased CVD
Decreased LDL, CRP, BP

Disadvantage: None

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36
Q

Name advantages and disadvantages a diet high in dietary pulses/legumes

A

Advantages:
Decreased A1C
Decreased CVD
Decreased weight, LDL, BP

Disadvantage: GI side effects

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37
Q

Name advantages and disadvantages of a diet high in nuts

A

Advantages:
Decreased A1C
Decreased CVD
Decreased LDL, TG, FPG

Disadvantage: Nut allergies

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38
Q

Name advantages and disadvantages of a diet high in F&V

A

Advantages:
Decreased A1C
Decreased CVD
Decreased BP

No disadvantages

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39
Q

How many CHO servings should be provided for meals in DB? For snacks?

A

Typically, choose 3-5 CHO servings per meal; and 1-2 servings for snacks

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40
Q

What should we substract from the total CHO content of a food for CHO counting?

A
  • Adjust for dietary fiber intake

* Foods that contain polyols (sugar alcohols (substract half of them))

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41
Q

What are polyols? Give examples?

What are the side effects of polyols?

A

Sugar alcohols
o Erythritol, glycerol (glycerin/glycerine), isomalt, lactitol, maltitol, mannitol, sorbitol, xylitol
o If intake > 10g/d = side effects: bloating, diarrhea…

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42
Q

Nutrition therapy can reduce A1C by how much?

A

1-2%

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43
Q

LCS use is associated with what?

A

Higher BMI

Higher T2DM incidence

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44
Q

What are the 4 proposed mechanism for the link between LCS and T2DM?

A
  • Sweet taste receptor mediated changes in gut hormones
  • Impaired predictive relationship between sweet taste and calories/weight gain
  • Altered nutrient absorption via changing the gut microbiota
  • Changes in taste preferences and dietary patterns
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45
Q

Name 4 benefits of LCS

A
  • More variety in food  enables people that are carb sugar or calorie conscious to take in a wider range of foods that they would either not be allowed to eat or could only eat in such tiny amounts that they were not satisfying
  • Does not raise BG
  • Does not contain calories
  • Can help avoid dental caries, while still enhancing flavor
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46
Q

Name 6 health concerns/disadvantages of LCS.

A
  • Associated with cancer? Cell damage?
  • Can cause bloating
  • Can be associated to hypertriglyceridemia and GI symptoms
  • Can be associated with increased incidence of T2DM
  • Can be associated with increase in weight and obesity
  • Provides no nutritional value
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47
Q

In which patients should snacks be planned?

A
  • Time between supper and bed is > 3 hours
  • The lean/young are more likely to require snacks (6 small meals, eat every 3h)
  • If client has a gap of 5 hours (on insulin) or 6 hours or more (without insulin) between their meals, then a snack should be planned
  • Patients who regularly have low BG at a certain time of day will need a snack at that time
  • If client is starting a new exercise program, exercising for a longer period than usual, or has a fairly low BG reading prior to starting an intensive exercise
  • Whenever a delay to the next meal is possible (stuck in traffic driving, waiting at airport for a flight…)
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48
Q

What are health risk behaviours? Give 4 examples

A

unhealthy behaviours you can change

  1. Lack of exercise or physical inactivity
  2. Poor nutrition
  3. Tobacco use
  4. Excessive drinking
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49
Q

Define health behaviour. Give 3 examples

A

Any activity undertaken for the purpose of preventing or detecting disease or for improving health and well-being
“Behavior patterns, actions and habits that relate to health maintenance, to health restoration and to health improvement”

Examples
• Medical service usage (physician visits, vaccination, screening)
• Compliance with medical regimens (e.g. medication regimens, assistive devices)
• Self-directed health behaviors (e.g. diet, exercise, smoking, sleep, alcohol consumption)

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50
Q

What is self-management?

A

“involves the person with the chronic disease engaging in activities that promote and protect health, monitoring and managing the symptoms and signs of illness, managing the impact of illness on functioning, emotions and interpersonal relationships and adhering to treatment regimens”

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51
Q

What factors influence adhering to healthier eating patterns in persons living with chronic diseases? (Individual/internal factors)

A

o Knowledge, health literacy
o Culture & language capabilities
o Financial resources
o Co-morbidities (if they have many chronic conditions and they need to do many different things = overwhelming)
o Perceived risk (how serious people think their condition actually is – affected by attitude of HC provider)
o Belief regarding benefits (e.g. if they think insulin is actually going to make a difference on their BG control)
o Self-efficacy
o Attitudes/perceived social norms (everyone has weight to lose… why should I be losing some?)
o Poor social support
o Mental health/psychological adjustment (stress)

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52
Q

Is knowledge a predictor of health behaviour change?

A

No. Relationship between knowledge and health outcomes is inconsistent
Knowledge is needed for behaviour change, but it alone does not necessarily lead to risk-reducing behaviour

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53
Q

Why do people with diabetes have emotional distress?

A

o Most often in the areas of not having enough money to buy supplies and medications (25%)
o Feeling deprived of food (32%)
o Concerned with future complications of the disease (38%)

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54
Q

Why is treatment of depression useful in people with chronic diseases?

A

Treatment of depression contributes improved health behaviours (e.g. healthy eating) and health outcomes (e.g. compliance with medication, functional ability)
Studies: people with chronic conditions - When we treat their depression, we see benefits in terms of QOL, better control of disease…)

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55
Q

What is the single question to ask for screening for depression?

A

Are you depressed most of the time?

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56
Q

Name 3 external factors influencing health behaviour change/self-management

A
  • Access to services and information
  • Provider attitude, beliefs, knowledge, skills, level of integration in HC system
  • Overall social norms (e.g. cannabis)
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57
Q

Define self-efficacy

A

Definition: One’s confidence in being able to successfully perform an action to produce the desired outcomes (i.e. healthy eating –> improved health)

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58
Q

According to Bandura, what are the 3 cognitive mediating processes that determine behaviour? Explain them.

A

Self-efficacy expectancy: Beliefs/expectations about capacity to perform the behaviours to achieve an outcome;
situation & behaviour specific

Outcome expectancy: Estimate of probability a change will lead to a desired outcome or result

Outcome value: The value we place on the outcome

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59
Q

Degree of self-efficacy for a given health behaviour is complex and involves 3 interrelated domains. What are they?

A
  1. Having tacit task knowledge and related skills
  2. Having a sense of confidence in one’s ability to mobilize motivation and cognitive resources needed to perform the specific task even when faced with barriers
  3. Having confidence in one’s ability to successfully execute a behaviour in a given context
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60
Q

What are the 4 main strategies to boost self-efficacy?

A
  1. Performance accomplishment
  2. Vicarious experience/modeline
  3. Reinterpreting symptoms
  4. Persuasion
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61
Q

How can we increase a patient’s performance accomplishment?

A

Break task into small tasks; set realistic goals, provide feedback so they can improve their skills

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62
Q

How can we increase a patient’s vicarious experience/modeling?

A

Access to DVDs with patients with similar problems, discuss how they overcame barriers
Many credible national websites have those videos in them to increase self-efficacy

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63
Q

How can we increase a patient’s reinterpretation of symptoms?

A

Educate regarding beliefs about health behaviours and specific symptoms; evidence-based options to reduce stress
Teach patients to distinguish between types of pain

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64
Q

How can we do verbal persuasion in a patient?

A

Start by giving verbal support and encouragement for small steps in behavior change; last resort emphasize the consequences of not changing the behaviour

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65
Q

Can stress management increase self-efficacy?

A

Yes

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66
Q

Name 2 alternatives to HbA1C measurements and how often they should be measured

A

Glycosylated serum albumin (GSA) or glycosylated total serum proteins (GSP)
Measured q 3-4 weeks (reflects BG over shorter periods)

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67
Q

What is the preprandial BG goal to maintain A1C ≤ 7.0%?

A

5-10 mmol/L

5-8 mmol/L if unable to maintain A1C ≤ 7.0%

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68
Q

What is the 2h post BG goal to maintain A1C ≤ 7.0%?

A

4-7 mmol/L

4-5.5 mmol/L if unable to maintain A1C ≤ 7.0%

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69
Q

Name things that can decrease A1C

A
	Use of EPO, Fe or B12
	Reticulocytosis ( high immature RBCs)
	Chronic liver disease
	ASA, Vitamin C/E
	Hemoglobinopathies
	Increased erythrocyte pH
	Hemoglobinopathies
	CRF
	Splenomegaly
	Rheumatoid Arthritis
	HAART meds, Ribavirin
	Dapsone
•	Hypertriglyceridemia
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70
Q

How does erythrocyte pH affect A1C?

A

Increased erythrocyte pH –> increased A1C

Decreased erythrocyte pH –> Decreased A1C

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71
Q

Describe the glycemic targets for children and adolescents < 18

A
< 18 years old: Goal is A1C ≤ 7.5 %
FPG goal: 4.0 – 8.0 mmol/L
(vs. adults 4.0 – 7.0)
2hPG: 5.0 – 10.0 
(vs. adults 5.0 – 10.0)

• Consider preprandial targets of 6.0 – 10.0 mmol/L as well as higher A1C targets in children and adolescents who have had severe or excessive hypoglycemia or have hypoglycemia unawareness

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72
Q

What are the initial choices of therapy in patients have…

  1. A1C < 1.5% over target?
  2. ≥ 1.5% over target?
  3. Symptomatic hyperglycemia and/or metabolic decompensation?
  4. For all of those if not at target within 3-6 months?
A
  1. Healthy behaviour interventions and start metformin if not at target in 3 months OR start metformin with healthy behaviour interventions
  2. Start metformin with healthy behaviour interventions AND Consider second concurrent agent
  3. Initiate insulin +/- metformin
  4. Add pharmacotherapy based on presence of clinical CVD
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73
Q

What are the 3 best OHA for CVD?

A

Empagliflozin (SGLT2i)
Liraglutide (GLP1 RA)
Canagliflozin (SGLT2i)

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74
Q

What are the 3 best categories of OHA for patients with with high risk of hypoglycemia?

A

DPP-4 i
GLP1 RA
SGLT2 i

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75
Q

Name 3 risks of metformin/biguanides

A

o GI side effects (nausea, cramping)
o Lactic acidosis: rarely occurs if contraindications are taken into account
o B12 deficiency (long-term)

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76
Q

Name 2 benefits of insulin secretagogues

A

o 0.7-0.8% reduction in A1C

o Decreases microvascular risks

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77
Q

Name 4 risks of insulin secretagogues

A

o All associated with risks of hypoglycemia –> Caution for:
 Kidney disease
 Liver problems
 Elderly
o Weight gain (especially glyburide)
o Bad for heart
o Drug loses its effect on someone more rapidly than metformin

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78
Q

Name 4 benefits of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A
o	0.6% reduction in A1C (Reduction of postprandial glycemia)
o	Negligible risk of hypo
o	Weight neutral
o	In persons with IGT (pre-diabetes) …
	49% reduction in CV events
	Prevention of T2DM
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79
Q

Name 4 risks of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A
o	GI side effects
o	TID dosing
o	Not recommended as initial therapy in people with A1C ≥ 8.5%
o	Contraindications
	DKA
	IBD (d/t effect on GI)
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80
Q

Name 3 benefits of TZDs

A
o	0.8% reduction in A1C
Longer duration of glycemic control with monotherapy vs. metformin or glyburide
o	Negligible risk of hypo
o	Cardiovascular effects
	Increase in HDL
	Decrease in TGs
	Decrease in CVD events
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81
Q

Name 7 risks of TZDs

A
o	Weight gain
o	Cardiovascular effects (CV controversy)
	May induce edema and/or CHF
	May increase MI
	Increase in LDL
o	6-12 weeks for full glycemic effect
o	Macular edema (rare)
o	Rare risk of bladder cancer (pioglitazone)
o	Risk of fractures
o	Contraindications
	Serious liver dysfunction
	Known clinical heart failure or evidence of left ventricular dysfunction
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82
Q

Name 5 benefits of DPP4i

A
o	0.7% reduction in A1C
	Reduction in postprandial glycemia
	Combo with metformin
o	Negligible risk as monotherapy
o	Weight neutral
o	Neutral CV studies (no effect)
o	Well-tolerated
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83
Q

Name 3 risks of DPP4i

A

o Rare cases of pancreatitis
o Long-term safety
o Cardiac insufficiency in Saxagliptin

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84
Q

Physiological level of GLP-1: DPP4i or GLP1 RA?

A

DPP4i

GLP-1 receptor agonists = pharmacological levels of GLP-1

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85
Q

Name 5 effects of GLP-1 RA that do not apply to DPP-4i

A
  • Decrease gastric emptying
  • Increase satiety
  • Decrease energy intake
  • Increase nausea
  • Decreases weight

(same as DPP4i: Increased insulin secretion, decreased glucagon secretion)

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86
Q

Name 6 benefits of GLP1-RA

A

o 1.0% reduction in A1C –> Reduction in postprandial glycemia
o Negligible risk of hypo
o Significant weight loss
o Decreases BP, weight, A1C
o Lira: Decreases CV events, mortality, kidney protection
o Potential for improved B cell mass/function

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87
Q

Name 8 risks of GLP1-RA

A
o	GI side effects (nausea)
o	Rare cases of pancreatitis
o	Parafollicular cell hyperplasia
o	Contraindications: Personal/family Hx of medullary thyroid cancer or MEN2
o	Problem with long-term safety
o	Injectable --> requires refrigeration of the pen prior to first use as well as handwashing and visual inspection of the medication for cloudiness or particulate matter before use
o	Gallstone disease
o	\$\$\$\$
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88
Q

Name 5 benefits of SGLT2 i

A
o	0.7-1.0% decrease in A1C
o	Negligible risk for hypos
o	Weight loss (-3kg)
o	Cardiovascular benefits:
Decreases A1C, BP and weight
Decreases CV events (Empa), decrease mortality, decreased cardiac insufficiency
o	Increase kidney protection
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89
Q

Name 5 risks of SGLT2 i

A
o	Mycotic genital infections
o	Hypovolemia
	BP, eGFR (both glucose and Na are excreted when SGLT2 is blocked)
o	Increases LDL
o	Euglycemic ketoacidosis
o	Problem with long-term safety
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90
Q

When should SGLT2i be stopped prior to a major surgical procedure?

A

Given that the half-life of SGLT2 inhibitors ranges from 11-13h and the SGLT2 inhibitor effect can persist for at least a few days after d/c, these agents should be d/c ≈ 3 days before major surgical procedures

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91
Q

Which 2 OHAs decrease BP?

A

SGLT2 i

GLP1 RA

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92
Q

Name 4 rapid-acting insulins. When should they be taken compared to meals?

A

Glulisine (Apidra): 0-15 min before
Lispro (Humalog): 0-15 min before
Aspart (Novorapid): 0-10 min before
Faster-acting insulin aspart (Fiasp): 0-2 min before

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93
Q

When should short acting insulins be injected?

A

Around 30 min before meals

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94
Q

Name 5 long-acting insulins

A
Detemir (Levemir)
Glargine U100 (Lantus)
Glargine U300 (Toujeo)
Glargine biosimilar (Basaglar)
Degludec (Tresiba)
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95
Q

Name 6 neurogenic symptoms of hypoglycemia

A
Trembling
Palpitations
Sweating
Anxiety
Hunger
Nausea
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96
Q

Name 7 neuroglycopenic symptoms of hypoglycemia

A
Difficulty concentrating
Confusion
Weakness
Drowsiness
Vision changes
Difficulty speaking
Dizziness
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97
Q

Differentiate mild from moderate from severe hypoglycemia

A

Mild:
Autonomic (neurogenic) symptoms present
Individual is able to self-treat

Moderate
Autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms
Individual is able to self-treat

Severe
Requires the assistance of another person
Uncounsciousness may occur; but may just require help from someone else (d/t +++ confusion)
Plasma glucose is typically < 2.8 mmol/L

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98
Q

Name risk factors for severe hypoglycemia in people treated with sulfonylureas or insulin

A
  • Prior episode of severe hypoglycemia
  • Current low A1C (<6.0%)
  • Hypoglycemia unawareness
  • Long duration of insulin therapy
  • Autonomic neuropathy
  • CKD
  • Low economic status, food insecurity
  • Low health literacy
  • Preschool-age children unable to detect and/or treat hypos on their own
  • Adolescence
  • Pregnancy
  • Elderly
  • Cognitive impairment
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99
Q

What are the 5 steps to address hypoglycemia?

A
  1. Recognize autonomic or neuroglycopenic symptoms
  2. Confirm if possible (BG < 4.0 mmol/L)
  3. Treat with “fast sugar” 15g to relieve symptoms
  4. Retest 15 minutes later to ensure BG > 4 mmol/L and retreat
  5. Eat usual snack or meal due at that time of the day or a snack with 15 g CHO + protein

Severe hypoglycemia: Give 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously or intramuscularly and call 911

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100
Q

Who is at risk for DKA?

A
  • Children < 2 years old; they have 3x higher risk of developing DKA compared to those greater than 2 years
  • Ethnic minorities have greater risk than non-Hispanic white youth
  • Lower socioeconomic status
  • Lack of private health insurance
  • Lower parental education
  • Lower BMI
  • Preceding infection
  • Adolescent girls (body image issues)
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101
Q

What can cause false positives in urine ketones? False negatives?

A

False positives: Several sulfhydryl drugs (e.g. captopril)
False-negatives: Test strips exposed to air for extended periods of time or highly acidic specimens, such as after large intakes of ascorbic acid

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102
Q

When should diabetics test for ketones?

A

Acute illness accompanied with elevated BG
Stress
Consistently elevated BG levels (> 14 mmol/L)
Symptoms of ketoacidosis (e.g. nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain)
Pregnancy

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103
Q

Name 6 precipitating factors of DKA

A
•	Insulin omission (most common cause)
•	New diagnosis of diabetes
•	Infection/sepsis
•	Myocardial infarction 
o	Small rise in troponin may occur without overt ischemia
o	ECG changes may reflect hyperkalemia
•	Thyrotoxicosis (XS thyroid hormones)
•	Drugs
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104
Q

How much of a decrease in A1C is necessary to decrease the risk of complications in T2DM?

A

1%

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105
Q

How does diabetes lead to retinopathy?

A

Loss of pericytes
- Role in vessel stability and regulate control of endothelial proliferation and angiogenesis

Changes in the Retinal vasculature

  • Thickening of basement membrane
  • Hyperpermeability
  • Microaneurysm formation
  • Microvascular occlusion and ultimately neovascularization
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106
Q

When do we initiate screening for retinopathy?

A

When to initiate screening
 T1DM: 5 years after diagnosis in all individuals >= 15 years
 T2DM: Children, adolescents and adults at diagnosis
If retinopathy is not present
 T1DM: rescreen annually
 T2DM: Rescreen every 1-2 years
 Review glycemic, BP and lipid control, and adjust therapy to reach targets as per guidelines
 Screen for other diabetes complications

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107
Q

Which 3 factors accelerate neuropathy?

A

Smoking
Lack of PA
Alcohol (> 4 drinks/d)

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108
Q

What are the different types of neuropathy?

A

Diffuse Peripheral:
Legs, feet, arms, hands

Diffuse Autonomic/Visceral:
Heart, digestive, sexual organs, urinary tract, sweat glands

Focal
Eyes, face, mouth, hearing, pelvis, lower back, thigh, abdomen

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109
Q

What is the earliest clinical evidence of nephropathy?

A

Persistent microalbuminuria

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110
Q

What is the mechanism of hyperlipidemia in type 1 diabetes? In type 2?

A

Type 1
- HyperTG due to defective removal of chylomicrons and VLDL resulting from impaired LPL activity (insulin dependent)
- HDL and LDL-C may be normal
Type 2
- Hypertriglyceridemia due to elevated de novo synthesis from glucose
- Low HDL-C (due to obesity)
- LDL-C may be normal

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111
Q

Who should receive statins?

A

 Clinical CVD or
 Age ≥ 40 years or
 Microvascular complications or
 Diabetes > 15 years duration and age > 30 years
 Warrants therapy based on the 2016 Canadian Cardiovascular Society Guidelines for the Dx and Tx of Dyslipidemia

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112
Q

Name 2 possible explanations for why Co-Morbid depression worsens clinical outcomes in T2DM

A
  • Lower levels of physical fitness

* Reduces adherence to medications

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113
Q

How is A1C a predictor of mental health outcomes?

A

A1C is a predictor of mental health outcomes. Each 1% elevation in A1C increases the risk of MCI and dementia

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114
Q

Which diabetic medications are the best to prevent NASH?

A

All OHA are good for NASH

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115
Q

Name 2 medications approved for the treatment of obesity in T2DM

A

GI lipase inhibitor
 Side effects: Loose stools, GI upset, rare liver failure
 Oral medication that decreases fat absorption, may require vitamin supplementation
 $$$
GLP-1 receptor agonist
 Side effects: Nausea, GI upset, rare gallstones and pancreatitis
 Subcutaneous injectable, increases satiety
 $$$$

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116
Q

Name 3 embryopathic medications

A

o ACEi / ARB

o Statin therapy

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117
Q

Who must not fast for ramadan?

A
  • Poorly controlled T1DM (Defined as pre-Ramadan A1C > 9%)
  • Severe hypoglycemia within 3 months, recurrent hypoglycemia and/or hypoglycemia unawareness
  • DKA within 3 months
  • Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar coma within 3 months
  • Acute illness
  • Advanced macrovascular complications, renal disease (on dialysis, stage IV or V CKD), cognitive dysfunction, or uncontrolled epilepsy
  • Pregnancy in diabetes or GDM – treated with insulin
118
Q

Who should theoretically not fast during ramadan?

A
  • T2DM with sustained poor glycemic control
  • Well-controlled T2DM on MDI or mixed insulin
  • Pregnant T2DM or GDM controlled by diet only
  • CKD stage 3 or stable macrovascular complications
  • Performing intense physical labour
  • Well-controlled T1DM
119
Q

Who can fast during ramadan?

A
  • Well-controlled diabetes
  • Treated with lifestyle alone, or with: metformin, acarbose, incretin therapies, second generation sulfonylureas, SGLT2 inhibitors, TZDs or basal insulin in otherwise healthy individuals
120
Q

On average, how much time does it take before initiating insulin in T2DM? Is it soon enough?

A

Insulin in uncontrolled T2DM is initiated earlier than before but not soon enough (9 years)

121
Q

Name 4 disadvantages of intensive therapy

A
  • More injections
  • CHO counting should be part of the deal
  • Frequent monitoring (4x/d) is necessary
  • Weight gain due to less glycosuria, extra insulin for extra food, over treating of hypos
122
Q

Name 4 benefits of intensive therapy

A

50-76% reduction in microvascular complications associated with T1DM
42% risk reduction in any CV event
25% decrease in microvascular complications in T2DM
Better QOL, overall better glycemic control

123
Q

Name 4 reasons why most people with diabetes do not achieve A1C target

A
  • Limited time for clinic staff to interact and follow up with patients is a practice challenge (Often “no shows” or “DNA”)
  • The need to administer a complicated regimen of multiple insulin doses titrated to carbohydrate intake and activity, and frequent SMBG testing, can lead to dose omissions and incomplete adherence.
  • Lack of social support
  • Coincident common psychiatric conditions such as depression can affect adherence
  • Myths regarding insulin therapy leading to UNDERUTILIZATION of insulin in Type 2 patients:
  • Inadequate understanding of the consequences of poor control
124
Q

What to do in cases of hypoglycemia unawareness?

A

Remind symptoms to patients
Have patients “regain symptoms” –> allow them to go higher (in terms of BG) for some time and then they will start re-feeling the symptoms again
Ask them at what number they react/feel low

125
Q

Which measure of BG is an independent predictor of MIin T2DM?

A

PPG

126
Q

Which, of FPG or PPG, has more impact on A1C levels?

A

FPG has a higher impact on A1C. But as it gets closer to target, 2hPG has more impact

127
Q

Why does breakfast usually have a higher glycemic excursion?

A
  • epinephrine, cortisol, GH, glucagon = higher peak in BG even with same CHO intake (Dawn Phenomenon)
  • Breakfast also usually very CHO-rich and low in protein
128
Q

Name 7 factors that affect PPG

A
  • Pre-meal BG status and timing of injection
  • GI of the food
  • Large volume rich in fat, protein and/or fiber
  • Time of day (e.g. breakfast = higher peak)
  • Stress, illness, PA, hormones
  • Gastroparesis (need to adjust insulin doses)
  • Is there adequate basal? if meal is skipped, does BG stay at target?
129
Q

Compared to the meal, when should we inject rapid-acting insulin? Why?

A

Administration of rapid-acting insulin analogs 15 minutes before mealtimes result in lower postprandial glucose excursions and more time spent in the 3.5-10.0 mmol/L range, without increased risk of hypoglycemia

  • The postprandial glucose peak has a mean peak time of 75 minutes
  • Rapid-acting insulin analogs display a maximum effect at around 100 minutes after subcutaneous injection

The insulin peak action is better synchronized with the glycemic excursion after a meal, thereby potentially minimizing the height of the postprandial glucose excursions

130
Q

Name 5 signs/symptoms of night time hypos?

A
“Wicked” morning headaches
“Foggy head”
Waking up with messed up blankets
\+++ sweating
Nightmares and vivid dreams
131
Q

Why does one episode of hypoglycemia increase the risk of another?

A

Having one reaction increases the risk of having another in 24h
Low BG = high release of stress hormones = symptoms
Second reaction will be harder to recognize due to depleted stress hormones

132
Q

What is lipohypertrophy? what can it cause?

A

Medical term that refers to a lump under the skin caused by an accumulation of extra fat and scar tissue at the site of many subcutaneous injections of insulin. It may be unsightly, mildly painful, and may change the timing or completeness of insulin action.
“No pain” during injections may be a sign.

133
Q

What is TDD? What is it composed of? How is it calculated?

A

Total Daily Dose (TDD)
Includes both basal and bolus insulin (50-50%)
To start, 0.5-0.7U/kg is most commonly used
o 0.5 U/kg = healthy BW
o 0.7 U/kg = overweight
o 1.0 U/kg = obese with A1C > 9%
New onset of T1: 0.3 U/kg
Young adults (age 18-21) “still growing” causing insulin resistance… higher doses required (0.7-1.0 U/kg)

134
Q

What is ICR? How is it calculated?

A

How many grams of CHO does 1U of insulin cover?

(A) If TDD > 40 units total:
500/TDD = 1U: _ g CHO
(B) If TDD < 40 units total:
450/TDD = 1U: _ g CHO

Compare with weight-recommended formula:
(5.7 x weight (kg))/TDD = 1U: _ g CHO

135
Q

What is ISF? When is it used? How is it calculated?

A

The drop in BG in mmol/L that each U of insulin will provide
Useful for correcting glucose once a target is set = better control

How to estimate ISF?
100/TDD = ISF

136
Q

What is the BEAM method? What is it used for?

A

Used to know if basal is adequate
Check overnight first using BEAM (Bedtime/AM glucose) – should be no more than 2 mmol/L difference
If go to bed within target and wake up within target –> don’t change basal
If > 3-4 mmol/L change between bedtime and AM  significant

137
Q

What should be the max elevation 2h post meal? What should be done if it is higher?

A

Aim for no more than 3 mmol/L elevation

If higher, adjust bolus

138
Q

Define self-management education (SME)

A

A systematic intervention that involves active patient participation in self-monitoring and/or decision-making

139
Q

What are the 3 criteria for anorexia nervosa

A
  • Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory and physical health
  • Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, or persistent behavior that interferes with weight gain even though at a significant low weight
  • Disturbances in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced, undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation, or lack of recognition of the seriousness of the current low body weight
140
Q

What are the 2 types of anorexia nervosa?

A

Restrictive type

Binge eating/purging type

141
Q

Name attributes of a person with anorexia nervosa

A
  • excessive dieting & food preoccupation
  • Excessive concern about weight, shape or health
  • excessive perfectionism
  • cognitive rigidity
  • self-denial (does not worry)
  • Social withdrawal
  • extreme focus on job or school work
  • anxiety
142
Q

What are the categories of severity of anorexia nervosa?

A
Specific Severity is based on BMI
o	BMI > 17: Mild
o	BMI 16-16.99: Moderate
o	BMI 15-15.99: Severe
o	BMI < 15: Extreme
143
Q

How do we categorize a case that is like anorexia but the patient has a higher BMI?

A

OSFED (atypical AN)

144
Q

What are the 3 criteria for bulimia nervosa?

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating characterized by both of the following:
 Eating in a discrete amount of time (within a 2h period) large amounts of food
 Sense of lack of control over eating during an episode

Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain: Fasting, strict deprivation, self-induced vomiting, compulsive exercise, use of laxatives, diuretics, medication

Self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight

Occurs at least once a week for 3 months on average

145
Q

Name attributes of a person with bulimia nervosa

A
  • Obsessive thoughts focused on restricting and bulimia
  • excessive concerns about weight loss and shape
  • Body weight fluctuations (dehydration, water retention, binge more, binge less, alcohol) – can gain weight
  • Inability to accurately identify and express feelings
  • Chaotic relationships and interactions
  • Impulsivity (common trait; vs AN = compulsive trait, more rigidity)
  • Anxiety
  • Labile mood
146
Q

What are the categories of severity of bulimia nervosa?

A
Specific severity based on the average number of compensatory behavior episodes per week
o	Mild: 1-3
o	Moderate: 4-7
o	Severe: 8-13
o	Extreme: 14+
147
Q

How is binge eating disorder (BED) defined?

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating. An episode of binge eating is characterized by the following:

  • Eating in a discrete amount of time (within a 2h period) large amounts of food
  • Sense of lack of control over eating during an episode

Three or more of the following

  • Eating much more rapidly
  • Until feeling uncomfortably full
  • Not feeling physically hungry
  • Eating alone
  • Feeling disgusted by oneself, depressed, or very guilty afterwards

Not associated with the recurrent use of inappropriate compensatory behavior (ex. purging) – although they can restrict, but do not use compensatory behaviour (or will do so very occasionally)

On average, at least once a week for 3 months

148
Q

How is the severity of BED categorized?

A
Specific severity based on average number of binge eating episodes per week (same as bulimia)
o	Mild: 1-3
o	Moderate: 4-7
o	Severe: 8-13
o	Extreme: 14+
149
Q

Is BED associated with weight gain or weight loss?

A
  • Long-term weight gain – more at risk of diabetes, HTN… –> those people will even gain weight during treatment, and then lose weight.
  • No short-term weight loss when reaching abstinence
150
Q

Name 5 examples of OSFED (other specified feeding or eating disorder)

A
  • Atypical anorexia nervosa: Weight within or above the “average” range for age and height
  • Bulimia nervosa of low frequency and/or limited duration
  • BED of low frequency and/or limited duration
  • Purging disorder: Persistent purging without binge eating
  • Night eating syndrome: Excessive consumption of food following and evening meal or after waking from sleep in the night, which causes extreme psychological distress and interferes with daily functioning
151
Q

What are the 4 criteria in the definition of avoidant restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID)

A
  1. An eating or feeding disturbance (e.g. apparent lack of interest in eating or food, avoidance based on sensory characteristics of food; concern about aversive consequences of eating) as manifested by persistent failure to meet appropriate nutritional and/or energy needs associated with one or more of the following:
    - Significant weight loss (or failure to achieve expected weight gain or faltering growth in children)
    - Significant nutritional deficiency
    - Dependence on enteral feeding or nutritional supplements
    - Marked interference with psychosocial functioning
  2. The disturbance is not better explained by lack of available food or by an associated culturally sanctioned practice
  3. The eating disturbance does not occur exclusively during the course of anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa, and there is no evidence of a disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced (or body image issue)
  4. The eating disturbance is not attributable to a concurrent medical condition or not better explained by another mental disorder. When the eating disturbance occurs in the context of another condition or disorder, the severity of the eating disturbance exceeds that routinely associated with the condition or disorder and warrants additional clinical attention

(Afraid of the consequences of eating e.g. choking, vomiting, digestive problems, intoxication)

152
Q

Are people with ARFID concerned with their weight?

A

Often want to gain weight, are concerned about their low weight. (unlike AN)

153
Q

In which part if the population is ARFID usually seen? What attributes are common in these people?

A
  • Broad range of eating disturbances more commonly seen in childhood
  • not characterized by concern about body weight or size
  • May develop from food refusal to maladaptive coping strategies (distracted or forced feeding)
  • Anxiety is common in ARFID
  • Unresolved in 3-10% of ARFID children
154
Q

What are unspecified feeding and eating disorders

A

When details of a patient’s eating disorder are not determined. May happen as a first diagnosis

155
Q

What is the prevalence of AN in men and women?
Bulimia?
BED?

A

Anorexia Nervosa
o 1% in women
o 0.5% in men

Bulimia
o 1.5-2% in women
o 0.5% in men

Binge-eating disorders
o 1.6-3.5% in women
o 0.8-2.0% in men

156
Q

What proportion of patients with AN eventually normalize weight? What are predictors of positive outcomes? of negative outcome?

A

2/3 of patients normalize weight, but the rest are chronic cases

Patients with illness onset before 17 years old achieve a better outcome than adult onset. Higher rate of full recovery and lower mortality rate in adolescents than adults

Prepubertal onset confers a more difficult course

157
Q

Compare the mortality rate among AN vs among other disorders

A

Mortality rate among anorexia nervosa is the highest among psychiatric disorders

158
Q

What is the average time to complete remission in AN?

A

5-6 years

159
Q

What are risk factors for ED?

A

Genetic predisposition
o Identified genes for AN

Family history
o	Eating disorders
o	Obesity
o	Anxiety
o	Depression
Neuro-cognitive vulnerabilities
o	Anxiety
o	Obsessionality
o	Perfectionism
o	Negative affect
Developmental and environmental factors
o	Adverse pre/peri/neonatal events
o	Prematurity
o	Early childhood eating problems
o	Personality traits
o	Puberty
o	Body dissatisfaction – may have body image issues since they were children 
o	Perceived pressure for thinness 
o	Perceived pressure to perform (e.g. some sports)
o	Strict dieting
o	Interest in health and nutrition
o	Excessive exercise
o	Low self-esteem
o	Substance abuse
o	Sexual abuse and other traumas
160
Q

What are the common comorbidities with EDs?

A

 Mood disorder
 Anxiety disorder
 Obsessive compulsive traits/disorder
 Post-traumatic stress disorder
 Personality disorder (impulsiveness, emotion dysregulation)
 Substance misuse or dependence
 Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

161
Q

What are common dietary patterns in BN? In AN?

A

BN:
- Restrictive eating, removal of meals, CHO phobia, fasting (intermittent fasting), objective binge eating, forbidden foods usually found in binge content

AN: Gradual decrease in food intake, Removal of high energy food, Gradual decrease of portion sizes, Distortion of size of portion, overestimate portion size, Limited to bulky nutrient-poor foods (High vegetables, etc.), Rigid schedule of eating, Limited food choices/amount of calories, Food avoidance related to digestive symptoms (think they have gluten intolerance), Vegetarianism and veganism, Fluid avoidance of excessive fluid intake

162
Q

What causes binge eating? How can we help?

A

Need to explain to patients that food deprivation and restrictive eating leads to binge eating and compensatory behaviours. Need to break the cycle by giving up food deprivation.

The focus needs to be on the restriction rather than on the bulimia (compensatory behaviour). Same for anorexia and bulimia. Work on being less restrictive.

163
Q

Is vomiting effective in weight loss/control?

A

No.
Short term weight loss due to dehydration. (people with BN are more dehydrated than AN)
Digestive resistance
Vomiting –> recurrent binge eating –> long term weight gain

164
Q

Name 3 laxatives. Which electrolytes are lost with laxatives? What does laxative use clinically lead to?

A

Stimulant type (Bisacodyl, Senna, Cascara) – more powerful type

Dehydration and electrolyte loss (K and bicarbonate)
Dehydration stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system – more sodium and water absorption = water retention –> weight gain, distress
Hyperaldosteronism and edema

165
Q

What are clinical signs of AN: Skin?

A
  • Acrocyanosis (blue finger/toes) (d/t vasoconstriction and decreases blood flow – cold hands)
  • Hair loss
  • Dry skin
  • Lanugo-like body hair (very fine)
  • Stomatitis
  • Increased acne
166
Q

What are clinical signs of BN: Skin?

A
  • Russell’s sign (scar over dorsal surface of hand)
  • Nose bleeds (epistaxis)
  • Subconjunctival hemorrhage
167
Q

What are clinical signs of AN: CV system?

A
Hypotension, bradycardia
Heart palpitations, chest pain
Arrhythmia
Loss of cardiac muscle mass
Mitral valve prolapses (rare)
Prolongation of QTC interval
Pericardial effusions
168
Q

What are clinical signs of BN: CV system?

A

Dizziness
Heart palpitations
Chest pain
Arrhythmia

169
Q

What are clinical signs of AN: endocrine?

A
Feeling cold
Frequent bladder emptying (ADH is low)
Fatigue
Amenorrhea in women
Impotency in men
Sleep disturbances (common)
Hypoglycemia (usually asymptomatic but could be symptomatic in the first 2 weeks of refeeding)
Hyperactivity (related to low leptin levels; called malnutrition-induced hyperactivity)
170
Q

What are clinical signs of BN: endocrine?

A

Irregular menses
Feeling cold
Fatigue
Sleep disturbances

171
Q

What are clinical signs of AN: Muscle/bone mass/dental system?

A

Muscle loss
Muscle cramps/weakness
Rhabdomyolysis (breakdown of damaged skeletal muscles d/t intense exercising)
Osteopenia
Osteoporosis (especially when no menses –>Need enough calcium and VD intake)
Stress fracture
Usually normal electrolytes

172
Q

What are clinical signs of BN: Muscle/bone mass/dental system?

A

Muscle cramp/weakness (electrolyte imbalances)
Perimyolysis (dental erosion) Do not encourage brushing teeth after purging. Rather, rinse mouth with baking soda to protect enamel
Enlargement of parotid glands (hyperstimulation of the glands) Often happens when you stop vomiting
Dental caries (losing enamel of teeth d/t frequent vomiting)

173
Q

What are clinical signs of AN: digestive system?

A

Early satiety (will feel full easily at the beginning of the refeeding process)
Epigastric discomfort
Delayed gastric emptying, gastroparesis
Constipation/diarrhea
Bloating, abdominal pain
SMA syndrome (superior mesenteric artery syndrome – when the duodenum is compressed between two arteries. Refeeding helps with this)

174
Q

What are clinical signs of BN: digestive system?

A
Swollen salivary glands
Epigastric discomfort
Esophagitis, hematemesis (vomiting; Mallory Weiss syndrome = blood in vomiting)
Gastric reflux
Constipation/diarrhea
Hemorrhoids, rectal bleeding (laxatives)
Rectal prolapsus
Loss of normal colon function
175
Q

What are clinical signs of AN and BN: kidney function?

A

Water retention

Reduced kidney function (reversible with refeeding and water repletion)

176
Q

What are clinical signs of AN and BN: brain?

A

Brain atrophy changes
Neurocognitive functioning impairment
“When you gain weight, you gain brain”

177
Q

What are clinical signs of AN and BN: cognitive changes?

A

Loss of concentration
Loss of memory
Difficulty to take decision

178
Q

What are clinical signs of AN: psychological changes?

A
Intense food preoccupation
Obsessive compulsive behaviour
Irritability
Loss of interest (loved ones, things you like...)
Social isolation
179
Q

What are clinical signs of BN: psychological changes?

A
Intense food preoccupation
Mood changes
Irritability
Loss of interest
Social isolation
180
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does BUN go up or down? Why?

A

Up (dehydration)

181
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does complement 3 go up or down? Why?

A

Down (malnutrition)

182
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Do WBCs go up or down? Why?

A

Leukopenia/thrombocytopenia (WBCs and platelets go down)

183
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does Hgb go up or down? Why?

A

Down (anemia)

184
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does glucose go up or down? Why?

A

Down (malnutrition) –> non-symptomatic hypoglycemia;

Up (insulin omission among diabetics)

185
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does sodium go up or down? Why?

A

Down (water loading or laxatives)

186
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does potassium go up or down? Why?

A

Down (vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, refeeding)

Potassium usually drops because of loss in vomitus but can drop because of lack of renal absorption due to magnesium deficiency

187
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does Mg go up or down? Why?

A

Down (poor nutrition or RS)

188
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does phosphorus go up or down? Why?

A

Down (RS)

189
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does chloride go up or down? Why?

A

Down (vomiting);

Up (laxatives)

190
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does bicarb go up or down? why?

A

Up (vomiting - metabolic alkalosis)
Down (laxatives)

Even if K is normal, seeing a high bicarbonate is a good indication that the patient may be vomiting

191
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does creat go up or down? why?

A

Up (dehydration, renal dysfunction)
Serum creatinine may be normal in the face of renal failure. This is because the serum creatinine is proportional to body muscle which is low

192
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does CPK (creatine phosphokinase) go up or down? why?

A

Up (muscle breakdown);

Down (reduced muscle mass) – may also happen with high PA

193
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Does Amylase go up or down? why?

A

Up (salivary origin – vomiting) – although not followed on a regular basis

194
Q

Lab findings in EDs: Do liver enzymes (ALT, AST, total bilirubin) go up or down? why?

A

Up (liver dysfunction)

195
Q

What are the best psychosocial interventions for:

  • Adolescent AN
  • Adult AN
  • BN and BED
A
  • Adolescent AN: Family-based treatment
  • Adult AN: No specific approach with clear superiority
  • BN and BED: Cognitive behavioural therapy, Dialectical behavioural therapy, Interpersonal therapy, acceptance and commitment therapy
196
Q

What is Cognitive behavioural therapy?

A

Working on beliefs that maintain the maladaptive behavior, how self-esteem is related to body image and weight. Also working on emotion regulation related to maladaptive eating behaviors
o Psychoeducation is a component of CBT
o Includes cognitive restructuring – bring facts and work on questioning beliefs
o Definition: short-term, goal-oriented psychotherapy treatment that takes a hands-on, practical approach to problem-solving. Its goal is to change patterns of thinking or behavior that are behind people’s difficulties, and so change the way they feel.

197
Q

What is dialectical behavioural therapy?

A

o About working on emotion regulation and developing strategies to cope with emotions (e.g. mindful eating)
o Mindfulness is used is psychotherapy and can also be useful for behavior intervention
o Provides clients with new skills to manage painful emotions and decrease conflict in relationships

198
Q

What is interpersonal therapy?

A

About developing interpersonal skills among patients

199
Q

What is acceptance and judgement therapy?

A

o Developing adequate behaviour despite disordered thoughts
o Focusing on maintaining the adequate behaviour
o Acceptance and commitment therapy invite people to open up to unpleasant feelings, and learn not to overreact to them, and not avoid situations where they are invoked

200
Q

What are useful medications for AN? BN? BED?

A
  • No medication to specifically treat AN
  • Fluoxetine (Prozac: Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors) has been shown effective in BN
  • Lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse) and topiramate (Topamax) for moderate to severe BED (they have an effect on appetite)

Use of psychoactive medications are useful for comorbidities (e.g. depression, mood disorders) in bulimia and AN

201
Q

What is the prognosis in terms of weight for people with AN?

A

AN and BN participants followed over 10 years or over 22 years
Modest increase in BMI from year 2 to year 5
Plateau from year 5 to 10
At 22 years…
- 14% were underweight
- 69% were normal weight
- 17% were overweight
- 4% obese
Still lower chances of becoming overweight or obese vs. the general population

202
Q

What is the prognosis in terms of fat mass and distribution for people with AN?

A

After gaining back some weight, people with EDs also have a normal % fat mass after recovery. BUT the fat distribution has been shown to be different!

  • AN adolescent females lose more central body fat while adult females lose more peripheral fat
  • Partial weight gain in adolescent females lead to greater fat mass deposition in the trunk region than other regions (extremities)
  • After short term partial or complete weight restoration, adults show a central adiposity phenotype with respect to health age-matched controls
  • Central fat distribution is associated with increased insulin resistance, but does not adversely affect ED psychopathology or cause distress in female adults
  • Abnormal central fat distribution seems to normalize after long-term maintenance of complete weight restoration
203
Q

Name 7 hospitalization admission criteria for patients with EDs

A
  • Severe or rapid weight loss
  • Severe binge eating and purging
  • Medical complications: Unstable vital signs, cardiac abnormalities, electrolyte imbalances
  • Lack of response to outpatient treatment
  • Severe psychiatric co-morbidity (e.g. suicidal)
  • For laxative withdrawal
  • To clarify a diagnosis
204
Q

Name 7 hospitalization admission criteria for patients with EDs

A
  • Severe or rapid weight loss
  • Severe binge eating and purging
  • Medical complications: Unstable vital signs, cardiac abnormalities, electrolyte imbalances
  • Lack of response to outpatient treatment
  • Severe psychiatric comorbidity (e.g. suicidal)
  • For laxative withdrawal
  • To clarify a diagnosis
205
Q

What is the weight gain goal on the day program? In hospitalization?

A

Day program/day hospital: 500g per week if BMI < 20

Hospitalization: 1 kg/week

206
Q

Are F&V allowed during hospitalization?

A

Reduce the use of raw fruits and vegetables to prevent discomfort or pain
o Patients may not be able to digest them or develop some intolerances

207
Q

What are warning signs of ED among T1DM patients?

A
  • High A1C
  • Frequent episodes of DKA
  • Frequent hospitalizations
  • Poor glycemic monitoring
  • Negative attitudes towards diabetes
  • Excessive preoccupation toward weight and body shape
  • Low intake of CHO
  • Excessive exercise
  • Weight fluctuations
  • Amenorrhea or irregular menses
  • Resistance to correct hypoglycemia
  • Missing appointments at the diabetes clinic
  • Poor interest and withdrawal.
208
Q

How much time does an insulin pump last on the skin?

A

3 days

209
Q

Pumps calculate precise accurate doses based on…

A

ICR, ISF, IOB, targets

210
Q

Who is a pump candidate?

A
  • One who has small insulin needs (minimum is 0.025 U vs.0.5 U for pens)
  • Hypoglycemia unawareness or nocturnal hypo
  • Dawn phenomenon
  • Planning conception and/or pregnancy
  • Shift work
  • Frequent travel
  • Regular PA, athletes
  • Often hospitalized
  • Not reaching BG target, elevated A1C
  • Gastroparesis (slowed digestion)
  • Desire better control, less injections
  • Now T2DM
211
Q

Why can DKA happen with a pump?

A

 Infusion set/site issue (redness/blood at site or in tubing, site in longer than 3 days, air in tubing or tubing not connected correctly to reservoir, leak in tubing or at the site, cannula dislodge/kink, lipohypertrophy)
 Insulin pump issue (forgot last bolus, empty cartridge, basal rate not well-programmed, fault with pump)
 Personal factors (miscounted CHO, sickness, stress, pre-menstrual, pain, new medication, exercise, gastroparesis, battery dead)
 Insulin issues (expired, cloudy, insulin at RT > 28 days, exposed to extreme temperatures)

212
Q

What to do if your BG is between 4-16 but blood ketones are > 0.6? When your BG is > 16 with < 0.6 ketones? When BG > 16 and ketones between 0.7-1.4? When BG is > 16 and blood ketones between 1.5-3.0?

A

BG is between 4-16 but ketones are > 0.6 –> take 10% of TDD
When your BG is > 16 with < 0.6 ketones –> Take 10% of TDD
When BG > 16 and ketones between 0.7-1.4 –>Take 15% of TDD
When BG is > 16 and blood ketones between 1.5-3.0 –> take 20% of TDD

213
Q

How is pump TDD calculated from MDI TDD?

A
  1. Calculate current TDD x 0.75 (reduced dose)
  2. Then, calculate weight dose: kg x 0.5 (or lb x 0.23) = Weight dose
  3. (Reduced dose x weight dose) / 2 = Pump TDD to start
214
Q

How is basal dose determined from pump TDD? What about basal dose?

A

50% for each

215
Q

How is basal rate determined?

A

Basal dose / 24 hours

216
Q

How do we test basal rate? Which circumstances are needed?

A
Needs to be done in circumstances when…
•	BG is between 5.6 and 8.3 (5-10)
•	Last carb or correction bolus was 4 hours ago
•	Last meal was low in fat
•	No hypoglycemia in the last 5 hours
•	BG/hr (except night BR)

Steps:
1. Skip meal (can have water, no caffeine)
2. Monitor BG
If BG decreases by ≥ 1.7 (2.0) mmol/L over 4-5 hours: BR is too high

  1. Do 3 basal test periods on different days
    a. Overnight (From bedtime, monitor 2AM, monitor when waking up)
    b. Breakfast to afternoon (skip breakfast) – monitor q 1-2h
    c. Afternoon to bedtime (skip lunch) – monitor q 1-2h

If basal requires change at a certain moment of the day, decrease or increase 2-3h before the BG was wrong –> will adjust the right moment of the day.
Always start with 10% change

217
Q

Name 4 signs that basal rate is too high

A
  • BG is low AC (before) breakfast without bolus during the night
  • BG goes low if a meal is skipped or if > 5h between meals
  • BG often low AC meals
  • Frequent hypos and BR > 55% of TDD
218
Q

Name 4 signs that basal rate is too low

A
  • BG breakfast > Hs BG
  • BG rises between middle of the night and breakfast (dawn phenomenon)
  • BG rises when a meal is skipped
  • Frequent highs and BR total < 45% of TDD
219
Q

How much time does insulin remain in the body in adults?

A

4-5 hours

220
Q

What is the target BG range for daytime in normal people? Hypo unawareness? Pregnancy?

A

Daytime: 5.0-6.0 mmol/L
Hypoglycemia-unawareness: 6.0-8.0
Pregnancy 4.4-5.0 (tighter)

221
Q

How much time do continuous glucose monitors last on the skin?

A

between 6 (medtronic) and 14 days (flash freestyle libre)

222
Q

What is the max increase in BG after a meal not to increase bolus?

A

3 mmol/L

223
Q

What are some questions to ask the patient in cases of hypoglycemia?

A
  • When is the patient exercising?
  • Alcohol?
  • How much insulin ingested? Over-correcting?
  • Enough CHO at meals?
  • Any changes in life, weight, schedule?
  • How are you correcting for lows?
  • Do you feel the lows?
224
Q

What are possible causes of hypers?

A
o	Not enough insulin, too much eating
o	Stress
o	Illness, medication
o	Issues with infusion set/insulin
o	Lifestyle/activities
225
Q

WHat is the order of things to correct/look for in patients with pumps?

A
  1. Hypos
  2. Basal rates
    BEAM = < 2.0 mmol difference?
    Skip meal w/o IOB: BG stable?
  3. ICR and ISF
226
Q

How to test ISF? Which circumstances are needed?

A
  • Your BG > 11 mmol/L
  • It has been at least 3h since you last ate
  • It has been at least 4h since your last bolus

Steps:

  1. Administer your correction dose
  2. Do not eat for 4 hours unless your BG goes low
  3. Test blood sugar every hour for 4h
    - - If BG ends up 2 mmol/L above your target range after 4h = ISF is too high
    - - If BG ends up 2 mmol/L below your target range after 4h = ISF is too low

Repeat the test on a different day until a correction factor consistently brings your BG within a 2 mmol/L of your target by 5h without going low

227
Q

When can larger correction boluses be given?

A

extremely high BG, DKA, infection, pre-menstrual periods, or the use of prednisone

228
Q

When can smaller correction boluses be given?

A

Weight loss, increased activity
Be careful in bedtime corrections: consider the use of a larger factor (less insulin) to lessen the risks of night lows

If your correction factors vary significantly throughout the day, your basal rates likely need to be changed

229
Q

In which conditions should one test his ICR?

A

Test your ratio when:
• No hypo symptoms in the last 4h
• BG between 5-9 mmol/L before a meal
• You have not eaten in the last 3h or given yourself a bolus in the last 4h
• You are eating a low-fat meal that you can reasonably predict the CHO content for (e.g. frozen meal)

230
Q

What are the steps in testing an ICR?

A

Steps

  1. Eat enough CHO to challenge your ratio (g of CHO should be ≈ ½ your weight in lbs)
  2. Test your BG, enter the grams of carbs into your pump and take the carb bolus no more than 20 minutes before eating
  3. Test your BG 2hPP and 4hPP
  • Good ICR if BG rises 2-3 mmol/L 2hPP and is within 1.7 mmol/L your pre-meal BG 4hPP
  • If your BG rises by more than 2-3 mmol/L 2hPP, use a smaller I:C ratio to give more insulin
  • If your BG rises by less than 2 mmol/L 2hPP, use a larger I:C ratio to give less insulin
231
Q

What is considered as a good SD for glucose control?

A

2

232
Q

Name 4 main reasons to override (correct) a pump

A
  1. High CHO intake
  2. Low insulin
  3. Lack of exercise
  4. Stress/sickness/illness
233
Q

What are some risks of hypoglycemia?

A
  • Car accidents
  • Falling/injuries
  • Unconsciousness
  • Hypo unawareness
  • CVD (both with hyper and hypos!)
  • Memory loss
  • Weight gain
  • Hyperglycemia
234
Q

What is advance bolusing? What are the 2 types of advance bolusing? Explain them. What are they used for?

A

Mimics both phase 1 and phase 2 of pancreatic insulin release in non-diabetic individuals
–> Use when we see a trend of hypos after a meal followed by hypers.

2 types:

  1. Dual wave/Combo
    - A percentage of insulin delivered immediately and the remainder over an extended period of time.
    - Usually for high fat, high protein meals
    - May start with 50% up front and 50% over 2h, for example.; test BG every hour after to see how it works, and adjust % up front and duration as needed
  2. Square wave/extended
    - Delivers insulin equally over a set period of time decided by the user
    - Usually for high fiber meals with low GI
    - Gastroparesis
    - Buffet (continuous eating)

May also use advance bolusing for very high insulin needs (too much at once may be uncomfortable)
If BG doesn’t drop after the meal and doesn’t rise before the next meal, it worked!

235
Q

When should one use temporary basal rates (TBR)?

A
  • Alcohol (70% BR x 4-6h)
  • Aerobic exercise (Decrease BR 60-90 min before PA, during and extender afterwards)
  • If exercise is within 60-90 min of a bolus, decrease the bolus
  • Sickness (Increase BR for 24h; e.g. fever = increase by 25% for 24h)
  • Food
236
Q

What are the PA recommendations for diabetic people? Compare them to the non-diabetic people’s recommendations.

A

Exercise recommendations are the same vs. non-diabetic people

  • Adults: 150 minutes/week of moderate- to vigorous- PA (brisk walking or greater) with no more than 2 days off in a row + strength training 2-3x/week
  • Youth: 60 minutes/day of moderate- to vigorous- PA (420 minutes per week), including vigorous-intensity activities 3+ days/week and strength building activities (for muscles and bone) 3+ days/week
237
Q

What are the benefits of PA in diabetes?

A
Weight management, increased LBM
Reduced CV risk factors
- Lower BP
- Lower unfavorable and higher favorable lipids
Improved insulin sensitivity
Psychological benefits
- Improved sense of well-being
- Improved self-esteem
238
Q

What are challenges of exercise in diabetes?

A
  • Injury
  • Impact on overall glycemic management varies (A1C)
    (exercise improves A1C but effect may be mitigated by attempts to avoid hypos)
  • Hypos - first reported barrier to PA (immediate or delayed (6-15h after))
  • Hyperglycemia (anaerobic exercise)
  • Retinopathies
  • Neuropathies (may not feel injuries)
239
Q

Why is someone with diabetes more likely to get an hypoglycemia later in the day after PA?

A

Increase in absorption of insulin from subcutaneous area
Increase in rate of glucose transport into muscles
Diminished hepatic glucose production (elevated I:G ratio in portal vein)
–> Hypoglycemia
–> Blunting of counter-regulatory hormones responses in patients with T1DM = increased risk of hypo later (night time)

  1. High glucose requirement during and right after exercise
  2. Also, higher glucose requirements 7-11h later (late hypoglycemia risk)
    a. High requirement of glucose d/t increased insulin sensitivity for glycogen restoration (GLUT4 stays on the cell membranes for hours after exercise
    b. Impaired counter-regulation
    c. Relative excessive circulating insulin
    d. Absence of CHO intake
240
Q

What are 3 solutions to decrease the risk of nocturnal hypos with PA?

A

Bedtime snack
Decrease insulin (Pump – TBR decrease from e.g. midnight to 3AM; MDI: Decrease bolus of last meal)
Exercise in the morning

241
Q

What are the 4 likely causes of hypo episodes in PA?

A
  1. Too much insulin
  2. Not enough CHO
  3. Type of exercise (aerobic)
  4. Duration of exercise
242
Q

Why does PA often cause hypoglycemia in diabetic individuals?

A

Muscle contraction sends glut4 to the side of the cells – do not need insulin to make glucose enter + exogenous insulin also brings GLUT4 to the side

After exercise: GLUT4 stays on cells for hours to replenish muscle glycogen

243
Q

Does training increase insulin sensitivity?

A

Yes, a more fit person is more sensitive. May adapt amounts with time as person gets more fit

244
Q

Why does anaerobic exercise cause hyperglycemia?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released:
o Increase liver glycogen breakdown –> increase plasma glucose
o Decrease muscle glucose uptake
BG remains high for ≈ 2 hours

245
Q

Why is sprinting used?

A

Hypoglycemia prevention using short duration sprinting
- Intermittent high intensity exercise (several high intensity exercise bouts lasting 4-5 seconds) to maintain BG while reducing CHO intake
- Used to counter the rapid fall in glycemia due to moderate-intensity exercise in individuals with T1DM
o Decreases the risk of post-exercise hypoglycemia
o Efficacy of sprinting is likely to decrease in over-insulinized individuals
- NOTE: Repeated circuits of high intensity exercise, especially when mixed with aerobic exercise, could result in significant reductions in BG

246
Q

What are the warm up recommendations for T1DM?

A

o If hyperglycemic (≥ 14 mmol/L) and ketotic (≥ 1.5 mmol/L plasma ketones) because of insulin deficiency, don’t exercise until hyperglycemia and ketones are restored with insulin
o If mildly hyperglycemic (8-14 mmol/L), do a 10-15 minutes mild aerobic warm-up

247
Q

What are the cool-down recommendations for T1DM?

A

o Always cool down for ≈ 20 minutes – aerobic, easy intensity
o Consider conservative insulin correction if remain hyperglycemic (≥ 12.2 mmol/L)

248
Q

What 2 characteristics of PA have an impact on BG? What should be done in those cases?

A

Intensity and duration
–> mild aerobic exercise: decrease last bolus by 25%, 50% if 60 min
–> Moderate aerobic exercise: decrease last bolus by 50% if 30 min, 75% if 60 min. etc
Intense aerobic or anaerobic: no reduction

249
Q

If we want to disconnect the pump during exercise, when should we do it?

A

1h-1.5h before

250
Q

How should basal dose be reduced before PA in MDI? pump?

A

MDI: do not reduce except if 2x/d or if PA lasts whole day

CSII: Basal insulin dose reduction of 60-80% (= 20-40% of dose given) may be useful for exercise over 45 to 60 minutes
Dose could be reduced up to 90 minutes before exercise

251
Q

How should basal dose be reduced after PA in MDI? pump?

A

MDI:
Reduce night time dose by 20%
Encourage increased CHO consumption to prevent nocturnal hypoglycemia
Test BG during the night

CSII:
Reduce insulin dose by 20% to 3AM
Encourage increased CHO consumption
Test BG during the night

*Consider reducing the bolus insulin dose during the post-exercise meal by 50%

252
Q

Name recommendations for patients to avoid nocturnal hypos after PA

A

 Set alarms to check BG during the night
 Advise household members on signs of severe hypoglycemia, and on appropriate use of glucose gels or glucagon
 Avoid alcohol following exercise (the risk of hypos is however minimal if a moderate intake of alcohol is combined with CHO intake)
 CGM should be used with the benefits of:
o Alarms in cases of hypoglycemia
o No alerts if no hypo is detected (don’t have to wake up)

253
Q

What is the optimal BG to undergo PA? What to do if it is below? Above?

A

Optimal: 7-15 mmol/L –> aerobic, anaerobic, and interval high intensity exercise can be started

< 5 mmol/L –> Ingest 10-20g CHO; delay exercise until BG > 5 mmol/L

5-6.9 mmol/L –> ingest 10g CHO; anaerobic and interval high intensity exercise can be started

> 15 mmol/L –> Check blood ketones and perform low intensity exercise, or give small corrective dose of insulin
Low intensity exercise may be okay if blood ketones are
<1.4 mmol/L. consider small corrective dose of insulin. No exercise if >1.5 mmol/L

254
Q

What to do if we want to initiate insulin added to OHA?

A

1- Start with 10 un/day (= 1 injection at bedtime)
2- Add 1 un per day until target is reached
(except Degludec: 2 units every 3-4 days or 4 units per week)

255
Q

What is the prevalence of GDM in Canada? Why is it increasing?

A

In Canada, between 3-20%

why? Women are having children older + increased rate of obesity worldwide

256
Q

Name GDM risk factors

A

• Age 35+
• Being in a high-risk group (African, Arab, Asian, Hispanic, Indigenous, South-Asian)
• Using corticosteroid medication (betamethasone for pre-term babies to speed up lung development and maturation)
o Lungs usually last organ to develop in utero
o Some women use corticosteroids for IBD –> GD –> increased risk of pre-term deliveries and still births
• Obesity (BMI ≥ 30)
• Prediabetes
• GDM in a previous pregnancy
• Given birth to a baby that weighed more than 4 kg
• Parent, brother or sister with T2DM
• PCOS or acanthosis nigricans (darkened patches of skin)

257
Q

How does interpregnancy weight affect GDM risk?

A
  • If BMI increases in the interpregnancy period in women with normal BMI or BMI > 27 = higher risk of GD in their second pregnancy
  • If BMI decreases in the interpregnancy period in women with overweight or obesity = lower risk of developing GD in their second pregnancy
258
Q

What are maternal complications of GDM?

A
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Polyhydramnios
  • HTN
  • Preterm labour
  • C-section/difficult delivery due to large baby
  • Still birth before 40 weeks of gestation
259
Q

What are neonatal complications of GDM?

A
  • Macrosomia weight > 4 kg
  • LGA > 90th percentile (by US)
  • Shoulder dystocia/birth injury (dislocation of shoulder)
  • Early rupture of membranes due to increased amniotic fluid
  • Neonatal hypoglycemia
  • Respiratory distress
  • Hyperbilirubinemia
  • NICU admission
260
Q

Name maternal postpartum possible outcomes of GDM

A
  • Future diabetes
  • Future GDM
  • Metabolic syndrome
261
Q

Name possible risks in the offspring of women with GDM

A
  • ?? Childhood obesity

* ?? T2DM in early childhood

262
Q

Describe IR in a normal pregnancy

A

 Healthy pregnancy can be associated with insulin resistance which increase with maternal adiposity and cortisol production from the placenta
 The development of IR in the second half of the pregnancy serves as a physiological adaptation of the mother to ensure adequate CHO supply to the rapidly growing fetus
 Maternal IR leads to more use of fats than CHO for energy by mother and spares CHO for fetus
 Changes in glucose and lipid metabolism occur progressively during pregnancy to ensure a continuous supply of nutrients to the growing fetus despite intermittent maternal food intake
At the third trimester, insulin sensitivity may gradually decline to 50% of the normal expected value
This increase in insulin resistance is mediated by a number of factors including increase in the level of estrogen, progesterone, human placental lactogen (hPL)

263
Q

What is hPL? What are its functions?

A

Human placental lactogen (hPL), also called human chorionic somatomammotropin (HCS), is a polypeptide placental hormone. hPL is present only during pregnancy, with maternal serum levels rising in relation to the growth of the fetus and placenta.
Metabolic:
• ↓ maternal insulin sensitivity, leading to an increase in maternal blood glucose levels.
• ↓ maternal glucose utilization, which helps ensure adequate fetal nutrition (the mother responds by increasing beta cells –> more insulin). Chronic hypoglycemia leads to a rise in hPL.
• ↑ lipolysis with the release of free fatty acids. With fasting and release of hPL, FFAs become available for the mother as fuel, so that relatively more glucose can be utilized by the fetus. Also, ketones formed from free fatty acids can cross the placenta and be used by the fetus.
These functions help support fetal nutrition even in the case of maternal malnutrition.

264
Q

Can insulin cross the placenta? Ketones?

A

Yes to both. Insulin from the mother is passed on to the baby, but the baby will also start making its own insulin.. Ketones can be used by the fetus for energy

265
Q

What is the main functional unit of the placenta?

A

chorionic villi

266
Q

What happens to the placenta in women with GDM? When does it happen?

A

• Placentas from GDM mother are frequently larger, and the villi are hypervascularized resulting in a larger feto-placental endothelial surface –> Placenta has its own metabolic processes
This happens within the 2nd and 3rd trimesters. During those trimesters, the baby also makes +++ insulin due to hyperglycemia (Glucose from mother enters by GLUT)

267
Q

Why is the 2nd half of pregnancy considered a diabetogenic state?

A

because the elevated gestational hormones and increased maternal weight place a demand on the body for extra insulin.
Maternal metabolism usually compensates for this altered state by secreting extra insulin. Women with GDM, however, decompensate from a euglycemic state to a hyperglycemic state.

268
Q

Why is GDM associated with maternal dyslipidemia?

A

Gestational diabetes is associated with maternal dyslipidemia d/t increased insulin resistance
• High TG, low HDL, high LDL
• Excess supply of lipids to placenta –> greater transplacental transport –> lipid storage and/or lipotoxicity
• Increased fetal body fat mass –> macrosomia

269
Q

What are the effects of GDM on the placenta?

A
  1. XS insulin stimulates fetal aerobic glucose metabolism –> increases the oxygen demand of the fetus
  2. Higher oxygen affinity of A1C, thickening of the placental basement membrane, and reduced utero-placental or fetoplacental blood flow –> inadequate oxygen supply and reduced oxygen delivery to the intervillous space
  3. Both of these cause fetal hypoxemia (abnormally low O2 in the blood)
  4. –> Placental angiogenesis –> hypercapillarization –> placentomegaly (Type 1 > GDM)
270
Q

What are the effects of the placenta on GDM?

A

The placenta synthesizes a variety of cytokines (low-grade inflammation) developing during the third trimester of pregnancy
–> overproduction of placental leptin and TNF-alpha in T1DM and GDM

Overexpression of placenta TNF-alpha –> increased fetal adiposity
TNF-alpha, leptin and resistin –> increased pregnancy-induced insulin resistance by adding a placental component to the insulin resistance already developing in the mother
Placental leptin expression in patients with GDM is increased.
Conversely, leptin itself increases production of TNF-α and interleukin 6 (IL-6) by monocytes and stimulates the production of CC-chemokine ligands. Therefore, a vicious circle develops aggravating the inflammatory situation. Chronic insulin administration increases leptin secretion by adipocytes. Consequently, hyperinsulinemia in GDM might further stimulate leptin production.
Resisten is secreted by the adipocytes and is associated with increasing insulin resistance; inflammatory-type protein

271
Q

Explain the effect of maternal hypoglycemia on the fetus

A

High BG affects the placenta by affecting blood flow and oxygen delivery –> fetus lacks oxygen; lungs have not matured –> can lead to things such as respiratory distress syndrome in the fetus, pre-term labour, XS water, LGA, increased lipogenesis

Sustained hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia may cause fetal acidemia and hypoxia and a remarkably reduced tolerance to lack of oxygen.
RDS: caused by compromised lung maturation, could lead to death of newborn.
At 32 wks lungs have developed therefore increasing risk of RDS in preterm delivery and in premies.

272
Q

What 2 measures are indicators of macrosomia?

A

Fetal abdominal circumference (AC) > 70th percentile

Estimated fetal weight (EFW) > 50 to 60th percentile

273
Q

When does screening for GDM occur in pregnant women?

A

24-28 weeks

BUT if high risk of GDM based on multiple clinical factors, screening should be offered at any stage in the pregnancy

274
Q

Explain the preferred approach for GDM diagnosis (include the cutoff values)

A

50g OGTT, 1h later…

  • < 7.8 mmol/L –> Normal
  • 7.8-11.0 mmol/L –> do 75g OGTT
  • ≥ 11.1 mmol/L —> GDM
75 OGTT
- FPG ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
- 1hPG ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
- 2hPG ≥ 9.0 mmol/L
If 1 value is met or exceeded --> GDM
275
Q

Describe the main nutrition intervention for women with GDM

A
  • Women should aim for 3 moderate-sized meals and 2 or more snacks (of which one should be at bedtime)
  • Small frequent meals will help women minimize nausea and ketone formation
  • GD: Pancreas cannot produce a very large amount of insulin – CHO must be spread out!

**Breakfast: 15-20g CHO, preferably no fruit or milk, as BG is particularly high in the morning and some women may be sensitive to both fructose and lactose
Certain low-lactose dairy products may be tolerated such as Greek yogurt
Support consumption of Greek yogurt during pregnancy, especially if woman has meat aversion
**Lunch and dessert: 30-45g CHO, vegetables should make up the majority of the plate

  • Each meal should contain CHO, PRO and FAT –> will lower GI load
276
Q

Which 2 foods should be avoided in GDM (esp. at breakfast)?

A

Avoid milk and fruits at breakfast (except avocados)
Tropical fruits are sweeter compared to other fruits.
Greek yogurt is encouraged

277
Q

What is the macronutrient distribution for women with GDM?

A

carbs: 40-45%, protein 20-25%, fats: 30-35%

278
Q

What should snacks be composed of in GDM? When should night time snacks be considered?

A

• Snacks will help women feel full in between meals (avoiding low BG levels) and prevent them from overeating at their next meal (avoiding spikes in BG levels)
• Should consist of 15-30g CHO
• Snacks should consist of a source of CHO + a source of protein
Hs snacks are not necessary for everybody – but if patient shows up with ketones > 2 in urine = recommend snack at night

279
Q

Name 5 important nutrients in pregnancy and why.

A

• EFAs: involved in brain development of the baby
*vegetable oils, 2 low-mercury fish servings a week, and supplements (fish oil or algae-based docosahexaenoic acid).
• Iron: d/t increased blood volume in 3rd trimester
• Folic acid: prevents NTDs
• Vitamin D: bone formation of baby
• Calcium: bone formation of baby

280
Q

What nutrient do common prenatal MVs lack?

A

do not contain enough Mg, Ca and VA (do not meet needs)
Especially calcium: Evaluate calcium intake in diet and see if the patient would benefit from another calcium supplement
Same for vitamin A, do not worry too much about magnesium (vegetables)

281
Q

How much energy do pregnant women with GDM need?

A
  1. Use ROT like non-pregnant adult women
    a. BMI < 20: 35 kcal/kg
    b. BMI 20-25: 30 kcal/kg
    c. BMI > 25: 25 kcal/kg
  2. If BMI > 30, use adjusted BW:
    a. Adjusted BW: Actual pregavid BW – IBW using max BMI x 0.25 + IBW
  3. Then add the estimated requirement for pregnant women per trimester
282
Q

Why are hypocaloric diets not recommended in GDM?

A

Hypocaloric diets have been used for the obese woman with GDM. Risk of high levels of ketones and risk of sacrificing maternal nutritional status are higher in women who consume hypocaloric diets.
Women placed on this diet should have the benefit of team management.
Monitor ketones closely

283
Q

What are the cutoffs for each trimester? How much extra energy is needed during those trimesters?

A

 First trimester (0-13 weeks): No extra
 2nd trimester (14-26 weeks): Add 340 kcal
 3rd trimester (27 to 40 weeks): add 452 kcal
 Breastfeeding post-partum: add 452 kcal

284
Q

What are the DRIs for CHO, protein and fiber in pregnant women with and without GDM?

A
  • Minimum 175 g CHO
  • Minimum of 71g protein (1.1 g/kg/d)
  • Minimum of 28 g fiber
285
Q

What are the weight gain recommendations during pregnancy?

A

Underweight:

  • Total <28-40
  • 1 lb/week during the 2nd and 3rd trimester

Normal weight

  • Total 25-35
  • 1 lb/week during the 2nd and 3rd trimester

Overweight

  • Total 15-25
  • 0.6 lb/week during the 2nd and 3rd trimester

Obese

  • Total 11-20
  • 0.5 lb/week during the 2nd and 3rd trimester
286
Q

How often should BG be monitored in women with GDM?

A

QID

  • AC and PC breakfast
  • 1hPC lunch
  • 1h PC supper
287
Q

Which antihyperglycemic agents should be used in pregnancy?

A

Insulin (sometimes metformin)

288
Q

What are the target BG levels in GDM?

A
  • Fasting < 5.3 mmol/L (JGH between 4.2-5.2 mmol/L)
  • 1h after a meal < 7.8 mmol/L (JGH between 5.5-7.7)
  • 2h after a meal < 6.7 mmol/L
289
Q

What is the effect of PA on GDM?

A

Regular exercise and a healthy diet helps:
• Improve glycemic control
• Facilitate weight control
• Improve insulin sensitivity
The risk of GDM is inversely proportional to the degree of physical activity in the year prior to pregnancy
Exercise before and during early pregnancy is associated with 51% and 48% reductions in GDM risk, respectively.
Exercise started before and continued throughout pregnancy may lead to GDM risk reductions of 69%.

290
Q

What is the PA goal for women with GDM?

A

Goal: 30 minutes or more per day, can be both aerobic and non-weight-bearing exercises (yoga, stretching…)
Lifestyle therapy for GDM results in lower birth weight and a lower incidence of large-for-gestational-age births and pre-eclampsia
 In total, it is recommended that most pregnant women do 150 minutes/week (approximately 3-5 sessions of 30-45 minutes each)
 It is important for those who were not active prior to being pregnant to start very gradually
 Examples of some activities (should be done at light-moderate intensity)
o Swimming, walking, cycling, jogging

291
Q

What are the benefits of breastfeeding in women with GDM?

A

Breastfeeding for a minimum of 4 months to prevent hypoglycemia in newborn, obesity in childhood, and diabetes for both mother in child
 Baby is feeding on demand: small frequent meals. Breast milk is not as sweet as formula (lower GI). Insulin is produced by the baby in utero  baby still has a lot during labour and after birth. With breast milk, we want to try to normalize the baby’s insulin production

Breast feeding not only helps the mother lose the weight gained during pregnancy, it also reduces blood pressure and helps control blood glucose (sugar) levels and thus prevent type 2 diabetes

292
Q

When should women with GDM be screened for T2DM?

A
  • Within 6 weeks to 6 months of giving birth
  • Before planning another pregnancy
  • Every 3 years (or more depending on risk factors)