Diabetes Flashcards

1
Q

What are the symptoms of diabetes?
T1DM vs T2DM

A

polyuria - due to osmotic diuresis
polydipsia - stimulated by fluid and electrolyte losses
weight loss - caused by fluid depletion and muscle/fat breakdown (lipolysis) due to insulin deficiency
hyperglycaemia
glycosuria
ketoacidosis - due to fats being used for energy instead of glucose
weight gain
blurred vision
fatigue
thrush/genital
slow wound healing

T1DM - thirst, polyuria, weight loss, lethargy and ketoacidosis
T2DM - same symptoms but less marked and extending over several months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is diabetes investigated?

A

fasting blood glucose levels > 7mmol/L
random blood glucose levels > 11.1mmol/L
oral glucose tolerance test
Hb1Ac > 48mmol/L, > 6.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the risk factors and complications associated with diabetes?

A

cardiovascular disease
- other risk factors are smoking, hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and obesity
= can be treated with NRT, statins and ACEi (non-black) or ARB (black)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the
types of insulin + brand name
duration of action
benefits

A

short acting
= for uncontrolled DM, emergencies and low risk of hypoglycaemia/nighttime hypos
= given with meals and basal-bolus regimen
- soluble insulin = Actrapid
- insulin aspart = Novorapid, Fiasp
- insulin lispro = Humalog

intermediate acting
= for controlled DM with fixed meals/schedule and has an increased risk of hypoglycaemia
= given once or twice daily
- insulin isophane = Humulin, Insulatard
- suspension of insulin with protamine

long acting insulin
= for uncontrolled DM, emergencies and have a low risk of hypoglycaemia/nighttime hypos
= given as basal-bolus regimen
- insulin determir = Levemir
- insulin glargine = Lantus, Toujeo
- insulin degludec = Tresiba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How should blood glucose be monitored in DM?
fasting blood glucose
blood glucose before meals
blood glucose 90 mins after meals
blood glucose before driving

A

fasting blood glucose - 5-7mmol/L
blood glucose before meals - 4-7mmol/L
blood glucose 90 mins after meals - 5-9mmol/L
blood glucose before driving - at least 5mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an insulin passport?

A

should be offered to all patients receiving insulin
- provides a record of the patient’s insulin preparations and emergency information
- provides advice on safe use of insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the first line treatment for T2DM?

A

lifestyles changes before any pharmacological treatments
- smoking cessation
- reduce caloric intake = lose weight
- a mediterranean diet
- moderate to vigorous physical activity of >150 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are
insulin sensitiser
insulin providers
incretin based therapies
gastrointestinal glucose absorption inhibitor
renal glucose reuptake inhibitor

A

insulin sensitiser - metformin, pioglitazone
insulin providers - insulin, sulfonylureas, meglitinides
incretin based therapies - GLP-1 receptor agonists, DPP-4 inhibitors
gastrointestinal glucose absorption inhibitor - acarbose
renal glucose reuptake inhibitor - SGLT2 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does metformin work?
What are the advantages and disadvantages?
What are the cautions?

A

Increases insulin sensitivity and uptake by skeletal muscle
Suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis
- activates AMPK

advantages - weight loss, does NOT cause hypos
disadvantages - GI side effects, lactic acidosis

caution - do not use in hepatic or renal impairment (eGFR < 30ml/min/1.73)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do sulfonylureas work?
What are the advantages and disadvantages?
What are the cautions?

A

Stimulates pancreatic insulin secretion by blocking K+ channels in pancreatic beta cells

advantages - reduces Hb1Ac
disadvantages - weight gain, GI side effects, hypersensitivity reaction

caution - risk of hypoglycaemia, increased risk of hepatic and renal impairment, contraindicated in ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does pioglitazone work?
What are the advantages and disadvantages?
What are the cautions?

A

enhances insulin release
- increased peripheral glucose uptake + reduces gluconeogenesis
= via PPAR-TZD complex affecting transcription of genes needed for glucose and fatty acid metabolism

advantages - increased insulin sensitivity
disadvantages - weight gain, peripheral oedema

caution - CI in heart failure, hepatic impairment, bladder cancer and increases risk of bone fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do DPP-4 inhibitors work?
What are the advantages and disadvantages?
What are the cautions?

A

sitagliptin, saxagliptin

delays inactivation of GLP-1 by blocking DPP-4 which metabolises it
- GLP-1 is an incretin that increases insulin release

advantages - well tolerated, reduces appetite, weight loss
disadvantages - GI side effects, headache, sore throat, hypersensitivity reactions

cautions - increased risk of pancreatitis, urticaria and angioedema, requires dose titration in chronic kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the advantage of Linagliptin?
What is the risk associated with Canagliflozin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor
can be used in renal impairment

SGLT2 inhibitor
- increased risk of amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do SGLT2 inhibitors work?
What are the advantages and disadvantages?
What are the cautions?

A

Inhibits renal absorption of glucose

advantages - weight loss, can reduce blood pressure
disadvantages - increased risk of UTI’s and thrush, euglycaemic diabetic ketoacidosis

caution - avoid in CKD (works on the kidney so has no effect if it is dysfunctional), avoid use with diuretics (excessive fluid loss), risk of Fournier’s gangrene (necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the side effects of alpha glucosidase inhibitors?

A

GI side effects
- flatulence, bloating and diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do GLP-1 receptor agonists work? How are they taken?
What are the advantages and disadvantages?
What are the cautions?

A

are incretin mimetic so act in the same way
- increases insulin secretion from beta cells after meals
- suppresses glucagon release,
- reduces gastric emptying, increases satiety

are given via subcutaneous injections

advantages - weight loss
disadvantages - GI side effects

caution - increased risk of pancreatitis

17
Q

What are the blood pressure target levels in diabetes? How often should it be monitored? What are the treatment options? What treatment should not be used?

A

T1DM
- T1DM = 135/85 mHg or less
- T1DM with metabolic syndrome symptoms = 140/90 mmHg

T2DM
- T2DM and less than 80 yrs = 140/90 mmHg
- T2DM and older than 80yrs = 150/90 mmHg

monitor every 1-2 months

non-black ethnicity - ACE inhibitor
black ethnicity - ARB
women with the possibility of becoming pregnant - CCB (ACEi and ARB are teratogenic) = labetolol or nifedipine

beta blockers can mask the symptoms of hyperglycaemia - masks anxiety/palpitations

18
Q

What tests can be done to monitor and diagnose diabetes?

A

urine testing for glucose
- for elderly patients where tight control is unnecessary
urine ketones
- ketouria indicates diabetic ketoacidosis
microalbuminurea
- marker of diabetic nephropathy
albumin creatinine ratio (ACR)
<30mg/g is normal, 30-300mg/g is raised, >300mg/g is severely raised
= marker of early reversible diabetic nephropathy

Hb1Ac (glycosylated haemoglobin)
- <48mmol/L is normal, <53mmol/L for T2DM on more than 2 medications or single drug associated with hypos (S)
Glycosylated plasma proteins (fructosamine)
- useful in haemoglobinopathies = sickle cell disease