DI 2 Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the relation between occipitalization and basilar invagination/impression?

A

Occipitalization: Nonsegmentation of occiput from C1.

Occipitalization is one of the etimologies of basilar invagination, which is Odontoid encroachment into foramen magnum

compare with Arnold-Chiari malformation: part of brainstem is thru foramen magnum

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2
Q

Where do you find a posterior ponticle?

A

between occiput and C1

ossification of the vertebral membrane thru which the vertebral artery and 1st cervical nerve pass

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3
Q

What is the significance of George’s line?

A

Line drawn along posterior edge of vertebral bodies to estimate alignment, should be smooth curve; if not, indicates spondylolithesis or bone loss/gain/malformation/etc

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4
Q

Why is an os odontoideum clinically significant?

A

possibility of severing spinal cord -> set up appt with neurosurgeon

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5
Q

What are the radiographic differences between congenital block vertebra and an acquired fusion of the spine?

A

congenital block vertebra:, Decreased AP diameter, rudimentary disc, apophyseal joint fusion, possible malformation or fusion of SPs. Wasp waisted appearance (of discs, not of Pt)

acquired fusion: normal vertebral bodies, radiopacity between bodies d/t sclerosis or bone chips

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6
Q

What is the significance of the spinolaminar junction and spina bifida occulta in the lateral view?

A

It’s not visible on the lateral view, since the two lamina don’t come together. In normal SPs on a lateral view, one can see the radiopaque line indicating thickness of the two lamina’s connection, whereas in SBO lamina don’t have that additional thickness and appear relatively radiopaque.

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7
Q

Why is it common to see disc space narrowing adjacent to a limbus vertebra and/or Schmorl’s node?

A

because the disc isn’t in the disc space, it’s in the body space

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8
Q

How can you tell whether a rib at the cervicothoracic junction is a cervical rib or first rib?

A

cervical TPs point up, thorasic TPs point out, so check the TP that the rib is attached to

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9
Q

What is a transitional lumbosacral vertebra?

A

a vertebra that resembles both an idealized lumbar vertebra and the sacrum, would be L5 probably

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10
Q

Name a dysplasia that may present with tall stature and hypermobile joints?

A

Marfans

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11
Q

What complications may be associated with marfans?

A
  • kyphoscoliosis;
  • aortic dissection aneurism;
  • joint dislocation;
  • retinal dislocation
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12
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of dwarfism

2. What neurologic condition may these individuals have that affects the legs?

A
  1. achrondoplasia, hereditory autosomal dominant trait

2 In the infant, the small foramen magnum and hydrocephalus can lead to cord compression. In the adult, congenital spinal stenosis often leads to paraplegia.

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13
Q

Fragile osteopenic bones are associated with which dysplasia?

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

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14
Q

compare new and old fractures

A

new: not much. edema, fat displacement (elbow), air (open/compound fracture), if large enough, a radio-lucenct (if gapping) or radiopaque (if compressed) area
old: callus where new bone has grown, either as cortex or as bridging bone

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15
Q

What are the possible long bone fracture orientations?

A

transverse, oblique, longitudinal

“long bones are TOL”

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16
Q

What are the types of incomplete fractures of pediatric long bones and how do they differ?

A

Torus, Green stick, Bowing
“ TEE-Bow”
“Incomplete pass”

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17
Q

Which is the most common type of Salter Harris fracture?

A

type II: growth plate and metyphasis

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18
Q

What is the difference between a malunion and a nonunion fracture?

A

malunion is where the bone heals unaligned, in a different form than it had originally

nonunion is where each new fragment of the bone heals itself rather than joining back into the original bone

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19
Q

What significant finding is demonstrated in the APOM view with a Jefferson’s fracture?

A

The lateral aspect of C1 should not project beyond the lateral margins of C2 by a combined measurement of 7 mm

i.e. C1 lateral aspects slide laterally d/t fractures bilaterally ant and post

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20
Q

What is traumatic spondylolisthesis and what cervical level does it usually occur at?

A

Hangman’s fracture, C2

21
Q

What are the key radiographic differences between an ununited secondary ossification center of the spinous process at the cervicothoracic junction and a clay shoveler’s fracture?

A

nonunion of growth center will be smooth, clay shoveler’s frxr will be jagged-edged and caudally displaced

22
Q

What is the most common fracture of the spine and how do you differentiate new from old? (hint: it occurs usually at T12-L2)

A

compression fracture

Hemorrhage, hematoma, step defect, and zone of impaction indicate fracture less then 2 months old

Old fractures often show contiguous disc degeneration (if L1-2 frxr, T12 and L2 djd)

23
Q

List and describe the unstable fractures of the pelvis.

A

unstable: Trauma that results in the possibility of organ or vascular damage

Malgaigne: Unilateral sacroiliac fracture/dislocation and ipsilateral superior pubic and ischiopubic rami fractures (3 points, psi)

Bucket-handle: Unilateral sacroiliac fracture/dislocation and contralateral superior pubic and ischiopubic rami

24
Q

What is the most common type of acetabular fracture?

A

Posterior rim frxr, where femur is driven into acetabulum (a.k.a. dashboard fracture)

25
Q

What is the most common hip (proximal femur fracture) and what age do these often happen in?

A

Subcapital: Junction of head and neck (MC – often missed), elderly predisposed by bone-wasting dx

26
Q

Name and describe the proximal femur fracture that happens only in adolescents.

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis, obese 10-15y.o., pain referred to knee

27
Q

Which direction does the patella usually dislocate?

A

superolaterally (stronger muscle)

28
Q

What is a Jones’ fracture and what bone does it occur in?

A

a.k.a. dancer’s fracture, proximal 5th metatarsal (transverse, as oblique might be growth plate)

29
Q

Name an associated injury that must be evaluated for when a patient presents with a calcaneal compression fracture.

A

thoracolumbar spinal vertebra fracture (burst or compression

30
Q

What are the different types/grades of acromioclavicular joint sprain?

A

1: acromioclavicular & corococlavicular ligaments stretched
2: acromioclavicular ligament ruptured/stretched, corococlavicular ligament stretched
3: both ligaments ruptured

in all three, SCM pulls clavicle superiorly

31
Q

What is the radiographic difference in anterior vs. posterior glenohumeral dislocations? Which is most common?

A

anterior is far more common
• dislocates medio-inferiorly
• may see Hill-Sachs/Hatchet sign or Bankart lesions (see below) from frequent dislocation

posterior is far less common
• dislocates superio-laterally and overlaps w/ glenoid fossa in Grassey view
• has to do with severe spasm or muscular strain (convulsions, electric shock) or direct trauma forcing backwards

32
Q

What are Hill-Sachs/Hatchet and Bankart lesions and what are they associated with?

A

anterior glenohumeral dislocation, d/t frequent banging of humerus on inferior lip of glenoid

Hill-Sachs/Hatchet is on humeral head

Bankart is on glenoid

33
Q

Which part of the clavicle most commonly fractures?

A

middle 1/3 (80%), then lateral 1/3 (15%) then medial 1/3 (5%)

34
Q

What is the significance of the elbow fat pad signs (anterior and posterior)?

A

bleeding or edema into area has displaced the fat pad from

35
Q

What structures are involved in the most common fractures of the elbow in children and in adults?

A

children: supracondylar humerus
adults: head or neck of radius

36
Q

What are the most common wrist fractures seen in each of the following age groups: children, young adults, elderly?

A

children: Distal Radius Torus Fracture (6-10y.o.)

young adults: scaphoid fracture

elderly: Colles’ fracture, especially women

37
Q

Describe the difference between Colles’ and Smith’s fractures at the wrist.

A

Colles’: Distal radius fractured about 20-35 mm proximal to the joint surface, distal fragment is angulated posteriorly, sometimes with ulnar styloid, from FOOSH injury

Smith’s: Distal radius fracture with distal fragment angulated anteriorly, from wrist hyperflexion

38
Q

Discuss the vascular supply of the scaphoid and its effect in avascular necrosis and healing of this structure after fracture

A

First: 70% occur at scaphoid waist, 20% at proximal pole, and 10% at distal pole

blood supply arteries are at waist and distal pole area, so proximal is harder/slower to heal

non-union fractures separating proximal pole from blood supply also cause AVN

39
Q

What is the most common carpal bone to dislocate and in what direction?

A

lunate, anteriorly

40
Q

What are barroom and boxer’s fractures of the hand?

A
  • The fracture of metacarpals one would see after a punch:
  • jab (boxer -> 2, 3)
  • roundhouse ( barroom -> 4, 5)
41
Q

What is gamekeeper’s thumb?

A

a.k.a. skier’s or ski-pole thumb:

dislocation/fracture of extreme abduction/extension (you fly foward, your thumb stays behind)

42
Q

What are the common sites of a stress fracture?

A
  • Metatarsals – aka “march fracture”, “deutchlanders disease”
  • Proximal tibia, calcaneus, distal fibula
  • hook of the hamate
  • distal one third of the clavicle
  • dang those SCMs!
  • L5 pars interarticularis (most common stress fracture in the spine)
43
Q

How can stress fractures be detected on plain x-ray?

A

with great difficulty, if at all. Check after 2 weeks~20 days for callus formation -> radiopacity

44
Q

What imaging type(s) are most sensitve in detecting stress fractures?

A

MRI shows edema and subtle density differences

45
Q

What are the most common types of spondylolisthesis in the lumbar spine?

A
  • 2 main types
  • isthmic: pars @ L5 (90%), stress, in active kids
  • look for “collar” on “scotty dog”
  • L4 on L5
  • type 3 - degenerative arthritis, L4 slides fwd on L5
46
Q

Discuss the differences between spondylolytic spondylolisthesis and degenerative spondylolisthesis.

A

one is in active adolescents with hyperlordosis/extension, esp girls, and one is in older adults.

47
Q

Make sure to include the etiology of each and what spinal level are spondylolytic spondylolisthesis and degenerative spondylolisthesismost common at.

A

spondylolytic spondylolisthesis: L4 slides on L5

degenerative spondylolithesis: L3 slides on L4

48
Q

What is the Meyerding’s grading system?

A
  • on a lateral lumbar projection:
  • The sacral base is divided into 4 equal sections.
  • Grade 1 The posterior-inferior corner of L5 is aligned with the first division
  • Grade 2 “ “ second division
  • Grade 3 “ “ third division
  • Grade 4 “ “ fourth division
  • Grade 5 is spondyloptosis (L5 anterior to S1)
49
Q

What is an inverted/reversed Napoleon hat sign?

A

\on a Lumbar Spine spot film, L5 is so far anterolistheses’ed that it looks like an inverted Napoleon hat (body inferior, TPs laterally from top-down and SPs etc blended w/ L4