DI 2- Final Flashcards

1
Q

List the three presentations/types of osteoporosis.

A

o Generalized (Senile/Postmenopausal)
o Regional—dt disuse/immobilization, reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
o Localized-dt infx, inflammatory arthritis, neoplasm

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2
Q

How does generalized osteoporosis present?

A
  • ↑ bone radiolucency
  • cortical thinning; “pencil thin” cortices & endplates
  • endplates very radiopaque
  • altered trabeculae patterns: no horizontal lines; accentuated vertical trabeculae = “pseudohemangiomatous”
  • “Pancake” and anteriorly wedged vertebrae
  • Biconcave endplates
  • Isolated end plate infarction
  • Schmorl’s nodes
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3
Q

How does regional osteoporosis present?

A
  • Acute, Painful: progressive pain, swelling, atrophy
  • Usu develops in one area distal to trauma site
  • Osseous hyperemia dt neurovascular imbalance
  • Patchy, mottled
  • Metaphyseal localization
  • No joint dz
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4
Q

What is the most common cause of generalized osteoporosis?

A
o	Age
o	↓ Estrogen (F > 60, pm)
o	↓ Androgen (M)
o	↓ intake Vit D and Ca
o	lack of weight-bearing exercise
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5
Q

What is the standard imaging modality to quantify bone mineral density?

A

o DEXA (dual energy x-ray absortiometry)

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6
Q

What causes rickets and osteomalacia? 2 forms of rickets?

A

o ↓ Vit D, mb dt malabsorption
o Osteomalacia: also abN Ca and PO4 metabolism, dietary deficiency, renal dz
o renal osteodystrophy w chronic renal dz
o renal tubular defect (don’t reabsorb phosphate)

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7
Q

What are the classic radiographic features of rickets?

A
  • Generalized osteopenia (bowed appearence)
  • Coarse trabecular changes
  • Wide growth plates (tall, thick; feels thicker on palp, swollen)
  • Rachitic Rosary (bead-like, on sternum)
  • no zone of provisional calcification
  • Frayed “paintbrush” (growth plate margn) and cupped metaphyses
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8
Q

What causes scurvy and what are the classic radiographic features?

A

↓ Vit C
o White Line of Frankel – dense zone of provisional calcification, @ metaphysis
o ring epiphysis (Wimberger’s sign)
o Pelken’s spurs, @ metaphysis
o scorbutic zone (Trummerfeld zone)
o subperiosteal hemorrhages dt vascular fragility

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9
Q

What are the classic radiographic features of hyperparathyroidism in the spine, skull, and hand?

A
  • Hand: Subperiosteal resorption, Radial margins of proximal and middle phalanges of digits 2-3 w acroosteolysis (jagged edge)
  • Skull: “Salt and pepper” resorption of lamina dura
  • Spine: Osteopenia, Trabecula accentuation, End plate concavities, “Rugger Jersey” spine (thick cortical area), Wide SIJs
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10
Q

What are the face, skull, and foot changes seen with acromegaly?

A
  • Face: prominent forehead, Sinus overgrowth, Wide mandibular angle (prognathism)
  • Skull: large Sella turcica dt pituitary neoplasm; Sinus overgrowth, Malocclusion
  • Foot: heel pad > 20 mm (1 in)
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11
Q

What osseous changes might long term corticosteroids cause?

A
  • Osteoporosis of Cushing’s dz: Thin cortices, ↓density, deformities; Biconcave end plate
  • Osteonecrosis: femoral & humeral heads; distal femur and talus; “Intravertebral vacuum cleft sign”: Gas in vertebra, avascular necrosis → vertebrae collapse
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12
Q

The “H”-shaped vertebra is classically seen in what condition?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia: vertebral bodies are osteoperotic; deformities at endplates (“step off”, “fish vertebrae”, “H” vertebrae, w central depression (hypoplasia of central portion of vertebrae)

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13
Q

What are some complications to the skeleton secondary to sickle cell anemia?

A

bone changes dt marrow hyperplasia, ischemia, necrosis
• Generalized osteoporosis (marrow hyperplasia)- Thin cortices
• Coarse trabeculae, esp in axial skeleton
• Large vascular channels
• Wide medullary cavity
• Epiphyseal ischemic necrosis
• Medullary infarcts (metaphysis or diaphysis)
• 2nd salmonella or staph aureus osteomyelitis
• Vertebral body collapse
• Posterior mediastinal extramedullary hematopoiesis

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14
Q

Which anemia tends to result in “honeycomb” trabecular patterns?

A

Thalassemia

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15
Q

Hemophilic arthropathy typically occurs in which joints?

A

Knee, ankle, elbow (BL, symmetrical)

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16
Q

What is a common ddx when encountering hemophilic arthopathy?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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17
Q

What are the 4 mc sites for aneurysm in the abdomen?

A

Aorta, Splanchnic (mb mc), Iliac, Femoral

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18
Q

Which condition demonstrates nonuniform joint space narrowing, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, & subchondral cysts?

A

DJD

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19
Q

Which condition presents with triangular sclerosis only at the iliac portion of the lower SI joint?

A

Osteitis Condensans Ilii

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20
Q

Is osteitis condensans ilii more commonly unilateral or bilat?

A

BL & symmetric sclerosis

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21
Q

Is osteitis condensans ilii more commonly found in males or females?

A

• predominantly women of childbearing age

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22
Q

Osteitis pubis is commonly associated with which medical procedure?

A

• surgery near pubic symphysis, usu lower urinary tract (suprapubic or retropubic prostatectomies)

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23
Q

What is the difference bw marginal & non-marginal syndesmophytes?

A
  • Syndesmophyte= osseous excrescence attached to a ligament
  • Non-Marginal Syndesmophytes: don’t come from corners
  • Marginal syndesmophytes: ossification of outer annulus fibrosis → thick, vertical radiodense areas; connect adjacent vertebrae.
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24
Q

Which spinal arthritides have marginal vs non-marginal syndespmophytes?

A
  • Marginal: ankylosing spondylitis (AS), bow outward slightly → “bamboo spine” dt extensive syndesmophytes (vs spondylophytes in DJD); AS & Enteropathic: continuous syndesmophytes
  • Non-marginal: Psoriatic arthritis (esp at thoracolumbar jxn) & Reiters (=reactive arthritis, dt infx) (both tend to skip levels)
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25
Q

What systemic condition is commonly found in pts w diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)?

A
  • # 1 Osteoarthritis
  • # 2 Diabetes
  • Dyslipidemia
  • Hyperuricemia
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26
Q

• Describe a cervical spine with DISH?

A

o large bridging anterior osteophytes from C2-T1
o Dense band of calcification along posterior aspect of vertebral bodies
o Mild disc space narrowing at C5-6 and C6-7, minimal narrowing at C3-4
o No evidence of facet joint fusion or narrowing.

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27
Q

Dysphagia is common in which arthritic condition & why?

A

DISH: spinal involovement, esp ALL & extraspinal ligamentous & tendonous calcification & ossification
• also PLL & Longus colli

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28
Q

• What is intervertebral disc degeneration?

A
  • aka spondylosis
  • Loss of disc height
  • Osteophytes (spondylophytes (in spine))
  • Endplate sclerosis
  • Vacuum phenomenon (cleft) (sign of degeneration, lucency in disk)
  • Retrolisthesis (MC cause is DJD)
  • Central stenosis uncommon (MC cause is facet degeneration vs disk degeneration)
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29
Q

List the radiographic findings of Neuropathic Arthropathy:

A
6 D’s =pathognomonic
1.	Distended Joint 
2.	Density ↑ of subchondral bone
3.	Debris or loose bodies
4.	Dislocation
5.	Disorganization Joint 
6.	Destruction of articular cortex
(also 3Ds = dislocation, destruction & degeneration)
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30
Q

Which conditions may result in neuropathic arthropathy?

A
  • 2nd to loss of sensationand proprioception
  • DM
  • Alcoholism
  • tabes dorsalis (syphilis breaks down body, lose reflexes)
  • paralysis
  • syringomyelia (esp UE): cavity inside canal filled w CSF
  • Essentially severe, destructive DJD
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31
Q

What is synoviochondrometaplasia?

A
  • Benign; metaplasia of hyperplastic synovium to hyaline cartilage
  • cartilage ossifies, detaches → loose bodies (any synovial jt)
  • large wt-bearing jts, Knee MC, st BL
  • Never in spine
  • Radiographic: Mult radiodense loose bodies in jt capsule, LC tendon sheath or bursae; Pressure erosions, wide jt space,
  • Sx: asx, pain, jt swell, stiff, “joint locking”, crepitus, effusion, reduced motion, 2nd DJD
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32
Q

Name the common sites of involvement of RA in the hand & wrist:

A
Hands:  
•	MCP’s & PIP’s
•	marginal erosions (irregular, no sclerotic margin): radial margins of 2-3 MC head
•	spinde digit (soft tissue swelling)
•	Boutonniere (DIP extend, PIP flex)
•	Swan neck deformities (DIP flex, PIP extend)
•	Ulnar deviation at MCP jt
Wrist:  
•	Ulnar Styloid erosion
•	uniform loss of radiocarpal jt
•	erosions of triquetrum-pisiform
•	spotty carpal sign
•	pancarpal involvement
•	scapholunate dissociation
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33
Q

What is a marginal erosion?

A

irregular, no sclerotic margin (on sides of MC heads, esp radial)
• Marginal erosions: bare area; up to 1 yr; extend to central portions
• Erosions - gout

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34
Q

What is the significance of widening of the atlanto-dental interspace?

A

→ direct compress brainstem, neuro damage by excessive kyphosis
• C-spine (mc) involvement; few at T/L jxn
• dens erosions
• C1-C2 instability → neuro damage (enlarged; N < 3mm in adult, child <5); atlanto-axial subluxations
• Pseudobasilar invagination
• Facet involvement; stair-stepping (anterolisthesis; also in DJD)
• IVD involvement

35
Q

Which conditions demonstrate laxity of the transverse ligament (of atlas)?

A

inflammatory arthirtides affect tendons & ligs, joint membranes like the degeneratives (enthesopathy)

  • SLE, Down’s
  • possible w RA
36
Q

Is SI involvement common in RA?

A

No – if so, usu minimal sclerosis; UL or BL & asymmetric

37
Q

Describe the radiographic difference b/w RA & Psoriatic Arthritis in the hand & wrist:

A

Psoriatic looks similar to RA w/o hyperemia
PA:
• DIP and PIP jts of hand
• Ray pattern: effects all jts of a single digit
• st swelling
• Fluffy periostitis
• “Pencil in cup” deformity
• marginal erosions and tapered bone ends
• Asymmetrical w uniform joint space loss
RA:
• MCP’s (Haygarth’s nodes) & PIP’s
• marginal erosions (irregular, no sceroltic margin, Rat bite lesion)
• radial margins of 2-3 MC head
• Boutonniere (DIP extend, PIP flex)
• Swan neck deformities (DIP flex, PIP extend)
• Lanois deformity
• Ulnar deviation at MCP joint
• BL and symmetrical, uniform joint space loss
• (mc Protusio Acetabuli in pelvis)

38
Q

What is the gender incidence of the vertebral column & pelvis in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

o M:F 9:1 (of AS in general, including spine and pelvis)

o Onset 15-35

39
Q

What are the 1st and 2nd sites of involvement of the vertebral column & pelvis in AS?

A

o 1st: Pelvis: iliac side & lower 2/3 (synovial portion) of SIJ; symmetrical
o 2nd: Spine (spondylitis): TL and LS (probably) jxns mc initial spinal sites
o as a rule, spondylitis develops after SI dz

40
Q

Is SI involvement usu uni or bilat in AS?

A

bilateral and symmetrical

41
Q

What condition demonstrates squaring of the vertebral body?

A

AS

42
Q

What is the shiny corner sx?

A
  • ↑ radiodensity of corners of vertebral body, related to osteitis
  • reactive sclerosis in AS
  • at anterior vertebral margins assoc w Romanus lesions w AS (Romanus = erosion at insertion of outer annulus fibrosus into anterior corners of vertebral bodies, in AS)
43
Q

What is a “carrot stick” fracture?

A

fracture of an ankylosed segment in AS usu causes paralysis

44
Q

Which condition demonstrates similar SIJ & vertebral column findings to AS?

A

Enteropathic Arthropathy, Ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s dz; Whipple’s dz, Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia

45
Q

Which 2 seronegative spondyloarthropathies demonstrate non-marginal syndesmophytes & peripheral arthritis?

A

Psoriatic & Reiters

Non-marginal syndesmophytes= thicker, not throughout spine like AS

46
Q

Reversible deformities of the hand are seen in which condition?

A

SLE; may have ulnar deviation, like RA, but pt can overcome w/ mm contraction or pushing hand down onto a table, etc
o No erosions of the hand
o SLE reversible b/c ligs are lax, but jts not destroyed; not reversible with RA, etc

47
Q

What is acro-osteolysis & which condition demonstrates this finding?

A

resorbtion of the extremities (ie: distal phalanx) in psoriatic arthritis

48
Q

What is the overhanging margin sign & which condition is this seen in?

A

Pathognomonic for Gout = sclerotic margin outside jt capsule

49
Q

What structures are primarily involved in CPPD (calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystal deposition disease)?

A
  • fibrous & hyaline cartilage of knee, wrist, pubic symphysis
  • Fibrous: in meniscus, triangular shape
  • wrist and ulna: thick, irregular, mb poorly defined menisci, triangular cartilage
  • pubic symphysis, annulus fibrosis
  • Hyaline (end of bones): parallel to cortex, thin, linear
50
Q

What structures are primarily involved in HADD (hydroxyapatite deposition dz)?

A

o Shoulder & Hip MC; calcification near insertion of a tendon
o MC spot = supraspinatous tendon or bursa

51
Q

What is the most common source of osteoblastic metastatic carcinoma in adult females?

A

Breast CA

52
Q

List the three common causes of solitary sclerotic vertebral body.

A

Aka Ivory Vertebra
1- Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (anterior body scalloping)
2- Osteoblastic metastastic, MC
3- Paget’s Dz (cortical thickening and expansion)
Hint: Can’t differentiate end plates

53
Q

Is it common to find a tumor involving a joint?

A

NO. if jt involved, think arthritic dz before tumor

54
Q

Is multiple myeloma more common in the vertebral body or neural arch?

A

o MC vertebral body

o lateral lumbar: shows deformity of L4 vertebral body dt plasmacytoma (solitary myeloma)

55
Q

What malignancy demonstrates as a cold bone scan?

A

Multiple myeloma
Cold =looks normal
= ddx from mets

56
Q

Which is the most dense primary malignant bone tumor?

A

• Multiple myeloma, Osteosarcoma 2nd, Condrosarcoma 3rd (kid), Ewing’s 4th (kid)

57
Q

What is the common age range of primary osteosarcoma?

A

o 10-25 75%

o Older, 2nd peak: likely dt malignant degeneration of benign process

58
Q

What is the difference between sunburst and onion skin appearance?

A

o Sunburst = periosteal “spokes of a wheel” pattern; bad news; Sunburst: skull lesions (hemagiomas) often round or oval; lytic w striations in “sunburst” or “spoked wheel” pattern; characteristic of osteosarcoma;
o Onion skin (aka hair-on-end)= layered or laminated periosteal rxn, several parallel concentric layers periosteal new bone; benign or malig; most characteristic of Ewing’s tumor (Ewing’s sarcoma), or in osteosarcoma, acute, osteomyelitis, stress fractures, eosinophilic granuloma in very young

59
Q

Which part of the bone is commonly involved in osteosarcoma?

A

Metaphysis of long bone – esp distal femur, proximal tibia, proximal humerus (around knee mc)

60
Q

What is Codman’s triangle?

A
  • Periosteal bone formation mb interrupted or incompletely cover surface of a lesion; periosteum lifts off cortex (osteosarcomas)
  • Triangle, several layers of periosteal rxn at lesion margin of the lesion
  • used to be pathognomonic of bone sarcomas, but also in osteomyelitis
  • usu free of tumor; should be avoided as a site of bx
61
Q

Why is Ewing’s sarcoma commonly found in the diaphysis of long bone?

A

o arises from red BM, mainly in diaphysis, closely related to reticulum cell sarcoma
o Mimics radiographic appearance of “round cell” tumors, leukemia & metastatic neuroblastoma

62
Q

What is geographic appearance?

A

Geographic Lytic appearance – Geographic = well-defined margins, benign, non-aggressive lesion

63
Q

Which condition presents with solitary exostosis that points away from the nearest joint?

A

Osteochondroma (supercondylar process points toward elbow joint)

64
Q

What is the radiographic difference in appearance between osteochondroma and a benign solitary expansile osteolysis (= ABC)?

A

Osteochondroma
• Bony exostosis: cortex continuous with host bone; normal trabeculae
• pedunculated or sessile (asymmetric widening)
• Cartilaginous cap may calcify
• Projects away from joint
Benign Solitary expansile osteolysis (= aneurismal bone cyst)
• Expansile & very large
• Lytic & separated
• very thin cortex
• Only tumor that crosses growth plate (metaphysis to epiphysis)

65
Q

Compare the incidence of malignant transformation in osteochondroma and hereditary multiple exostosis.

A

Osteochondroma: 1%
HME: 20%

66
Q

What is a corduroy vertebra?

A

= lytic lesion w coarse vertical striations
• usu only at 1-2 vertebral bodies (osteoporosis mb many levels)
• occurs with hemangiomas (may look like Paget’s dz, osteoporosis)

67
Q

Is spinal hemangioma commonly solitary or polyostotic?

A

Solitary

68
Q

Which is the most common benign bone tumor of the spine?

A

Hemangioma (osteochondroma for entire body)

69
Q

Is a bone island (endostoma) symptomatic?

A

No. usu asx; any bone except skull

70
Q

Which condition demonstrates pain worst at night and easily relieved by aspirin?

A

Osteoid Osteoma (benign)

71
Q

Which part of the bone is usually involved with osteoid osteoma?

A
  • Can occur in any bone, mc cortices
  • MC proximal diaphysis and metaphysis
  • Subperiosteal: 50% in femur (esp proximal) and tibia, 20% phalanges; 10% spine (mostly neural arch)
72
Q

What is the appearance of the tumor matrix in enchondroma?

A
(= cartilage cyst in BM)
Geographic lytic
o	Expansile
o	stippled matrix calcification (calc in 50%)
o	Thinned cortex, endosteal scalloping
o	Metaphyseal- diaphyseal
o	Most central
o	No periosteal rxn, no soft tissue mass
o	MC mini long bones of hands, feet
73
Q

Why is it common to observe a short limb with enchondroma?

A

The masses increase in size as the child grows, along with asymmetrical shortening of a limb

74
Q

What is multiple enchondromatosis called?

A

Ollier’s Dz (& Maffucci’s syndrome but also has soft tissue hemangiomas/phleboliths)

75
Q

What is the most common location of fibrous cortical defect?

A
o	Lower extremity (90% in tibia or fibula)
o	Humerus
o	Ribs
o	Ilium
Usu in cortex
76
Q

What is a fallen fragment sign?

A
  • 2/3 of simple bone cysts undergo pathologic fractures
  • piece of bone seen on Xray below the pathologic fracture
  • piece of cortex falls into cyst (if it doesn’t fall = trap door sign)
77
Q

Which benign bone tumor is named according to its appearance rather than its histological composition?

A

ANEURYSMAL BONE CYST

• Cystic, blood filled cavity; “aneurysmal” in appearance

78
Q

Described the radiographic difference between an enchondroma, simple bone cyst, aneurysmal bone cyst and osteochondroma.

A
  • Endochondroma: Small round, central, geographic lytic
  • Simple Bone Cyst: central, expansile, subepiphyseal, osteolytic; “fallen fragment” sign
  • Aneurysmal bone cyst: Osteolytic, “soap bubble”; expansile cortex w thinning; blood filled
  • Osteochondroma: Sessile or pedunculated; “coat hanger” exostosis or cartilage “cauliflower cap”; lateral growth plate; points away from jt
79
Q

Is giant cell tumor painful?

A

yes

80
Q

Is Paget’s disease monostotic or polyostotic?

A

• Polyostotic (= more than one bone involved)

81
Q

List the radiographic features of Paget’s disease in a long bone

A

Plain film usu dx; bone scan can identify additional sites
o  or  bone density
o coarse (thick, less distinct) trabeculae
o thick cortex (less distinct)
o bone expansion
o subarticular extension
o pseudo-fractures (ie stress fractures thru bone)
o deformities
o Femur and tiba: blade of grass or candle frame appearance; V lesion; saber shin deformity; shepard’s crook (thick, bowing femur)

82
Q

o What is the most common organism responsible for bone and joint infection?

A

• Staphylococcus aureus

83
Q

o What terms are used to describe bone and joint infections?

A
o	Osteomyelitis:
•	Suppurative (90% staph aureus)
•	Nonsuppuratie (TB) & arthritis: T & L; TB spondylitis (Pott’s dz); TB arthritis
•	Syphilitic (treponema pallidu)
•	Mycotic: fungus