Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Part 2 Paediatrics > Developmental Paediatrics > Flashcards

Developmental Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

when do the anterior fontanelles close at?

A

between 10 and 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are some causes of delayed closure of the anterior fontanelle?

A

congenital hypothyroidism, hydrocephalus, rickets, genetic causes (trisomy 21, Russel silver syndrome, achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when does macrocephaly occur?

A

OFC is more than 2 SD than the average head size for age and sex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what should you ask for in the history of a child with a big head?

A

vomiting, high pitch cry, developmental delay
RF for hydrocephalus (preterm birth, IVH, meningitis, learning disability (ASD, fragile X) or family history of genetic syndrome as with macrocephaly (neurofibromatosis 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are red flags on examination of an enlarged head?

A

signs of raised ICP (bulging fontanelle, splaying of sutures, sunsetting of the eyes, papilloedema), evidence of developmental delay
syndromic features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the common causes of big head with a normal brain

A

familial, ASD, neurofibromatosis type 1, fragile X syndrome, benign enlargement of the subarachnoid space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the rarer causes of enlarged head with a normal brain on MRI?

A 
PTEN/ cowden/ proteus like syndrome 
costello syndrome 
sanfillipo syndrome 
glutamic acuduria type 1 
langerhans cell histiocytosis 
peutz jeghers syndrome 
sotos syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the causes of macrocephaly with abnormal brain

A

hydrocephalus
canavans disease
vanishing white matter syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is benign enlargement of the subarachnoid space?

A

enlargement of the subarachnoid space of cranial US, if normal Neuro and developmental exam then just need 6 monthly follow-up to make sure the head circumference is tracking correctly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what should you do to for urgent OFC with associated features of raised ICP?

A

ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what should you do with OFC that has crossed over 1 centile line without developmental delay

A

peads OPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

macrocephaly with syndromic features

A

referral to PEADS or genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

macrocephaly with developmental delay

A

PEADS for MRI brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the definition for microcephaly

A

this occurs when the OFC is greater than 2 SD smaller than the average head size and sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the congenital microcephaly?

A

this is small head size present at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is secondary microcephaly

A

this is normal OFC at birth with failure of normal head growth post natally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the signs of congenital cytomegalovirus?

A

microcephaly, cataracts, petechial rash, hepatosplenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are features of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

short palpebral fissures, smooth philtre, and and thin upper lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the causes of microcephaly?

A

craniosynostosis
familial
genetic (trisomy 13, monogenic disorder, cri du chat)
metabolic (aminoacidurias, organic acidurias, urea acid disorder)
prenatal (congenital infections (TORCH, zika), PKU alcohol syndrome
prenatal brain injury (birth hypoxia)
postnatal brain injury (IVH/infarct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

small head babies when should you order a scan?

A

head size very small greater than 3 SD below mean
head size not keeping with familial size
developmental delay
microcephaly is post natal onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when would you do CT over MRI in children with small head?

A

craniosynostosis, TORCH, Zika virus infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what should you do with a child that has small head and you suspect an underlying congenital infections

A 
Zika virus (serum and urine for Zika virus RNA, serum for Zika IgM)
TORCH (toxplasmosis, syphilis, rubella, CMV, herpes simplex virus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which of the TORCH infections are associated with microcephaly?

A

toxoplasmosis, CMV, HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what to do with microcephaly with delayed development?

A

order metabolic studies aminoacidurias, organic acidurias, and or very long chain fatty acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

isolated or primary microcephaly (greater than 3 SD below the mean) or microcephaly with associated syndromic or dysmorphic features

A

order genetic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is plagiocephaly?

A

parallelogram skull.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is posterior deformational plagiocephaly cause by?

A

infants position in utero, and sleeping position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the treatment for deformational plagiocephaly

A

PT, and tummy time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is craniosynostosis?

A

this is a birth defect in which the bones in a baby skull join together too early.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the weber part of the hearing test?

A

there is a web on top of your head… you put the fork on the top of the head.
equal= normal
senorineural: sound louder on the good side
conductive: louder on the bad side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the rinne test

A

this compares bone conduction with air conduction.
tuning fork is places on the mastoid bone.
normal/ sensorineural: air greater than bone
conduction hearing loss: bone is louder than air conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are risk factors for vision problems

A 
prematurity 
low birth weight 
downs syndrome 
marfan syndrome 
juvenile arthritis 
diabetes 
retinopathy 
history of ocular injury 
family history of visual problems cataract, squint, medical conditions kwon to be associated with visual problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what vision checks do a newborn need

A

red eye reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what does a 6 week check baby need to check with eye development

A

red reflex
fix and follow
visual behaviour

35
Q

vision check at 6 months

A

red reflex
fix and follow visual behaviour looking at the own hands, reaching out for toys, recognising parents faces, watch what goes on around them

36
Q

up to 3 years check vision what to look for?

A

red reflex
fix and follow eye movements
pupils are they equal and reactive
eye inspection: opening normal Is there ptosis or obvious misalignment
visual behaviour: is the child interested in pictures, do they point at items they want, do they look at windows, recognise people play peek a boo.

37
Q

what does the red reflex look for

A

retinoblastoma, cataract

38
Q

when should you refer to paediatric ophthalmology?

A

if a child cannot fix and follow by 3 months

39
Q

what does esotropia mean?

A

eye turning inwards

40
Q

what does exotropia mean?

A

outward facing eye

41
Q

what does hypertropia mean?

A

up ward facing eye

42
Q

what does hypotropia mean?

A

downward facing eye

43
Q

what is strabismus

A

medical term for lazy eye

44
Q

what causes strabismus

A

hypermetropia, myopia, and astigmatism

45
Q

what is the definition of infertile strabismus

A

before 6 months

46
Q

what is the definition of acquired strabismus

A

after 6 months

47
Q

what should you think of in acute onset squint?

A

raised ICP, SOL, infraction

48
Q

what is a comitant squint

A

this is a non paralytic squint, the degree of misalignment is the same in all directions. This is typical for infantile strabismus

49
Q

what is incomitant strabismus?

A

this is a paralytic squint, this misalignment varies depending on the direction of the gaze. ,ay be caused by restriction or paralysis of the extra ocular muscles.

50
Q

CN VI palsy

A

abducens nerve (lateral rectus muscle)
moves the eye laterally
esotropia (inward deviation of the eye)

51
Q

CN IV palsies

A

trochlear nerve which supplies the superior oblique muscle

moves the eye inferiorly mainly when the eye is adducted. This leads to hypertrophia (upward deviation of the eye)

52
Q

CRANIAL NERVE 3 palsy

A

oculomotor nerve which supplies the remaining ocular muscles to allow for visual tracking and gaze fixation.
parasympathetic supple to the pupils and the lens
opposes the action of the lateral rectus muscle and the superior oblique
eyelid opening
this leads to exotropia (outward deviation of the eye) and hypotropia (downward deviation of the eye) down and out.

53
Q

what should you be thinking about in a child with strabismus?

A 
preterm birth
low birth weight 
medical conditions: graves, orbital fracture, cranio facial syndrome, cranial dysinnervation, craniosynostosis, myasthenia grains, supranuclear palsies. 
assisted delivery 
retinopathy of prematurity 
family history
54
Q

diplopia

A

double vision

55
Q

amblyopia

A

decreased vision in an anatomically normal eye caused by suppression

56
Q

what are the causes of sensorineural hearing loss?

A

noise exposure, acoustic trauma, disease and infections (MMR)
head trauma
tumours
medications

57
Q

what are the congenital causes of SNHL

A

hereditary
secondary to CMV, zika, rubella, syphilis
toxin exposure: quinine, alcohol, retinoid acid, maternal thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies, anti-elliptic medications

58
Q

what is visual reinforcement audiology

A

6 months to 2 years old

59
Q

describe the Apgar score: A

A

appearance: 0 :blue or pale
1 point: acrocyanotic (pink or blue extremities)
2: completely pink

60
Q

APGAR score: P

A

pulse: absent 0
1 point: less than 100
2 point: greater than 100

61
Q

APGAR: G

A

grimace: no response
1: grimace
2 cry

62
Q

Apgar score: A (second)

A

activity: tone
0: floppy
1 point: some flexion
2 points: active motion

63
Q

APGAR: R

A

respiration:
0: absent
1: weak cry; hypoventilation
2: vigorous crying

64
Q

OAE otoacoustic emission test

A

small probe place in the ear. measures the echo back.

65
Q

what does the heel prick test pick up

A

sickle cell disease, CF, congenital hypothyroidism, inherited metabolic conditions

66
Q

rotten reflex

A

stroke the cheek near the corner of the mouth, infant turn toward the stimulation disappears by 3 weeks

67
Q

sucking reflex

A

put finger in the infants mouth infant sucks rhythmically*3-4 months disappears

68
Q

stepping reflex

A

disappears at 2months hold the infant under the arms and let the bare feet touch a flat surface, the infant lifts one foot and then the other.

69
Q

the palmer grasp reflex

A

palce finger in infants hand and press fingers into palm, infant will grasp the finger. this disappears by 3 to 4 months

70
Q

symmetrical tonic reflex (ATNR)

A

turn infants head to one side while the infant is lying on back. the infant extends one arm in front of the eyes and other arm is flexed (fencing position) disappears in 4 to 6 months

71
Q

moro reflex

A

hold infant on back and let head drop, infant should startle. this disappears at 4 to 6 months

72
Q

swimming reflex

A

infant will move arms and legs in swimming motion this disappears at 6 months

73
Q

glant reflex

A

stroke the skin on the side of the infants back. the infant will tend to move or swing to that side. disappears at 6 months

74
Q

babinski sign

A

stroke the bottom of the foot, that baby will curl there toes. disappears at 12 months. a positive test after this will be splaying of the toes.

75
Q

how much sleep does a one year old need

A

15 hours

76
Q

how much sleep does a 2 year old need

A

14 hours

77
Q

how much sleep does a newborn need

A

17 hours

78
Q

how much sleep does a 10 year old need

A

12 hours

79
Q

what is a dyssomnia

A

the most common sleep disorder in childhood, disturbance of body natural resting and waking cycles.

80
Q

what is a parasomnia

A

disturbing sleep related to sleep onset, night mares, night terrors, sleep walking and talking, rhythmic movement disorder

81
Q

hypersomnia

A

narcolepsy ]idiopathic hypersonic

recurrent hypersonic

82
Q

sleep disordered breathing

A

body thinks the child is chocking and wakes the child up. passes in breathing during sleep, bed wetting, slow growth and irritability during the day.

83
Q

what is the screening tool used to identify sleep problems in childhood?

A 
bears 
bedtime problems 
excessive daytime sleepiness
awareness during the night
regularity and duration sleep 
snoring

Part 2 Paediatrics (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions