Detailed Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Phenytoin causes…

A

Hypoplastic nails
Typical facies
FGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Isoretinoin causes…

A

Facial and ear anomalies

Congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diethylstilbestrol causes…

A

Vaginal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tetracycline causes…

A

Enamel hypoplastic

Discolored teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lithium causes…

A

Ebstein anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Warfarin causes…

A

Facial dysmorphism

Chondrodysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Valproate/carbamazepine causes…

A

Mental retardation

Neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ACE inhibitors cause…

A

Craniofacial abnormalities

Oligohydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vitamin A causes…

A

Spontaneous abortion
Microcephaly
Cardiac anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Occurrence policy

A

Coverage for all incidents occurring while the policy is active even if reported after the policy expires, preferred among physicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Claims-made policy

A

Coverage for claims that arise from events that take place and are reported while the policy is in force; premiums are low but increase with time as likelihood of claims increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Claims-paid policy

A

Coverage when a claim is made regardless of when the claim occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tail coverage

A

Protects physician against claims reported after the termination of claims-made policy for events that occurred when the policy was in effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MOA TXA

A

Reversibly blocks lysine binding on plasminogen to inhibit the fibrinolytic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MOA heparin

A

Binding to and activating antithrombin III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MOA vitamin K

A

Cofactor required for biosynthesis of gamma-carboxyglutamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MOA thrombin

A

Converting soluble fibrinogen into fibrin monomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cause is uterine septum

A

Failed dissolution of medial mullerian duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Metabolic syndrome criteria (5)

A
waist circumference 
Triglycerides 
Low HDL
BP elevated 
FSG >100
20
Q

Treatment of central diabetes insipid is

A

Intranasal desmopressin

21
Q

Blastocyst divides day 8-12 produces what type of twinsy

22
Q

Higher cutoff for GTT (3)

A
  • Higher specificity (correctly identifying women without gDM)
  • improves positive predictive value
  • lower false positive rates
23
Q

FHT will show… due to decreased oxygen tension sensed by fetal chemoreceptors

A

Late decelerations

24
Q

Partner treatment for gonorrhea

A

Cefixime 800mg PO once

25
Maternal indications for fetal echo (5)
``` Retinoid exposure IVF First trimester rubella Pre gestational DM Gestational DM diagnosed 1T/early 2T ```
26
Paclitaxel MOA
Stabilizing microtubule polymers preventing disassembly and thereby halting mitosis -mitotic inhibitor
27
Paclitaxel side effects
N/V, alopecia, myelosuppression, peripheral neuropathy
28
Etoposide MOA
Topoisomerase II inhibitor causing DNA breaks
29
Vincritine MOA
Vinca alkaloid Mitosis phase Binding to tubulin and inhibits microtuble formation, arresting cell at metaphase
30
Soft marker in 2nd T US is strongest “soft marker” of T21
Thickened nuchal fold
31
Relative contraindications of methotrexate for ectopic (4)
FCA+ HCG >5000 Ectopic >4cm Refusal to accept blood products
32
MOA anastrozole
Aromatase inhibitor, inhibits conversion of androgens to estrogen
33
MOA danazol
Antiestrogen due to weak androgen, anabolic steroid, and progestogen properties
34
MOA finasteride
Inhibiting 5 alpha-reduce trade which transforms testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
35
MOA flutamide
Binds androgen receptors, preventing binding of androgens | -SE of dry skin and hepatitis
36
Treatment for bleeding causes by vonWillibond
Desmopressin
37
Dactinomycin
Treatment for low GTN for those who are resistant to MTX or have elevated liver enzymes
38
Modified radical hysterectomy
Type II | Removal of uterus, cervix, proximal vagina (1-2cm), parametrial, paracervical tissues, and half of uterosacral ligaments
39
Radical hysterectomy
Type III Removal of uterus, cervix, entire cardinal ligament including uterine arteries up to origin at internal iliac artery, uterosacral ligaments, at least 2-3 of upper vagina, and full ureteral dissection
40
SSRI with increase risk of cardiac defects
Paroxetine
41
Complication of SSRIs in third trimester
Persistent pulmonary hypertension of newborn
42
Feminizing therapy for transgender women
Estradiol and spironolactone
43
Prophylaxis for travelers diarrhea
Rifaximin
44
Preferred treatment of group A strep
Penicillin and clindamycin
45
Presentation of group a strep in pregnant women
Fever, chills, abdominal pain Typically from exposure to young kids Gram stain w/ cocci in chains