DESK DPE Flashcards
1
Q
T or F—The desk sergeant will instruct all entry control points to stop all in-bound and out-bound traffic when an alarm originates from AA&E facilities.
A
True
2
Q
How many security forces members make up a response force
A
15 members responding within 5 minutes
3
Q
What procedures will be used when emergency response vehicles and personnel need to enter the BFTF
A
Allow entry using the established sigh/countersign once notified of a valid emergency
4
Q
How many security forces members make up an augmentation force
A
44 members responding in 4 hours
5
Q
Security for limited life components, classified nuclear support material and, sanitized aircraft is referred to as…
A
Type 2
6
Q
During a bomb threat what is the initial cordon size if the device is larger than a 55 gallon drum
A
1000 feet
7
Q
Who can you release a military member to
A
First sergeant, unit or section commander, supervisor E-7 or above
8
Q
Under what circumstances are OFF BASE pursuits authorized
A
To contain a suspect who has committed a felony, theft of classified materials, or if weapons are involved. Only when approved by on duty flight chief
9
Q
How many security forces members make up a back-up force
A
17 members responding within 30 minutes
10
Q
The 412th security forces squadron will provide funds escorts for funds in excess of….
A
$25,000
11
Q
T or F—Security forces members conducting a funds escort are authorized to carry money for funds custodian
A
False
12
Q
During a bomb threat, what is the initial cordon size if the device is smaller than a 55 gallon drum
A
500 feet
13
Q
Who should a civilian detained for a minor offense be released to
A
Relative, friend, or themselves
14
Q
What form is issued to all personnel when criminal conduct adversely affects victims or when witnesses provide information regarding criminal activity
A
DD Form 2701
15
Q
What is a TACAMO aircraft
A
Navy E-6 aircraft that temporally fly in and out of EAFB. Stands for Take Charge and Move Out
16
Q
What is the term used to describe an unclassified up-channel report informing higher headquarters of an unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2 ,or 3 resources, probably or actually hostile occurring at an instillation or dispersed site
A
Covered Wagon
17
Q
Personnel are prohibited from consuming ANY intoxicating substances with-in how many hours prior to duty and while on duty
A
8 hours
18
Q
RIEPC’s are not considered a search but are used as a tool by the installation commander to look for what
A
Stolen government property and illegal contraband
19
Q
Who should be present when advising a juvenile of their rights
A
Parent or legal guardian if possible. If not, 2 security forces members
20
Q
What is type 2 security
A
Security for limited life components, classified nuclear support material, or sanitized aircraft
21
Q
When should you complete the field interview card
A
On all contacts suspicious in nature
22
Q
An individual approaches an installation gate and requests political asylum. After several minutes, the individual withdraws his or her request and wants to leave. Are they free to leave
A
Yes, as long as they are not suspected of criminal activity
23
Q
What are the curfew hours for juveniles on a Saturday night
A
2400-0600
24
Q
An unclassified message relayed by the ECC to the Edwards command post of an unusual incident, possibly hostile affecting PL 1, 2 ,or 3 resources is called what
A
Security Incident
25
Who has escort authority on the flightline
Anyone with the appropriate area designation open on their 1199 has escort authority for that area
26
Personnel visiting Edwards AFB will be issued an AF Form 75. How long may an entry controller issue the pass for
72 hours
27
What is the definition of a code 4
Code used to check for outstanding want and warrants on a person or vehicle
28
What is the definition of a code 1 response
Routine response
29
What is the definition of a code 2 response
Urgent response
30
What actions should be taken when a military member is entering the base and refuses to comply with a RIEPC
Apprehend the individual for refusal to comply and transport to the ECC
31
What actions do you take when a taxi cab arrives at the gate to pick up a passenger in base housing
Stop the taxi, verify the pick-up, and verify the driver license and insurance
32
What actions should the security forces controller take when a funds custodian requests a funds escort
Notify the responding patrol by radio of the vehicles description and destination. Notify flight chief. Log the escort on AF Form 3136
33
Who will the ECC report all incidents involving victim or witness harassment, intimidation, or persons requiring protection to
Security Forces Investigations
34
Activities that transfer funds without a SF escort will provide the Security Forces controller with what information
Starting point, destination, vehicle description, and license plate number
35
Who is authorized to terminate a covered wagon
Installation commander or designee
36
During a major accident, how do you determine the location of the ECP
Located up-wind or cross-wind if up-wind is not available, on the perimeter of the cordon, within s 90 degree arc on either side of the current surface wind
37
When a crime scene is established, what form is used to account for all personnel that enter or exit the area
AF Form 1109
38
Individuals that have access to CLETS will be given what type of CLETS access and operator rights
Less Than Full Access Oporators
39
T or F---Desk sergeants can make inquires into any CLETS system and perform update functions as necessary
False
40
T or F---As a CLETS operator you are authorized to conduct a search utilizing the system anytime for any reason to include checking your own background status
False
41
What is the definition of a major accident
An accident that results in a fatality, injury, or vehicle/property damage above the amount set by the installation commander
42
Which agency is responsible for handling wild animals
Environmental Management
43
In what direction will personnel be evacuated from an incident scene involving possible hazards
Up-wind or Cross-wind
44
Who should the desk sergeant notify when there is reasonable belief that a crime against a child has occurred
Family advocacy, subjects first sergeant, and AFOSI
45
During a HAZMAT or CBRNE incident, which agencies must SF contact to coordinate the collection of evidence
HAZMAT team and FBI
46
In which zones will security forces not operate in during HAZMAT incidents
Warm and Hot zones
47
What are three zones established during a HAZMAT or CBRNE incident
Hot, Warm, an Cold zones
48
Who authorizes access through the ECP of a major accident
Incident commander or designated representative
49
What factors influence the size and location of cordon/ECP
Type of incident, amount/type of materials involved, and weather conditions
50
Who determines the size of the cordon around a major accident
Incident commander
51
How many patrols are required for a domestic violence response call
2
52
When a call is received indicating the possibility that family violence has occurred what actions should the controller take
Gather as much information as possible from the caller, check the local firearms roster, ask for the telephone number where the call is being made from, and relay information to responding patrols
53
What actions may security forces take in domestic violence situations
Temporary separation, apprehension, or referral
54
During a catastrophic alarm failure, who is responsible for guarding the facility until the alarm is repaired or resources are relocated to another facility with the appropriate security measures
Alarm custodian
55
What actions will BDOC accomplish during a catastrophic alarm failure
Brief patrols to conduct checks of alarmed facilities, recall facility alarm custodians, and notify ESS
56
Under what circumstances may it be necessary to establish a National Defense Area
Protection level resources diverted to civilian airports or accidents involving nuclear weapons ground convoys
57
Where are NDAs established
Established in the CONUS and U.S. territories when necessary to secure PL 1, 2, or 3 resources located off installation lands not under the jurisdiction or administration of, or in the custody of DOD
58
Who has the authority to establish a National Defense Area
412 TW/CC
59
Effective enforcement require the boundary of an NDA to be clearly defined. How will SF personnel clearly define the boundary of the NDA
Temporary barrier such as rope or wire and put National Defense Area Warning signs
60
During an unannounced aircraft landing situation, which agency does the desk sergeant coordinate with if blocking actions are necessary
Control Tower
61
Type 1 security requires who to be present
A senior SF supervisor and on-scene coordinator
62
Who acts as on-scene coordinator for type 1 operations
412 MSG/CC
63
Where will the seal numbers for the aircraft hatches to a Type 1 aircraft be recorded
Back of the crew EAL
64
SF members will not consume any form of intoxicant while on duty or within how many hours of a tour of duty
8 hours
65
Showing favoritism, overlooking violations, or otherwise failing to enforce the law is defined as
Seeking Favors
66
T or F---You have the authority to punish offenders
False, we may correct, caution, or warn
67
What AFI governs Use of Force by Air Force Personnel
AFI 31-117
68
Give me 4 considerations an officer makes when determining whether to continue a vehicle pursuit
Local policy, danger to the public, mission impact, and weather and road conditions
69
Who may terminate a vehicle pursuit at anytime
On-duty SF supervisor or flight chief
70
T or F---If a vehicle does not have operational emergency lights and sirens, it can be utilized for vehicle pursuits as long as the officer determines it is safe
False
71
When in a vehicle pursuit what information should the patrol be relaying to the ECC
Direction of travel, vehicle description and license plate, number of occupants, exact reason for the pursuit, traffic conditions, and other details necessary to assist other patrols in the area
72
You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticked based on the violators race
Personal attitudes
73
Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to what AFI
AFI 31-117
74
What are the three sources of military jurisdiction
The US constitution, federal statutes, and international laws
75
What article of the UCMJ identifies who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law
Article 2
76
What article of the UCMJ identifies where and what locations the UCMJ can be enforced
Article 5
77
Under article 5 of the UCMJ where can the UCMJ be enforced
Everywhere
78
What articles of the UCMJ are considered the Punitive Articles
Articles 77-134
79
What are the 4 types of military jurisdiction
Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and partial
80
As an SF member, you have authority to give lawful orders in the execution of your duties. What article of the UCMJ gives you that authority
Article 92
81
Your authority to apprehend military members comes from what Rule for Courts-Martial and UCMJ article
302 Manual of Courts-Martial and Article 7B of the UCMJ
82
T or F---If SF choose to operate outside of established guidelines or act in an unprofessional manner he/she may be subject to a civilian lawsuit
True
83
In order to make any statements made by a suspect eligible for use in a legal procedure, a proper ________ must be given
Rights Advisement
84
What is a spontaneous utterance
Occurs when an individual you make contact with voluntarily makes an incriminating statement
85
Active duty members will be advised of their according to what article of the UCMJ
Article 31
86
What should you do if while questioning a witness he/she says something incriminating or causes suspicion
Immediately stop the questioning and read them their rights
87
Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces
UCMJ
88
Which UCMJ article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law
Article 2
89
The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and partial
90
The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations when
the government has exclusive jurisdiction
91
Under concurrent jurisdiction the state has
property rights only
92
Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a SF member
Article 92
93
In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on what
Opinion and belief
94
Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you contact
legal
95
Air Force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released to who
Supervisor(E-7 or above), First Sergeant, or Commander
96
What federal agency governs our electronic communication structure and provides guidance on communication transmitted over the airways and radios
Federal Communication Commission(FCC)
97
What are the current duress words
Check with S5
98
What are the current emergency response codes
Check with S5
99
T or F---BDOC is a restricted area
False
100
What are the FCC prohibited radio practices
Use of profane language, transmission of unnecessary, extravagant, false, or deceptive signals. Does not allow for transmitting music or commercial radio signals
101
There are 2 ways you can communicate duress. if you press the red button on the top of your radio this is known as
Active duress
102
Who is authorized to conduct a complete(dismantling) vehicle search
AFOSI
103
What areas does a search incident to apprehension include
The immediate area over which the apprehended/detained person exercised control over
104
Witnesses and victims at a crime scene will be given what form
DD Form 2701
105
What are the 2 types of classifications for traffic accidents
Minor an Major
106
How is a minor vehicle accident classified
There are no fatalities/injuries(claimed or obvious) and vehicle/property damage above the amount set buy the installation commander
107
How is a major vehicle accident classified
If it results in a fatality/injury, or the vehicle/property damage is above the amount set by the installation commander
108
What form is used for Authority to Search and Seize
AF Form 1176
109
What form is used for Consent for Search and Seizure
AF Form 1364
110
What form is used for an incident report
AF Form 3545
111
What form is used to document personal contact information of a suspicious person or incident
AF Form 3907
112
What is a DD Form 1408
Armed Forces Traffic Citation
113
What copy of the DD Form 1408 do you give to the violator
Pink
114
Who is a CVB From 1805 issued to
Civilians
115
What is a DD Form 1920
Alcohol Incident Report
116
What is a DD Form 2708
Receipt for Pre-Trial /Post-Trial prisoner or detained person
117
Aircraft plots will be conducted when
Within the first hour after guard mount breaks
118
During an incident, the Desk Sergeant will utilize established QRCs the assist with operations, in some cases there may not be an established QRC. Who should be notified or consulted for any cases not covered in a QRC
Flight Chief or Higher Authority
119
Where will all BOLOs be recorded
DBIDS
120
All personnel involved in a traffic stop or a domestic dispute will have their criminal records checked utilizing what system
CLETS and D-DEx
121
Who must be notified of complaints involving child and spouse abuse
Unit commander responsible for the members and family advocacy
122
What are the 4 phases of a natural disaster response
Notification, initial emergency, sustained emergency, and recovery
123
T or F---SF patrols may assist with vehicle lock-outs whenever possible
False
124
POV drivers may complete a minor vehicle accident report at BDOC, but must do so with-in how many hours
72 hours
125
What form must be completed by patrols who respond to a major accident
AF Form 1315
