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DESK > DESK DPE > Flashcards

DESK DPE Flashcards

1
Q

T or F—The desk sergeant will instruct all entry control points to stop all in-bound and out-bound traffic when an alarm originates from AA&E facilities.

A

True

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2
Q

How many security forces members make up a response force

A

15 members responding within 5 minutes

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3
Q

What procedures will be used when emergency response vehicles and personnel need to enter the BFTF

A

Allow entry using the established sigh/countersign once notified of a valid emergency

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4
Q

How many security forces members make up an augmentation force

A

44 members responding in 4 hours

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5
Q

Security for limited life components, classified nuclear support material and, sanitized aircraft is referred to as…

A

Type 2

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6
Q

During a bomb threat what is the initial cordon size if the device is larger than a 55 gallon drum

A

1000 feet

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7
Q

Who can you release a military member to

A

First sergeant, unit or section commander, supervisor E-7 or above

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8
Q

Under what circumstances are OFF BASE pursuits authorized

A

To contain a suspect who has committed a felony, theft of classified materials, or if weapons are involved. Only when approved by on duty flight chief

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9
Q

How many security forces members make up a back-up force

A

17 members responding within 30 minutes

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10
Q

The 412th security forces squadron will provide funds escorts for funds in excess of….

A

$25,000

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11
Q

T or F—Security forces members conducting a funds escort are authorized to carry money for funds custodian

A

False

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12
Q

During a bomb threat, what is the initial cordon size if the device is smaller than a 55 gallon drum

A

500 feet

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13
Q

Who should a civilian detained for a minor offense be released to

A

Relative, friend, or themselves

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14
Q

What form is issued to all personnel when criminal conduct adversely affects victims or when witnesses provide information regarding criminal activity

A

DD Form 2701

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15
Q

What is a TACAMO aircraft

A

Navy E-6 aircraft that temporally fly in and out of EAFB. Stands for Take Charge and Move Out

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16
Q

What is the term used to describe an unclassified up-channel report informing higher headquarters of an unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2 ,or 3 resources, probably or actually hostile occurring at an instillation or dispersed site

A

Covered Wagon

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17
Q

Personnel are prohibited from consuming ANY intoxicating substances with-in how many hours prior to duty and while on duty

A

8 hours

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18
Q

RIEPC’s are not considered a search but are used as a tool by the installation commander to look for what

A

Stolen government property and illegal contraband

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19
Q

Who should be present when advising a juvenile of their rights

A

Parent or legal guardian if possible. If not, 2 security forces members

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20
Q

What is type 2 security

A

Security for limited life components, classified nuclear support material, or sanitized aircraft

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21
Q

When should you complete the field interview card

A

On all contacts suspicious in nature

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22
Q

An individual approaches an installation gate and requests political asylum. After several minutes, the individual withdraws his or her request and wants to leave. Are they free to leave

A

Yes, as long as they are not suspected of criminal activity

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23
Q

What are the curfew hours for juveniles on a Saturday night

A

2400-0600

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24
Q

An unclassified message relayed by the ECC to the Edwards command post of an unusual incident, possibly hostile affecting PL 1, 2 ,or 3 resources is called what

A

Security Incident

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25
Q

Who has escort authority on the flightline

A

Anyone with the appropriate area designation open on their 1199 has escort authority for that area

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26
Q

Personnel visiting Edwards AFB will be issued an AF Form 75. How long may an entry controller issue the pass for

A

72 hours

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27
Q

What is the definition of a code 4

A

Code used to check for outstanding want and warrants on a person or vehicle

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28
Q

What is the definition of a code 1 response

A

Routine response

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29
Q

What is the definition of a code 2 response

A

Urgent response

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30
Q

What actions should be taken when a military member is entering the base and refuses to comply with a RIEPC

A

Apprehend the individual for refusal to comply and transport to the ECC

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31
Q

What actions do you take when a taxi cab arrives at the gate to pick up a passenger in base housing

A

Stop the taxi, verify the pick-up, and verify the driver license and insurance

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32
Q

What actions should the security forces controller take when a funds custodian requests a funds escort

A

Notify the responding patrol by radio of the vehicles description and destination. Notify flight chief. Log the escort on AF Form 3136

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33
Q

Who will the ECC report all incidents involving victim or witness harassment, intimidation, or persons requiring protection to

A

Security Forces Investigations

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34
Q

Activities that transfer funds without a SF escort will provide the Security Forces controller with what information

A

Starting point, destination, vehicle description, and license plate number

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35
Q

Who is authorized to terminate a covered wagon

A

Installation commander or designee

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36
Q

During a major accident, how do you determine the location of the ECP

A

Located up-wind or cross-wind if up-wind is not available, on the perimeter of the cordon, within s 90 degree arc on either side of the current surface wind

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37
Q

When a crime scene is established, what form is used to account for all personnel that enter or exit the area

A

AF Form 1109

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38
Q

Individuals that have access to CLETS will be given what type of CLETS access and operator rights

A

Less Than Full Access Oporators

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39
Q

T or F—Desk sergeants can make inquires into any CLETS system and perform update functions as necessary

A

False

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40
Q

T or F—As a CLETS operator you are authorized to conduct a search utilizing the system anytime for any reason to include checking your own background status

A

False

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41
Q

What is the definition of a major accident

A

An accident that results in a fatality, injury, or vehicle/property damage above the amount set by the installation commander

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42
Q

Which agency is responsible for handling wild animals

A

Environmental Management

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43
Q

In what direction will personnel be evacuated from an incident scene involving possible hazards

A

Up-wind or Cross-wind

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44
Q

Who should the desk sergeant notify when there is reasonable belief that a crime against a child has occurred

A

Family advocacy, subjects first sergeant, and AFOSI

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45
Q

During a HAZMAT or CBRNE incident, which agencies must SF contact to coordinate the collection of evidence

A

HAZMAT team and FBI

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46
Q

In which zones will security forces not operate in during HAZMAT incidents

A

Warm and Hot zones

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47
Q

What are three zones established during a HAZMAT or CBRNE incident

A

Hot, Warm, an Cold zones

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48
Q

Who authorizes access through the ECP of a major accident

A

Incident commander or designated representative

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49
Q

What factors influence the size and location of cordon/ECP

A

Type of incident, amount/type of materials involved, and weather conditions

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50
Q

Who determines the size of the cordon around a major accident

A

Incident commander

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51
Q

How many patrols are required for a domestic violence response call

A

2

52
Q

When a call is received indicating the possibility that family violence has occurred what actions should the controller take

A

Gather as much information as possible from the caller, check the local firearms roster, ask for the telephone number where the call is being made from, and relay information to responding patrols

53
Q

What actions may security forces take in domestic violence situations

A

Temporary separation, apprehension, or referral

54
Q

During a catastrophic alarm failure, who is responsible for guarding the facility until the alarm is repaired or resources are relocated to another facility with the appropriate security measures

A

Alarm custodian

55
Q

What actions will BDOC accomplish during a catastrophic alarm failure

A

Brief patrols to conduct checks of alarmed facilities, recall facility alarm custodians, and notify ESS

56
Q

Under what circumstances may it be necessary to establish a National Defense Area

A

Protection level resources diverted to civilian airports or accidents involving nuclear weapons ground convoys

57
Q

Where are NDAs established

A

Established in the CONUS and U.S. territories when necessary to secure PL 1, 2, or 3 resources located off installation lands not under the jurisdiction or administration of, or in the custody of DOD

58
Q

Who has the authority to establish a National Defense Area

A

412 TW/CC

59
Q

Effective enforcement require the boundary of an NDA to be clearly defined. How will SF personnel clearly define the boundary of the NDA

A

Temporary barrier such as rope or wire and put National Defense Area Warning signs

60
Q

During an unannounced aircraft landing situation, which agency does the desk sergeant coordinate with if blocking actions are necessary

A

Control Tower

61
Q

Type 1 security requires who to be present

A

A senior SF supervisor and on-scene coordinator

62
Q

Who acts as on-scene coordinator for type 1 operations

A

412 MSG/CC

63
Q

Where will the seal numbers for the aircraft hatches to a Type 1 aircraft be recorded

A

Back of the crew EAL

64
Q

SF members will not consume any form of intoxicant while on duty or within how many hours of a tour of duty

A

8 hours

65
Q

Showing favoritism, overlooking violations, or otherwise failing to enforce the law is defined as

A

Seeking Favors

66
Q

T or F—You have the authority to punish offenders

A

False, we may correct, caution, or warn

67
Q

What AFI governs Use of Force by Air Force Personnel

A

AFI 31-117

68
Q

Give me 4 considerations an officer makes when determining whether to continue a vehicle pursuit

A

Local policy, danger to the public, mission impact, and weather and road conditions

69
Q

Who may terminate a vehicle pursuit at anytime

A

On-duty SF supervisor or flight chief

70
Q

T or F—If a vehicle does not have operational emergency lights and sirens, it can be utilized for vehicle pursuits as long as the officer determines it is safe

A

False

71
Q

When in a vehicle pursuit what information should the patrol be relaying to the ECC

A

Direction of travel, vehicle description and license plate, number of occupants, exact reason for the pursuit, traffic conditions, and other details necessary to assist other patrols in the area

72
Q

You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticked based on the violators race

A

Personal attitudes

73
Q

Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to what AFI

A

AFI 31-117

74
Q

What are the three sources of military jurisdiction

A

The US constitution, federal statutes, and international laws

75
Q

What article of the UCMJ identifies who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law

A

Article 2

76
Q

What article of the UCMJ identifies where and what locations the UCMJ can be enforced

A

Article 5

77
Q

Under article 5 of the UCMJ where can the UCMJ be enforced

A

Everywhere

78
Q

What articles of the UCMJ are considered the Punitive Articles

A

Articles 77-134

79
Q

What are the 4 types of military jurisdiction

A

Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and partial

80
Q

As an SF member, you have authority to give lawful orders in the execution of your duties. What article of the UCMJ gives you that authority

A

Article 92

81
Q

Your authority to apprehend military members comes from what Rule for Courts-Martial and UCMJ article

A

302 Manual of Courts-Martial and Article 7B of the UCMJ

82
Q

T or F—If SF choose to operate outside of established guidelines or act in an unprofessional manner he/she may be subject to a civilian lawsuit

A

True

83
Q

In order to make any statements made by a suspect eligible for use in a legal procedure, a proper ________ must be given

A

Rights Advisement

84
Q

What is a spontaneous utterance

A

Occurs when an individual you make contact with voluntarily makes an incriminating statement

85
Q

Active duty members will be advised of their according to what article of the UCMJ

A

Article 31

86
Q

What should you do if while questioning a witness he/she says something incriminating or causes suspicion

A

Immediately stop the questioning and read them their rights

87
Q

Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces

A

UCMJ

88
Q

Which UCMJ article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law

A

Article 2

89
Q

The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are

A

Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and partial

90
Q

The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations when

A

the government has exclusive jurisdiction

91
Q

Under concurrent jurisdiction the state has

A

property rights only

92
Q

Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a SF member

A

Article 92

93
Q

In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on what

A

Opinion and belief

94
Q

Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you contact

A

legal

95
Q

Air Force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released to who

A

Supervisor(E-7 or above), First Sergeant, or Commander

96
Q

What federal agency governs our electronic communication structure and provides guidance on communication transmitted over the airways and radios

A

Federal Communication Commission(FCC)

97
Q

What are the current duress words

A

Check with S5

98
Q

What are the current emergency response codes

A

Check with S5

99
Q

T or F—BDOC is a restricted area

A

False

100
Q

What are the FCC prohibited radio practices

A

Use of profane language, transmission of unnecessary, extravagant, false, or deceptive signals. Does not allow for transmitting music or commercial radio signals

101
Q

There are 2 ways you can communicate duress. if you press the red button on the top of your radio this is known as

A

Active duress

102
Q

Who is authorized to conduct a complete(dismantling) vehicle search

A

AFOSI

103
Q

What areas does a search incident to apprehension include

A

The immediate area over which the apprehended/detained person exercised control over

104
Q

Witnesses and victims at a crime scene will be given what form

A

DD Form 2701

105
Q

What are the 2 types of classifications for traffic accidents

A

Minor an Major

106
Q

How is a minor vehicle accident classified

A

There are no fatalities/injuries(claimed or obvious) and vehicle/property damage above the amount set buy the installation commander

107
Q

How is a major vehicle accident classified

A

If it results in a fatality/injury, or the vehicle/property damage is above the amount set by the installation commander

108
Q

What form is used for Authority to Search and Seize

A

AF Form 1176

109
Q

What form is used for Consent for Search and Seizure

A

AF Form 1364

110
Q

What form is used for an incident report

A

AF Form 3545

111
Q

What form is used to document personal contact information of a suspicious person or incident

A

AF Form 3907

112
Q

What is a DD Form 1408

A

Armed Forces Traffic Citation

113
Q

What copy of the DD Form 1408 do you give to the violator

A

Pink

114
Q

Who is a CVB From 1805 issued to

A

Civilians

115
Q

What is a DD Form 1920

A

Alcohol Incident Report

116
Q

What is a DD Form 2708

A

Receipt for Pre-Trial /Post-Trial prisoner or detained person

117
Q

Aircraft plots will be conducted when

A

Within the first hour after guard mount breaks

118
Q

During an incident, the Desk Sergeant will utilize established QRCs the assist with operations, in some cases there may not be an established QRC. Who should be notified or consulted for any cases not covered in a QRC

A

Flight Chief or Higher Authority

119
Q

Where will all BOLOs be recorded

A

DBIDS

120
Q

All personnel involved in a traffic stop or a domestic dispute will have their criminal records checked utilizing what system

A

CLETS and D-DEx

121
Q

Who must be notified of complaints involving child and spouse abuse

A

Unit commander responsible for the members and family advocacy

122
Q

What are the 4 phases of a natural disaster response

A

Notification, initial emergency, sustained emergency, and recovery

123
Q

T or F—SF patrols may assist with vehicle lock-outs whenever possible

A

False

124
Q

POV drivers may complete a minor vehicle accident report at BDOC, but must do so with-in how many hours

A

72 hours

125
Q

What form must be completed by patrols who respond to a major accident

A

AF Form 1315

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