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Y3 - Skin pathology > Dermatopathology 3 > Flashcards

Dermatopathology 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which vitamins are involved in vitamin responsive dermatoses (hypovitaminoses)?

A
  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin E
  • Vitamin B
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2
Q

What is the effect of vitamin A responsive dermatoses?

A

Squamous epithelial hyperkeratosis - follicular keratosis

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3
Q

What is the effect of vitamin E responsive dermatoses?

A

Panniculitis (painful nodules/bumps under the skin) due to steatonecrosis (fat necrosis)
(Lack of antioxidant protection)

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4
Q

What is the effect of vitamin B responsive dermatoses?

A

Dry seborrhoea (oily skin) with alopecia

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5
Q

What is the normal role of zinc within the skin?

A

Involved in the production of the stratum corneum

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6
Q

How does a zinc deficiency affect the skin?

A

Leads to an inability of the stratum corneum to shed and be normally replaced causing hyperplasia and crusting

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7
Q

Which 3 hormonal imbalances can lead to skin lesions?

A
  • Hyperadrenocorticism
  • Hyperoestrogenism
  • Hypothyroidism
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8
Q

What is superficial necrolytic dermatitis?

A

“Red, white and blue” epidermal disease, alternating severe parakeratotic hyperkeratosis (red), spongiosis and oedematous spinous layer (white) and basal layer hyperplasia (blue)

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9
Q

What is the pathogenesis of superficial necrolytic dermatitis linked to?

A

Glucagon secreting pancreatic tumours and end stage liver failure

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10
Q

Describe the gross lesion distribution and appearance of superficial necrolytic dermatitis

A
  • Symmetrical and bilateral on lips, periocular skin, pinna and distal extremities
  • Areas of erythema (reddening), erosion, ulcers and crusts
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11
Q

Describe the histological appearance of superficial necrolytic dermatitis

A
  • White represents water inside the spinous keratinocytes (second layer of the skin) = ballooning degeneration
  • On top of this layer is a very prominent stratum corneum which is very protein rich so is normally very red
  • Blue layer means there is proliferation of the basal layer – which should normally be one cell thick
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12
Q

What is the other name of superficial necrolytic dermatitis?

A

Hepatocutaneous syndrome

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13
Q

What is dermal atrophy?

A

Skin becomes thinner at every level

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14
Q

What is the cause of Cushings disease?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

- pituitary tumour, adrenal tumour or iatrogenic administration

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15
Q

What is Calcinosis cutis?

A

The accumulation of calcium salt crystals in your skin

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16
Q

Describe the gross lesion distribution and appearance of Cushings

A
  • Bilateral and symmetrical hypotrichosis and alopecia of trunk, abdomen
  • Skin is diffusely thinned and less elastic
  • Hyperpigmentation, comedones and calcinosis cutis are also observed
  • Dermal atrophy, deposition of calcium
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17
Q

Why do animals with Cushings present with a pot belly?

A

Due to extreme thinning and decreased elasticity of the skin of the abdominal wall which can no longer support the weight of the organs

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18
Q

Describe the histological appearance of Cushings

A

Diffuse cutaneous atrophy with orthokeratotic hyperkeratosis and follicular keratosis

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19
Q

What are the possible causes of Hyperoestrogenism?

A

Polycystic ovaries and functional ovarian neoplasms in female dogs, oestrogen-secreting tumours in intact males (Sertolioma, Sertoli cell tumour)

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20
Q

How does Hyperoestrogenism appear grossly?

A

Bilateral and symmetrical loss of hair over the trunk

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21
Q

What does a histological ‘flame figure’ represent?

A

Collagen bundle and all around it there are inflammatory cells – reaction of eosinophils

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22
Q

Name 3 eosinophilic diseases of cats that make up the eosinophilic granuloma complex

A
  • Eosinophilic plaque
  • Eosinophilic granuloma
  • Indolent ulcer
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23
Q

Name 2 eosinophilic diseases of horses

A
  • Eosinophilic granuloma

- Multisystemic eosinophilic epitheliotrophic disease (MEED)

24
Q

Describe an eosinophilic plaque, its location and appearance

A
  • Pruritic lesion associated with hypersensitivity
  • Haired skin of inguinal, axillary and lateral thigh areas.
  • Diffuse and perivascular eosinophilic dermatitis with epidermal acanthosis (dark discolouration) and spongiosis
25
Q

Which of the 3 components of the eosinophilic granuloma complex is most common?

A

Eosinophilic granuloma

26
Q

How does an eosinophilic granuloma appear grossly?

A

Raised, pink variably pruritic nodular lesions on both haired skin (linear) and oral mucosa (nodular)

27
Q

How does an eosinophilic granuloma appear histologically?

A
  • Diffuse eosinophilic inflammation with granulomas centred around degenerated collagen bundles covered with degenerate and degranulating eosinophils (flame figures)
  • Localised inflammatory reaction against something that was normal – collagen
28
Q

What is an indolent ulcer?

A
  • Unilateral or bilateral ulcerated plaque-like lesion on the upper lip
  • Non pruritic and non-painful
29
Q

Name 3 equine eosinophilic nodular diseases

A
  • Collagenolytic granuloma
  • Axillary nodular necrosis
  • Unilateral papular dermatosis
30
Q

Describe the gross appearance of collagenolytic granuloma

A
  • Single or multiple nodular, non-painful non pruritic lesions
  • Nodular mass, happening everywhere in the skin
31
Q

Describe the histological appearance of collagenolytic granuloma

A

Foci of collagen degeneration/necrosis surrounded by granulomas, sometimes with macrophage palisading, and numerous eosinophils

32
Q

Describe the gross appearance of axillary nodular necrosis

A

Nodular non painful non pruritic lesions on the trunk, behind the axilla (girth galls)

33
Q

Describe the histological appearance of axillary nodular necrosis

A

Foci of coagulative necrosis with numerous eosinophils and fewer flame figures (eosinophilic vasculitis may be present)

34
Q

Describe the features of unilateral papular dermatosis

A
  • Seasonal and uncommon unilateral nodules on the lateral trunk
  • Small foci of folliculocentric coagulative necrosis
35
Q

What are the 4 tumour classifications?

A
  • Epithelial tumours
  • Mesenchymal tumours
  • Round cell tumours
  • Metastatic tumours
36
Q

Tumours of the epidermis derive from which cells?

A

Keratinocytes

37
Q

Describe the features of an epidermal cyst

A
  • Clinically recorded as single, rarely multiple, dermal masses, but not neoplastic
  • Cystic cavities filled with lamellar keratin and lined by continuous squamous epithelium.
  • Easy to remove and don’t regrow
38
Q

What are the causes of an epidermal cyst

A
  • Enormous abnormal distension of follicles

- Traumatic dermal implantation of epidermal fragments (more rare)

39
Q

A sudden fast increase in size of an epidermal cyst is due to?

A

Damage to the wall of the cyst -> inflammation

40
Q

Name some example tumours of the epidermis and adnexal structures

A
  • Papilloma
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Basal cell carcinoma
  • Tumours of the hair follicles
  • Sebaceous and modified sebaceous gland tumours (adenoma/ epithelioma/ carcinoma)
  • Sweat gland and modified sweat gland tumours (adenoma/adenocarcinoma)
41
Q

What are the two main aetiologies associated with tumours of the epidermis and adnexal structures?

A

UV light

Papillomavirus

42
Q

Describe a cutaneous papilloma

A

One or multiple filiform exophytic (abnormal growth that sticks out from the surface of a tissue) and hyperkeratotic projections of epidermis supported by thin dermal stalks (proliferation and vacuolisation of stratum spinosum and granulosum)

43
Q

Describe a fibropapilloma

A

Plaque-like lesions with predominant dermal proliferation (feline fibropapilloma and equine sarcoid)

44
Q

How do papilloma’s appear histologically?

A

Solitary, benign and exophytic proliferation of hyperkeratotic stratified squamous epithelium supported by a mature fibrovascular stalk

45
Q

What is a koilocyte?

A

Keratinocytes with eccentric pyknotic nucleus (irreversible condensation of chromatin in the nucleus of a cell undergoing necrosis or apoptosis) and peripheral clear halo (ballooning degeneration)

46
Q

Describe the aetiology of squamous cell carcinomas

A

UV lights is directly involved in the pathogenesis of these tumours in white/pale coated animals.
Viral papillomatosis can be a predisposing condition.

47
Q

Why are squamous cell carcinomas hard to surgically remove?

A

Due to being locally invasive and the more you dig, the more you find – grows deep in the dermis

48
Q

Describe the gross distribution and appearance of a squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • Found everywhere but mainly on the head

- Single expansive hyperplastic ulcerated or nodular skin lesions

49
Q

Describe the histological appearance of a squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • Composed of squamous keratinocytes
  • Invasive islands and cords of neoplastic cells within the dermis
  • Anisocytosis (unequal RBC size), anisokaryosis (variation in nuclei size) and mitotic index are high
  • Keratin pearls are often present
  • Inflammation and pronounced desmoplasia (formation of connective tissue in response to tumors)
  • Neutrophilic pustules due to abnormal keratin formation and necrosis
50
Q

How are follicular tumours classified?

A

According to the segment of origin

51
Q

Epithelial tumours of the cutaneous

adnexal structures derive from which 4 normal skin structures?

A

Hair follicles, sebaceous glands, apocrine (sweat) glands, and eccrine (sweat) glands

52
Q

What is a pilomatricoma, which cells are they derived from?

A
  • Solitary benign tumour, localized in the lower dermis and subcutis
  • They are derived from the follicular matrix cells
53
Q

Describe the appearance of a pilomatricoma

A
  • Chalky white on cut surface, multilobulated and sometimes pigmented
  • Central portion abruptly filled with “ghost cells” (pale eosinophil ic anucleated cells)
  • Common mineralisation
54
Q

What are the 3 types of sebaceous gland tumours?

A
  • Adenoma
  • Epithelioma
  • Adenocarcinoma
55
Q

Describe a sebaceous gland adenoma

A

Well-differentiated, with the majority sebocytes with few basaloid cells and ducts

  • Any tumour originating from a glandular structure that is benign
  • Well demarcated mass
56
Q

Describe a sebaceous gland epithelioma

A

Majority of basaloid cells with few sebocytes and ducts. Intermediate degree of malignancy

57
Q

Describe a sebaceous gland adenocarcinoma

A
  • Cells, with variable degree of sebaceous differentiation.
  • Irregular lobular formations
  • Pleomorphism, high mitotic index
  • Local infiltration -> regional lymph nodes -> lungs ?

Y3 - Skin pathology (4 decks)

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