Dermatology Scenarios Flashcards

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1
Q

Erythema with yellowish scale-forming plaques on the eyebrows, nasolabial folds, glabella, and presternal area best describes:

a) bacterial folliculitis
b) allergic contact dermatitis
c) rosacea
d) seborrheic dermatitis

A

d: This is a classic distribution pattern for seborrheic dermatitis, a common, chronic inflammatory dermatitis associated with Pityrosporum ovale as well as genetic and environmental factors. Bacterial folliculitis presents as dome-shaped pustules with small erythematous halos arising in the center of hair follicles. Allergic contact dermatitis is characterized by vesicles, edema, erythema, and pruritus. Rosacea presents as eruptions of erythema, telangiectasias, pustules, and papules localized to the face.

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2
Q

A 36yo pt reporting sudden hair loss is found to have a round, well-circumscribed, 3cm area of alopecia on the parietal scalp area with exclamation point hair. The most likely dx is:

a) anagen effluvium
b) androgenetic alopecia
c) alopecia areata
d) tinea capitis

A

c: Alopecia areata is an autoimmune process presenting as localized, well-circurmscribed loss of air in oval or round patterns without visible evidence of inflammation, most commonly on the scalp with exclamation point hair at the periphery of alopecia. Tinea captitis is uncommon in adults. It has “black dots” in the area of alopecia from broken-off hair, also with scale and possibly inflammation. There also may be adenopathy

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3
Q

A Tzanck smear demonstrating multinucleated giant cells indicates which of the following conditions?

a) scabies
b) tinea versicolor
c) impetigo
d) herpes simplex

A

d: The Tzanck smear is a microscopic examination of cells obtained from the base of vesicles and bull for multinucleate giant cells seen in herpes simplex, herpes zoster, and varicella. Scabies is dx with a scabies prep, a microscopic examination for mites, scybala (fecal pellets), or eggs. Tinea versicolor is a dermatophyte infection dx with a KOH test looking for a hyphae and spores in a classic spaghetti-and meatballs* pattern. Impetigo is caused by a streptococci and/or staphylococci typically dx by the clinical presentation, but culture and sensitivity tests an isolate the causative organisms.

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4
Q

An acute eruption of violaceous, pruritic, polygonal, shiny, flat-topped papillose involving the flexor surfaces is suggestive of which of the following?

a) lichen planus
b) pityriasis rosea
c) psoriasis
c) seborrheic dermatitis

A

a: Lichen planus is an inflammatory reaction pattern of unknown etiology, with characteristic “five P” clinical features: pruritic, planar (flat), polyangular/polygonal, purple (violaceous) papules. Pityriasis rose is typically confined to the trunk, beginning with a single red oval plaque that is followed by a number of similar smaller plaques with spontaneous resolution in 4-8 weeks. Psoriasis is a papulosquamous disease commonly presenting on scaly plaques involving the elbows, knees, and scalp. Seborrheic dermatitis is a common, chronic inflammatory disease commonly seen on the scalp and scalp margins, eyebrows, nasolabial folds, and presternal areas

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5
Q

Bites that typically reveal a central blue color of impending necrosis with a surrounding white area of vasospasm and a peripheral red halo of inflammation are associated with:

a) scabies
b) black widow spiders
c) brown recluse spiders
d) deer ticks

A

c: Brown recluse spider bites in fatty areas such as thighs and buttocks can become necrotic within 4 hours; with a rapidly expanding blue-gray halo around the puncture site surrounded by a white area of vasospasm and peripheral red red halo of inflammation. Scabies lesions are pleomorphic and often vesicular, pustular, or excoriated with linear, curved, or S-shaped burrows. Black widow bites result in slight swelling with small red fang marks. Deer tick lesions can present as a small papule with slowly enlarging ring, a bluish red nodule, or an atrophic plaque.

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6
Q

Velvety, hyperpigmented, papillomatous lesions of the neck, axillae, and groin would warrant what further testing?

a) KOH test of skin scrapings
b) fasting blood sugar
c) mineral oil skin scraping
d) CXR

A

b: Acanthosis nigricans is commonly associated with obesity, insulin resistance, and DM. A fasting blood sugar is a first step in screening pts for insulin resistance. KOH of skin scrapings is used to look for hyphae and spores indicating a fungal infection or tinea versicolor. While tinea versicolor is velvety and can be hyper pigmented, it is not papillomatous. Mineral oil skin scrapings are used to look for the mites of scabies. Scabies can occur in the axillae but appear as erythematous papules or nodules. A CXR would be used to look for pulmonary changes associated with cutaneous findings, such as sarcoidosis. Acanthosis nigricans is not associated with pulmonary changes.

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7
Q

A pt known to have allergic rhinitis and asthma presents with chronic pruritic inflammatory lesions of the flexor surfaces, wrists, and dorsal ares of the feet. The lesions are excoriated and lichenified with crusted patches and plaques. The most likely dx is:

a) nummular eczema
b) psoriasis
c) seborrheic dermatisis
d) atopic dermatitis

A

d: Atopic dermatitis often occurs in association with a family or personal history of atopy, to include allergic rhinitis, asthma, and eczema. It is characterized as the “itch that rashes” and is associated with dry skin, ichthyosis vulgarism, keratosis pilaris, sensitivity to wool, and hyperlinear palmar creases. Psoriasis is a papulosquamous disease commonly presenting as scaly plaques involving the elbows, knees, and scalp. Nummular eczema presents as chronic, coin-shaped plaques with small papules and vesicles on an erythematous base, typically seen on lower legs of older men in winter months. Seborrheic dermatitis presents as erythema with yellowish scale-forming plaques on the eyebrows, nasolabial folds, glabella, and presternal area.

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8
Q

Which of the following diseases can affect the skin, nail, and joints?

a) erythema nodosum
b) psoriasis
c) pityriasis rosea
d) lichen planus

A

b: In addition to erythematous scaly papules and plaques, psoriasis may present with oil spots, nail pitting, and onycholysis. Psoriatic arthritis occurs in 5-8% of those affected with psoriasis. Erythema nodosum is an inflammatory nodular pattern of panniculitis typically involving only the lower extremities. Pityriasis rosea is an epidermal papulosquamous disorder typically confined to the trunk, with NO nail or joint involvement. Lichen planus is characterized as an inflammatory reaction pattern with mucous membrane, nail, scalp, and cutaneous lesions but no associated joint involvement.

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9
Q

Using the “rule of nine” to calculate body surface area, what would the percentage of burned area be in an adult pt with second-degree burns involving the entire right arm, the anterior chest and abdomen, and the entire right leg?

a) 27
b) 36
c) 45
d) 52

A

c: The anterior chest and abdomen are 18%, the entire right leg is 18%, and the entire right arm is 9% for a total body surface area of 45%.

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10
Q

Mupirocin (Bactroban) ointment is indicated for the tx of mild to moderate

a) impetigo
b) ecthyma gangrenosum
c) tinea pedis
c) cellulitis

A

a: Mupirocin is the first topical abx approved for the tx of impetigo. Tinea pedis is a dermatophyte infection tx with antifungals. Cellulitis typically requires tx with oral or parenteral abx.

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11
Q

Organ transplant recipients have a significantly increased risk for developing

a) squamous cell carcinoma
b) erythema multiforme
c) bullous pemphigoid
d) pseudomonas folliculitis

A

a: Immunosuppressive agents required following organ transplant greatly increase the risk for developing squamous cell carcinoma. Erythema multiforme, a reaction pattern of idiopathic, drug, and infectious origin, is unrelated to organ transplant immunosuppression, as is bullous pemphigoid, an autoimmune sub epidermal blistering disease. Pseudomonas folliculitis is an acute skin infection that follows exposure to contaminated water and is also known as “hot tub folliculitis”

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12
Q

A predisposing condition for recurrent cellulitis of the lower extremity is:

a) onychomycosis
b) tinea pedis
c) verruca vulgaris
d) erythema nodosum

A

b: Fungal infection of the interdigital spaces can result in breaks in the dermal barrier, permitting bacterial entry through the skin, and requires careful examination of the feet in lower extremity cellulitis. Onychomycosis typically involves the nail plate and not the surrounding soft tissue. Common warts (verruca vulgarism) are not likely to lead to breaks in the dermis because they arise from the epidermis. Erythema nodosum, a hypersensitivity reaction to a variety of antigenic stimuli, typically present as erythematous nodules over the anterior shin area and is not associated with the development of cellulitis.

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13
Q

A pt presents with complaints of the development of a slate-gray hyperpigmentation on the lower extremities. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible?

a) minocycline (Minocin)
b) erythromycin (E-mycin)
c) tremethroprim-sulfamethoxazole
d) Naproxen (Aleve)

A

a: Slate-gray hyperpigmentation is an adverse effect of minocycline. Cutaneous side effects of erythromycin typically include urticaria, maculopapular rash, erythema, and acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP).

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14
Q

A 12yo girl presents with complaints of pruritis of the scalp for 2 weeks that started at the occiput and post auricular areas but has now spread. What is the most likely dx?

a) psoriasis
b) seborrheic dermatitis
c) pediculosis capitis
d) tinea capitis

A

c: Pediculosis capitis (head lice) begins most commonly at the occiput and post auricular area where grayish white, oval-shaped nits are seen adhered to the hair shaft. Psoriasis presents with well-demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery white scale. Seborrheic dermatitis presents with diffuse erythema with a greasy yellow scale throughout the scalp. Tinea captitis appears as an area of alopecia with scale and broken off hair or “black dots”

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15
Q

A 22yo pt presents with multiple, flat, round, light-brown lesions measuring 1-5mm. Several are noted to form a linear pattern. The most likely dx is:

a) lichen planus
b) verruca plana
c) seborrheic keratosis
d) syringomas

A

b: Flat warts or verruca plan are light brown or flesh-colored papules ranging form 1 to 5 mm in diameter. Because the virus spreads with scratching or shaving, a linear pattern forms. Lichen planus lesions are pruritic, planar (flat), polyangular/polygonal, purple papules, generally seen on the solar aspects of the wrist and forearm as opposed to the dorsum. Seborrheic keratoses range from 2mm-3cm, can be tan, brown, or black in color, can appear on the dorm of the hands, but do not form a linear pattern secondary to trauma.

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16
Q

A 19yo presents with a minimally pruritic rash. The lesion on the right chest was the first to appear, followed a week later by the remaining lesions. He states he had cold-like symptoms about a week before the eruption, but feels fine now. The most likely dx is:

a) tinea corporis
b) scabies
c) guttate psoriasis
d) pityriasis rosea

A

d: Pityriasis rosea starts with the HERALD PATCH and then 7-10 days later smaller ovoid lesions with inverse collarette of scale erupt following the skin lines in a Christmas tree pattern. It is usually preceded by symptoms of an URI before the eruption begins. The lesions do not folow the skin lines. A KOH will help confirm dx of tinea. Scabies presents with burrows at the edge of vesicles or papules and excoriations in the interdigital web spaces, axillae, groin, breasts, buttocks, wrists and waistband area. Guttate psoriasis presents as a sudden eruption of small scattered, discrete, salmon-pink plaques that may still retain the silvery white scale of psoriasis. Up to ⅔ of pts have a preceding streptococcal infection.

17
Q

A 17yo white female presents to a family practice office to clear up a rash that has come and gone for a number of years, but now wants to wear a strapless dress to prom. The lesions are discrete, hyper pigmented, and velvety on the chest, shoulders, and upper back. Which of the following is the best tx option?

a) topical glucocorticoid
b) selenium sulfide shampoo
c) topical 4% hydroquinone
d) cryotherapy

A

b: Tinea versicolor comes and goes but tends to flare in hot and humid weather. Tx options include selenium sulfide shampoo daily in the warm months and 2-3 times per week in cooler months. Alternatively, pts can be tx with ketoconazole 400mg po once followed by vigorous exercise (to induce sweating) or with topical ketoconazle shampoo. Topical glucocorticoids will exacerbate the condition. Topical hydroquinone is a bleaching agent that could even out skin pigment but will not affect the tinea versicolor. Cryotherapy is not indicated as a therapy option and could leaver permanent hypo pigmentation of the skin.

18
Q

The best management for a 4mm macular lesion that is asymmetrical, black and red, located on the left forearm, and has progressed rapidly over the past 6 months, would be to:

a) have the pt document changes to the lesion in a journal for 4 months
b) schedule visits with a provider every 6 months to photograph changes
c) remove the lesion with a vascular laser
d) completely excise the lesion as soon as possible

A

d: Based on the ABCDE criteria, this lesion falls into four categories: asymmetrical, irregular borders, two colors particularly black and red, which are ominous, and rapid enlargement or elevation. It is less than 6mm in diameter. However, this lesion is highly suspicious for a melanoma and should be excised as soon as possible.

19
Q

A pt with recurrent erythema multiforme minor lesions approximately every month should be tx prophylactically with

a) oral steroids
b) acyclovir
c) dapsone
d) oral terbinafine

A

B: Recurrent erythema multiforme is most commonly due to recurrent herpes simplex virus outbreaks. Prophylactic tx with acyclovir or related compound should suppress future herpes simplex virus outbreaks, and therefore, future erythema multiforme recurrences.

20
Q

Painful, erythematous, indurated nodules on the lower extremities of a woman on an OCP is most likely:

a) erythema nodusum
b) erythema multiforme
c) erythema annulare centrifugum
d) erythema chronica migrans

A

a: erythema nudism presents with painful nodules generally on the lower extremities. The most common causes are OCPs, sarcoidosis, and Behcets. Erythema multiforme is usually due to HSV infection or a drug reaction, but the lesions are targetoid in appearance.

21
Q

Thickening of the epidermis secondary to scratching best describes

a) lichen striatus
b) lichen Plans
c) lichen simplex chronicus
d) lichen nitidus

A

c: Lichen simplex chronicus is the name for the lichenification that occurs secondary to scratching. Lichen planus presents as purple, polygonal, planar papules.

22
Q

Onycholysis with oil spots is pathognomonic for

a) liver disease
b) tinea unguium
c) eczema
d) psoriasis

A

d: Nail disease in psoriasis presents with onycholysis and a yellowish brown discoloration under the nail plate resembling oil spots. Nail pitting can also be seen, but nail pits are also noted in eczema. Liver disease can present with Terry nails where the nail bed is white with a normal distal band (cirrhosis) or in the case of Wilson disease, azure (blue) lunulae. Tinea unguium presents as thickened, yellow, crumbly nails

23
Q

The presence of 1-2mm, dome-shaped, umbillicated, waxy papules is due to what etiology?

a) varicella zoster virus
b) pox virus
c) chronic sun damage
d) Staphylococcus aureus

A

b: Molluscum contagiosum is best described as 1-2mm, dome-shaped, umbillicated waxy papules. Varicella starts as erythematous papules that progress to vesicles, then pustules that umbilicate and crust in crops. Basal cell carcinoma can have a central ulceration but are not waxy lesions and generally are larger than 1-2mm. In addition, they usually have telangiectasisas on the lesion that are NOT seen in molluscum. Impetigo begins as vesicles or bulla that umbilicate and then rapidly becomes a honey-colored crust.

24
Q

Pink lesions on the distal extremities and face that rapidly depigment best describes

a) vitiligo
b) pityriasis alba
c) guttate psoriasis
d) contact dermatitis

A

a: Vitiligo presents as pink lesions that depigment on the acral extremities and central face (periorbital and perioral areas). Pityriasis alba is hypo pigmentation secondary to an inflammatory rash of eczema. Guttate psoriasis are pink-red teardrop lesions of psoriasis but do not depigment. Contact dermatitis presents as erythematous areas that on resolution can leave post inflammatory hypo pigmentation but not depigmentation.

25
Q

Which of the following is the best tx option for a 2cm plaque of Bowen’s disease (squamous cell carcinoma in situ) on the lower leg of a young woman with concerns about her cosmetic outcome?

a) topical imiquimod
b) topical clobetasol
c) intralesional glucocorticoid
d) surgical excision

A

a: Intralesional steroids are of no benefit in the tx of squamous cell carcinoma in situ. Topical clobetasol, a glucocorticoid, will also have no effect. Of the other two modalities, imiquimod topically and surgical excision will both lead to resolution of Bowen disease or squamous cell carcinoma in situ. However, because the plaque is 2cm in size, the use of imiquimod will lead to resolution without scarring.

26
Q

A 1cm pearly papule with central ulceration and telangiectasias on the left temple of a 67yo man is most likely

a) rosacea
b) basal cell carcinoma
c) ecthyma
d) sebaceous gland hyperplasia

A

b: Basal cell carcinoma is most commonly found on the sun-exposed areas of the face (temples, nose, cheeks), behind the ears in men, and upper back/shoulders. They generally appear in the 5th and 6th decades of life and are noted to have central ulceration and telangiectasias. Rosacea is adult acne characterized by papules, pustules, a notable absence of comedones, and flushing that can lead to permanent telangiectasia formation on the central face. Ecthyma is caused by group A b-hemolytic streptococcus and seen most commonly in diabetics, elderly, and alcoholic pts and is usually found on lower extremities.

27
Q

Comedonal acne is best tx with

a) benzoyl peroxide
b) topical abx
c) oral abx
d) topical retinoids

A

d: The four tx areas for acne are decrease sebum production, normalize abnormal desquamation of follicular epithelium, inhibit Propionibacterium acnes proliferation and colonization, and reduce the inflammatory response. Topical retinoids normalize follicular desquamination, which is the key factor in comedonal production. The also reduce the inflammatory response preventing the development of papules and pustules. Benzoyl peroxide and topical and oral abx have a weak effect on comedones and follicular desquamination, but rather all three work to inhibit P. acnes proliferation and colonization as well as reduce the inflammatory response.

28
Q

A 53yo white woman presents with flushing that she notes is worse when she has her morning coffee and when she is stressed out at work. She is starting to get broken blood vessels on her face. She notes an increase in acne lesions that are getting worse. Which of the following is the most likely dx?

a) impetigo
b) folliculitis
c) acne vulgaris
d) rosacea

A

d: Impetigo presents with vesicles that rapidly become honey-colored crusts around the nose and mouth predominantly. Folliculitis and acne vulgaris both have pustules that arise from hair follicles. Neither will have associated flushing and telangiectasia. Rosacea presents with erythematous papules and pustules , a noted absence of comedones, and flushing that is exacerbated by caffeine, alcohol, stress, extremes of temperature, and certain foods.