Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y4 Neuro and special senses > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans ?

A

Describes symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques that are often found on the neck, axilla and groin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some causes of acanthosis nigricans ?

A

T2DM
GI cancer
Obesity
PCOS
Acromegaly
Cushing’s syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Prader willi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans ?

A

Insulin resistance leads to hyperinsulinaemia
This stimulates keratinocytes and dermal fibroblast proliferation via interaction with insulin like growth factor receptor 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a comedone ?

A

Dilated sebaceous follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is acne fulminans ?

A

Very severe acne associated with systemic upset ( fever )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is acne fulminans managed ?

A

Hospital admission and oral steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is acne vulgaris ?

A

It is characterised by the obstruction of the pilosebaceous follicles with keratin plugs which results in comedones, inflammation and pustules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the features of mild acne ?

A

Open and closed comedones with or without sparse inflammatory lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the features of moderate acne ?

A

Widespread non-inflammatory lesions and numerous papules and pustules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some features of severe acne ?

A

Extensive inflammatory lesions which may include nodules, pitting and scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the management of mild to moderate acne ?

A

12 week course of topical combination therapy
- topical adapalene with topical benzoyl peroxide
- topical tretinoin with topical clindamycin
- topical benzoyl peroxide with topical clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the management of moderate to severe acne ?

A

12 week course of the following :
- topical adapalene with topical benzoyl peroxide
- topical tretinoin with topical clindamycin
- topical adapalene with topical benzoyl peroxide + doxycycline or lymecycline
- topical azelaic acid + either doxycycline or lymecycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some features of acne that require a referral to a dermatologist ?

A

Patients with acne conglobate
Patients with nodule-cystic acne
Failure to respond to treatment
Acne with scarring
Psychological stress or mental health disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the pathophysiology of acne vulgaris ?

A

Follicular epidermal hyperproliferation resulting in the formation of a keratin plug. This causes an obstruction of the pilosebaceous follicle.
Hormone imbalance may also contribute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is actinic keratoses ?

A

A common premalignant skin lesion that develops as a consequence of chronic skin exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some features of actinic keratoses ?

A

Small, crusty or scaly lesions
Pink, red, brown
Typically on sun-exposed areas
Multiple lesions may be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the management of actinic keratoses ?

A

Prevention of further risk - sun avoidance, sun cream
Fluorouracil cream ( 2-3 weeks )
Topical Diclofenac
Cryotherapy
Curettage and cautery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Alopecia areata ?

A

A presumed autoimmune condition causing localised well demarcated patches of hair loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the management of Alopecia areata ?

A

Topical or intralesional corticosteroids
Topical minoxidil
Phototherapy
Dithranol
Contact immunotherapy
Wigs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an example of a sedating antihistamine ?

A

Chlorpheniramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some examples of non-sedating antihistamines ?

A

Loratidine
Cetrizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are antihistamines used to treat ?

A

Allergic rhinitis
Urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some side effects of sedating antihistamines ?

A

Anti-Muscarinic properties :
- Urinary retention
- dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is athletes foot ?

A

Also known as tinea pedis
Usually caused by fungi in the genus trichophyton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some features of athletes foot ?

A

Scaling, flaking and itching between the toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the management of athletes foot ?

A

Topical imidazole, undecenoate or terbinafine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a basal cell carcinoma ?

A

Skin cancer characterised by slow growth and local invasion
The most common skin cancer in the western world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some features of a BCC ?

A

Sun exposed sites ( head and neck )
Pearly flesh coloured papule with telangiectasia which may ulcerate leaving a central crater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some management options for a BCC ?

A

Surgical removal
Curettage
Cryotherapy
Topical cream - imiquimod or fluorouracil
Radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is bowen’s disease ?

A

A type of precancerous dermatosis that is a precursor to SCC.
Common in the elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some features of bowens disease ?

A

Red scaly patches
Slow growing
Sun exposed areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are some management options for bowens disease ?

A

Topical 5-fluorouracil
Cryotherapy
Excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is bullous pemphigoid ?

A

An autoimmune condition causing sub-epidermal blistering of the skin.
It is secondary to the development of antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are some features of bullous pemphigoid ?

A

Itchy, tense blisters around the flexures.
Heal without scarring
No mucosal involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is bullous pemphigoid diagnosed ?

A

Skin biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the management of bullous pemphigoid ?

A

Oral corticosteroids - mainstay
Topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants and abx can be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a cherry haemangioma ?

A

Benign skin lesions which contain an abnormal proliferation of capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are some features of cherry haemangiomas ?

A

Erythematous papular lesions
Non-blanching
No mucosal involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are some features of plaque psoriasis ?

A

Erythematous plaques covered with a silvery white scale
Extensor surfaces - elbows and knees
Clear delineation between normal and affected skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the 2 main types of contact dermatitis ?

A

Irritant - non-allergen related
Allergic - type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does irritant contact dermatitis present ?

A

Erythema is common
Crusting and vesicles are rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How does allergic contact dermatitis present ?

A

Acute weeping eczema which predominantly affects the margins of the hairline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the management of allergic contact dermatitis ?

A

Topical treatment with a potent steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is dermatitis herpetiformis ?

A

An autoimmune blistering skin disorder associated with coeliac disease.
It is caused by deposition of IgA in the dermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the features of dermatitis herpetiformis ?

A

Itchy, vesicular skin lesions on the extensor surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the diagnosis of dermatitis herpetiformis made ?

A

Skin biopsy - shows deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the management of dermatitis herpetiformis ?

A

Gluten free diet
Dapsone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a dermatofibroma ?

A

A common benign fibrous skin lesions.
Caused by the abnormal growth of dermal dendritic histiocyte cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are some features of dermatofibroma ?

A

Solitary firm papule or nodule
5-10 mm in size
Overlying skin dimples on pinching the lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is eczema herpeticum ?

A

Describes a severe primary infection of the skin by herpes simplex 1 or 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are some features of eczema herpeticum ?

A

Rapidly progressing painful rash
Monomorphic punched out lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the management of eczema herpeticum ?

A

Potentially life threatening
Admitted for IV aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a mild steroid ?

A

Hydrocortisone 0.5-2.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a moderate steroid ?

A

Betamethasone valerate 0.025% - betnovate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are some potent steroids ?

A

Fluticasone propionate 0.05% - cutivate
Betamethasone valerate 0.1% - betnovate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a very potent steroid ?

A

Clobetasol propionate 0.05% - dermovate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is erysipelas ?

A

A localised skin infection caused by streptococcus pyogenes.
( superificial limited version of cellulitis )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the management of erysipelas ?

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is erythema ab igne ?

A

A skin disorder caused by over exposure to infrared radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the characteristic features of erythema ab igne ?

A

Reticulated, erythematous patches with hyperpigmentation and telangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is erythema multiforme ?

A

A hypersensitivity reaction that is most commonly triggered by infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are some features of erythema multiforme ?

A

Target lesions
Back of the hands and feet before spreading to the feet
Pruritus can be seen but is mild

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are some causes of erythema multiforme ?

A

HSV
Idiopathic
Mycoplasma
Drugs - penicillin
SLE
Sarcoidosis
Malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is erythema nodosum ?

A

Inflammation of subcut fat which typically causes tender erythematous nodular lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are some causes of erythema nodosum ?

A

Infection - streptococci, TB
Systemic disease - sarcoidosis, IBD
Malignancy / lymphoma
Drugs
Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are some causative organisms of a fungal nail infection ?

A

Dermatophytes - trichophyton rubrum
Yeasts - candida
Non-dermatophyte moulds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are some risk factors for a fungal nail infection ?

A

Increasing age
DM
Psoriasis
Repeated nail trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are some features of a fungal nail infection ?

A

Unsightly nails
Thickened rough, opaque nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are some investigations for a fungal nail infection ?

A

Nail clippings +/- scrapings of the affected nail
Microscopy and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the management of a fungal nail infection ?

A

Do not need to treat if asymptomatic

Nail lacquer, terbinafine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is guttate psoriasis ?

A

May be precipitated by a streptococcal infection 2-4 weeks prior to lesions appearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the features of guttate psoriasis ?

A

Tear drop papules on the trunk and limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the management of guttate psoriasis ?

A

Spontaneously resolve within 2-3 months
Topical agents
UVB phototherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia ?

A

An autosomal dominant condition characterised by multiple telangiectasia over the skin and mucous membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosing hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia ?

A

Meet the following 3 :
- epistaxis
- telangiectases
- visceral lesions
- family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is hidradenitis suppurativa ?

A

A chronic painful inflammatory skin disorder,
Characterised by the development of inflammatory nodules, pustules and scars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the pathogenesis of hidradenitis suppurativa ?

A

Chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are some risk factors for hidradenitis suppurativa ?

A

Family history
Smoking
Obesity
DM
PCOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are some features of hidradenitis suppurativa ?

A

Recurrent painful inflamed nodules - axilla most common site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the management of hidradenitis suppurativa ?

A

Encourage good hygiene
Smoking cessation
Weight loss
Acute flares can be managed with steroids
Long term - topical clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are some complications of hidradenitis suppurativa ?

A

Sinus tracts, fistulas
Comedones
Scarring
Contractures
Lymphatic obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is Hirsutism ?

A

Used to describe androgen dependent hair growth in women

83
Q

What is hypertrichosis ?

A

Being used to describe androgen independent hair growth

84
Q

What are some causes of Hirsutism ?

A

PCOS
Cushing’s syndrome
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Androgen therapy
Obesity
Adrenal tumour

85
Q

What is the management of Hirsutism ?

A

Advise weight loss
Cosmetics
COCP
Topical eflornithine for face

86
Q

What is hyperhidrosis ?

A

Excessive production of sweat

87
Q

What is the management of hyperhidrosis ?

A

Topical aluminium chloride
Iontophoresis
Botulinum toxin
Surgery

88
Q

What is impetigo ?

A

A superificial bacterial skin infection usually caused by either staph aureus or strep pyogenes.

89
Q

How is impetigo spread ?

A

Direct contact - scabs
Indirect - toys, clothing

90
Q

What are the features of impetigo ?

A

Golden, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth
Contagious
Common in children

91
Q

What is the management of impetigo ?

A

Localised :
- Hydrogen peroxide 1% cream
- Topical abx - fusidic acid

Extensive :
- oral flucloxacillin
- oral erythromycin ( if penicillin allergy )

92
Q

What is a keloid scar ?

A

Tumour like lesions that arise from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the dimensions of the original wound.

93
Q

What are some predisposing factors for keloid scars ?

A

Ethnicity - dark skin
Young adults
Sites - sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, trunk

94
Q

What is the treatment of keloid scars ?

A

Early keloid scar - intra-lesional steroids
Excision ( sometimes required )

95
Q

What is keratoacanthoma ?

A

Benign epithelial tumour - common with advancing age and rare in young people

96
Q

What are the features of keratoacanthoma ?

A

Initially a smooth dome - shaped papule
Rapidly grows to become a crater centrally filled with keratin

97
Q

How are keratoacanthomas managed ?

A

Spontaneous regression within 3 months is common
Excision if clinically difficult to exclude SCC

98
Q

What is the koebner phenomenon ?

A

It describes skin lesions that appear at the site of injury

99
Q

What conditions is the koebner phenomenon seen in ?

A

Psoriasis
Vitiligo
Warts
Lichen planus

100
Q

What is lentigo maligna ?

A

A type of melanoma in situ - typically progresses slowly but may become invasive causing melanoma

101
Q

What is leukoplakia ?

A

A premalignant condition which presents as white, hard spots on mucous membranes of the mouth.

102
Q

What are some differentials of someone presenting with leukoplakia ?

A

Candidiasis
Lichen planus

103
Q

What can leukoplakia transform into ?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

104
Q

What are some features of lichen planus ?

A

Itchy, papular rash - ‘white lines, pattern
Koebner phenomenon may be seen
Oral involvement

105
Q

What is the management of lichen planus ?

A

Potent topical steroids
Benzyldamine mouthwash or spray for oral licen planus

106
Q

What is a lipoma ?

A

A common, benign tumour of adipocytes

107
Q

What is the pathophysiology of lipomas ?

A

Generally found in subcutaneous tissues

108
Q

What are some features of lipomas ?

A

Lumps :
- smooth
- mobile
- painless

109
Q

What is the management of lipomas ?

A

Observation
Can be removed

110
Q

What is livedo reticularis ?

A

Describes an purplish, non-blanching, reticulated rash caused by obstruction of the capillaries resulting in swollen venules.

111
Q

What are the causes of livedo reticularis ?

A

Idiopathic
SLE
Polyarteritis nodosa
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Ehlers-danlos syndrome

112
Q

What is the most common type of melanoma ?

A

Superficial spreading melanoma

113
Q

What are the main diagnostic features of melanoma ?

A

Changes in size, shape and colour
Inflammation
Oozing or bleeding

114
Q

How is a diagnosis of melanoma made ?

A

Excision biopsy

115
Q

What is the management of melanoma ?

A

Excision with extended margins

116
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum ?

A

A common skin infection caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus ( MCV ).
Pinkish or pearly white papules with central umbilication.

117
Q

How is molluscum contagiosum transmitted ?

A

Direct - close personal contact
Indirect - via fomites ( contaminated surfaces )

118
Q

What are the features of molluscum contagiosum ?

A

Pinkish or pearly white papules with central umbilication
Anywhere on the body

119
Q

What is some self care advice for molluscum contagiosum ?

A

Reassure people it is self limiting
Resolves within 18 months
Lesions are contagious
Don’t scratch the lesions

120
Q

What is the management of molluscum contagiosum ?

A

Treatment is usually required
If troublesome - simple trauma or cryotherapy can be used.

121
Q

What is pellagra ?

A

Caused by niacin deficiency with classical features of dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia.

122
Q

What are some causes of pellagra ?

A

Consequence of isoniazid therapy - as it inhibits the conversion of tryptophan to niacin
Alcoholics

123
Q

What are some features of pellagra ?

A

Dermatitis
Diarrhoea
Dementia, depression
Death if not treated

124
Q

What is pityriasis rosea ?

A

Describes an acute, self limiting rash which tends to affect young adults.

125
Q

What are some features of pityriasis rosea ?

A

Herald patch usually on trunk followed by erythematous oval scaly patches

126
Q

What is the management of pityriasis rosea ?

A

Self limiting - usually resolves after 6-12 weeks

127
Q

What are port wine stains ?

A

Vascular birthmarks that tend to be unilateral.
Deep red or purple in colour
Do not resolve spontaneously

128
Q

What is the management of port wine stains ?

A

Cosmetic camouflage
Laser therapy

129
Q

What are some conditions that cause pruritus ?

A

Liver disease
Iron deficiency anaemia
Polycythaemia
CKD
Lymphoma

130
Q

What is psoriasis ?

A

Common and chronic skin disorders which generally presents with red, scaly patches on the skin

131
Q

What are some complications of psoriasis ?

A

Psoriatic arthropathy
Increased incidence of metabolic syndrome, CVD, VTE
Psychological distress

132
Q

What are some nail changes seen in psoriasis ?

A

Pitting
Onycholysis
Loss of nail
Subungal hyperkeratosis

133
Q

What are some exacerbating factors of psoriasis ?

A

Trauma
Alcohol
Drugs - beta blockers, lithium, anti malarials, NSAIDs
Withdrawal of systemic steroids

134
Q

What can trigger guttate psoriasis ?

A

Streptococcal infection

135
Q

What is the management of plaque psoriasis ?

A

Potent corticosteroids
Vitamin D analogue

Phototherapy
Oral methotrexate - systemic therapy

136
Q

What is the management of scalp psoriasis ?

A

Potent topical corticosteroids

137
Q

What is purpura ?

A

Describes bleeding into the skin from small blood vessels that produces a non-blanching rash.

138
Q

Why should children with a new purpuric rash be admitted immediately for investigations ?

A

May be a sign of meningococcal septicaemia or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.

139
Q

What are some potential causes of purpura in children ?

A

Meningococcal septicaemia
ALL
Congenital bleeding disorders
ITP
Henoch-schonlein purpura
Non-accidental injury

140
Q

What are some potential causes of purpura in adults ?

A

ITP
Bone marrow failure
Senile purpura
Nutritional deficiencies

141
Q

What is pyoderma gangrenosum ?

A

A rare, non-infectious inflammatory disorder but mainly affects the lower legs.

142
Q

What are some causes of pyoderma gangrenosum ?

A

Idiopathic
IBD
RA
SLE
Haematological

143
Q

What are some features of pyoderma gangrenosum ?

A

Location - lower limb
Small pustule, red bump which then breaks down resulting in an ulcer - painful
Fever
Myalgia

144
Q

What is the management of pyoderma gangrenosum ?

A

Oral steroids
Immunosuppressive therapy - Ciclosporin and infliximab

145
Q

What is isotretinoin ?

A

An oral retinoid used in the treatment of severe acne.

146
Q

What are some adverse effects of retinoids ?

A

Teratogenicity - women ideally should be on 2 forms of contraception
Dry skin, eyes and mouth
Low mood
Raised triglycerides
Hair thinning
Nose bleeds

147
Q

What is rosacea ?

A

A chronic skin disease of unknown aetiology

148
Q

What are some features of rosacea ?

A

Typically affects nose, cheeks and forehead
Flushing
Telangiectasia
Later develops into persistent erythema with papules and pustules.

149
Q

What is the management of rosacea ?

A

High factor suncream
Topical brimonidine gel for flushing

Mild to moderate - topical ivermectin
Moderate to severe - topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline

150
Q

What is scabies ?

A

It is caused by the mite sarcoptes scabiei and is spread by prolonged skin contact. They burrow into the skin, laying its eggs into the skin.

151
Q

What are some features of scabies ?

A

Widespread pruritus
Linear burrows on the side of fingers, interdigital and flexor aspects of the wrist.
Excoriation

152
Q

What is the management of scabies ?

A

Permethrin 5% - first line
Malathion 0.5% - second line
Avoid close physical contact

153
Q

What are some features of sebaceous cysts ?

A

Location - anywhere but most common scalp, ears, back, face and upper arm
Typically contain a punctum

154
Q

What is seborrhoeic dermatitis ?

A

Chronic dermatitis thought to be caused by an inflammatory reaction related to a proliferation of a normal skin inhabitant.

155
Q

What are some features of seborrhoeic dermatitis ?

A

Eczematous lesions on the sebum-rich areas - scalp, periorbital, auricular and nasolabial folds
Otitis externa and blepharitis

156
Q

What are some associated conditions to seborrhoeic dermatitis ?

A

HIV
Parkinson’s disease

157
Q

What is the management of scalp seborrhoeic dermatitis ?

A

First line - ketoconazole 2% shampoo

158
Q

What is the management of face and body seborrhoeic dermatitis ?

A

Topical anti fungals - ketoconazole
Topical steroids

159
Q

What are seborrhoeic keratoses ?

A

Benign epidermal skin lesions in older people

160
Q

What are some features of seborrhoeic keratoses ?

A

Large variation in colour from flesh to light brown to black
Stuck on appearance
Keratotic plugs

161
Q

What is the management of seborrhoeic keratoses ?

A

Reassurance as it’s benign
Removal - curettage, cryotherapy and shave biopsy

162
Q

What can cause shin lesions ?

A

Erythema nodosum
Pretibial myxoedema
Pyoderma gangrenosum

163
Q

What is pretibial myxoedema associated with ?

A

Graves’ disease

164
Q

What is shingles ?

A

An acute, unilateral painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus.

165
Q

What are the risk factors for shingles ?

A

Increasing age
HIV
Immunosuppressive conditions - steroids and chemotherapy

166
Q

What dermatomes are most commonly affected in shingles ?

A

T1 - L2

167
Q

What are some features of shingles ?

A

Prodromal period - burning pain for 2-3 dyas
Erythematous, macular rash becomes vesicular

168
Q

What is the management of shingles ?

A

Remind patient they are potentially infectious - avoid pregnant women and Immunosuppressed
Analgesia - paracetamol and NSAIDs
Oral corticosteroids
Fast antivirals

169
Q

What are some complications of shingles ?

A

Post-herpetic neuralgia
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Ramsey hunt syndrome

170
Q

What are the skin manifestations of SLE ?

A

Photosensitive ‘butterfly’ rash
Discoid lupus
Alopecia

171
Q

What is spider naevi ?

A

Describes a central red papule with surrounding capillaries.
The lesions blanch upon pressure

172
Q

What is the difference between spider naevi and telangiectasia ?

A

Spider naevi fill from the centre while telangiectasia from the edge.

173
Q

What are some associations of spider naevi ?

A

Childhood
Liver disease
Pregnancy
COCP

174
Q

What are some risk factors for SCC ?

A

Excessive exposure to sunlight
Actinic keratoses and bowen’s disease
Immunosuppression
Smoking

175
Q

What are some features of SCC’s ?

A

Typically on sun-exposed sites
Painless, ulcerate nodules
May have a cauliflower-like appearance
Bleeding

176
Q

What is the management of SCC’s ?

A

Surgical excision with 4mm margins

177
Q

What is stevens-Johnson syndrome ?

A

A severe systemic reaction affecting the skin and mucosa that is almost always caused by a drug reaction.

178
Q

What are the causes of stevens-Johnson syndrome ?

A

Penicillin
Sulphonamides
Anti-epileptics
Allopurinol
NSAIDs
COCP

179
Q

What are some features of stevens-Johnson syndrome ?

A

Maculopapular rash with target lesions
- may develop into vesicles and bullae
Mucosal involvement
Fever and arthralgia

180
Q

What is the management of stevens-Johnson syndrome ?

A

Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment

181
Q

What is tinea ?

A

A term given to dermatophyte fungal infections

182
Q

What is tinea capitis ?

A

Scalp ringworm - trichophyton tonsurans

183
Q

What are some features of tinea capitis ?

A

If untreated a raised, pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion may form
Scarring Alopecia may occur

184
Q

What is the management of tinea capitis ?

A

Oral anti fungals - terbinafine
Topical ketoconazole shampoo

185
Q

What causes tinea corporis ?

A

Caused by trichophyton rubrum

186
Q

What are the features of tinea corporis ?

A

Well-defined annular erythematous lesions with pustules and papules.

187
Q

What is the management of tinea corporis ?

A

Oral fluconazole

188
Q

What are the features of tinea pedis ?

A

Characterised by itchy, peeling skin between the toes
Common in adolescence

189
Q

What is toxic epidermal necrolysis ?

A

A potentially life-threatening skin disorder that is most commonly seen secondary to a drug reaction.
Looks like a scalded appearance

190
Q

What are some features of toxic epidermal necrolysis ?

A

Systemically unwell - pyrexia and tachycardia
Positive nikolsky’s sign - the epidermis separates with mild lateral pressure

191
Q

What are some drugs known to induce toxic epidermal necrolysis ?

A

Phenytoin
Sulphonamides
Allopurinol
Penicillins
Carbamazepine
NSAIDs

192
Q

What is the management of toxic epidermal necrolysis ?

A

Stop precipitating factors
Supportive care
IV immunoglobulin

193
Q

What is urticaria ?

A

Describes a local or generalised superficial swelling of the skin.
Most common cause is allergy

194
Q

What are the features of urticaria ?

A

Pale, pink raised skin - hives, wheals
Pruritic

195
Q

What is the management of urticaria ?

A

First line - Non-sedating antihistamines - loratadine or cetirizine
Sedating antihistamine - chlorphenamine ( used at night )

196
Q

Where is venous ulceration most commonly seen ?

A

Medial malleolus

197
Q

What are some investigations for venous ulcerations ?

A

Ankle - brachial pressure index ( ABPI )
Normal is 0.9-1.2

198
Q

What is the management of venous ulceration ?

A

Compression bandaging
Oral pentoxifylline - a peripheral vasodilator

199
Q

What is vitiligo ?

A

An autoimmune condition which results in the loss of melanocytes and consequent depigmentation of the skin.

200
Q

What are some associated conditions of vitiligo ?

A

T1DM
Addison’s disease
Thyroid disorders
Pernicious anaemia
Alopecia areata

201
Q

What are the features of vitiligo ?

A

Well-demarcated patches of depigmented skin
Peripheries tend to be most affected
Trauma may precipitate new lesions

202
Q

What is the management of vitiligo ?

A

Suncream for affected areas
Camouflage make up
Topical corticosteroids

203
Q

What are some features of zinc deficiency ?

A

Acrodermatitis - red, crusted lesions
Alopecia
Short stature
Hypogonadism
Hepatosplenomegaly

Y4 Neuro and special senses (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions