Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is toxic epidermal necrolysis and Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A

Blistering damage that occurs secondary to inflammation of the epidermis

Epidermal layer dies if severe, sheds, leaving exposed oozing dermis

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2
Q

What is the difference between toxic epidermal necrolysis and Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A

Area of epidermal loss
TEN - >30%
SJS <10%

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3
Q

What are the features of Stevens Johnson syndrome?

A

Abrupt onset rash
Starting on trunk, extending rapidly
Mucocutaneous necrosis with at least 2 sites involved
Prodromal illness, flu like symptoms

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4
Q

What is erythema multiforme?

A

Target lesions
Initially seen on back of hands/feet before spreading to torso

Often of unknown cause
Acute self-limiting
Associated with HSV
Infections or drugs 
Mucosal involvement absent or limited to one
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5
Q

What is the management of TEN/SJS and EM?

A
Early recognition, call for help
Early referral, ITU or burns unit
Supportive measures, maintain haemodynamics
Fluid replacement, pain relief
Stop drugs
IV immunoglobulins, ciclosporins
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6
Q

What are some of the complications of TEN/SJS?

A

Sepsis
Electrolyte imbalance
Multi-system organ failure

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7
Q

What is erythroderma?

A

‘red skin’
Clinical state of inflammation of all the skin,
not a pathological diagnosis

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8
Q

What are the clinical features of erythroderma?

A

Skin is red, hot and scaly
May have generalised lymphadenopathy
Loss of control of temp
Bouts of shivering

Hypothermia from heat loss
High-output cardiac failure
Hypoalbuminaemia
Fluid loss

Capillary leak syndrome - cytokines released during inflammation cause vascular leakage - can lead to acute respiratory distress

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9
Q

What are the causes of erythroderma?

A

Dermatitis (eczema) including contact-allergic
Lymphoma
Drugs - sulphonamides, gold, sulphonylureas, penicillin, allopurinol
Psoriasis
Idiopathic

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10
Q

What is the management of erythroderma?

A
Treat underlying cause where known, stop drugs
Methotrexate for psoriasis
Keep patient warm
Swab skin for infection
Monitor vitals and serum albumin

Use emollients and wet wraps to maintain moisture
Mild topical steroids

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11
Q

What is the presentation of acute meningococcaemia?

A

Features of meningitis - headache, fever, neck stiffness
Septicaemia - hypotension, fever, neck stiffness

Non-blanching purpuric rash on trunk and extremities, may be preceded by blanching maculopapular rash

Can rapidly progress to ecchymoses, haemorrhagic bullae, tissue necrosis

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12
Q

What is the cause of acute meningococcaemia?

A

Gram negative diplococcus Neisseria meningitides

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13
Q

What is the sepsis 6?

A
Administer high flow oxygen
Take blood cultures
Give broad spec antibiotix e.g. benzylpenicillin
Give IV fluid challaneges
Measure serum Hb and lactate
Measure accurate hourly urine output
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14
Q

What other management in meningococcaemia in important?

A

Prophylactic antibiotics e.g. rifampicin for close contacts, ideally within 14 days of exposure

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15
Q

What are the complications of acute meningococcaemia?

A

Septicaemic shock
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Multi-organ failure
Death

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16
Q

What is necrotising fasciitis?

A

Rapidly spreading infection of the deep fascia secondary to tissue necrosis

Type 1 - aerobic and anaerobic bacteria seen post op (often in diabetes)

Type 2 - Group A streptococcus and can arise spontaneously in healthy individuals

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17
Q

What are risk factors for necrotising fasciitis?

A

Abdominal surgery, medical co-morbidities e.g. diabetes, malignancy

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18
Q

What is the presentation of necrotising fasciitis?

A

Often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain out of keeping with clinical features

Erythematous, blistering, necrotic skin
Systemically unwell, fever, tachycardia
Presence of crepitus - subcutaneous emphysema

X-Ray showing visible gas indicating gas-forming organism in soft tissue (absence does not exclude diagnosis)

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19
Q

What is the management of nec fasc?

A

Urgent referral, surgical debridement

IV antibiotics

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20
Q

Why are IV antibiotics alone ineffective in nec fasc?

A

The blood supply is compromised and vessels cannot deliver antibiotics to the necrotic tissues in sufficient concentration

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21
Q

What is eczema herpeticum?

A

Widespread eruption - monomorphic punched out erosions usually 1-3mm diameter

Serious complication of atopic eczema or other skin conditions e.g. pemphigus foliaceus

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22
Q

What is the presentation of eczema herpeticum?

A

Widespread eruption
Punched out erosions

History of preceding malaise and fever in patient known to have atopic dermatitis

Systemically unwell

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23
Q

What is the management of eczema herpeticum?

A

General supportive measures
IV antiviral therapy e.g. aciclovir
Antibiotics for bacterial secondary infection

Stop any non-essential therapies inc topical steroids

Ophthalmological review if any ocular involvement

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24
Q

What is angioedema?

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

Swelling of the dermis, subcut tissues and mucosae

Triggers can be allergic or non-allergic, but both cause release of inflammatory mediators

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25
Q

What can be causes of allergic reactions?

A
idiopathic
Food - nuts, seeds, shellfish
Drugs - penicillin, contrast media, NSAIDs, morphine
Insect bites
Contact e.g. latex
Viral/parasitic infections
Autoimmune 
Hereditary
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26
Q

What is the pathophysiology of urticaria?

A

Due to local increase in permeability of capillaries and small venules
Large number of inflammatory mediators

Leads to swelling involving the superficial dermis raising the epidermis
Leads to itchy wheals

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27
Q

What are the features of angioedema?

A

Deeper swelling involving dermis and subcut tissues

Swelling of tongue and lips

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28
Q

What are the features of anaphylaxis?

A

Bronchospasm
Facial and laryngeal oedema
Hypotensions
Can initially present with urticaria and angioedema

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29
Q

What is the management of urticaria?

A

Antihistamines e.g. chloramphenamine

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30
Q

What is the management of angioedema?

A

Corticosteroids

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31
Q

What is the management of anaphylaxis?

A

Oxygen
0.5 mg IM 1:1000 adrenaline

IV antihistamines, corticosteroids and IV infusion

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32
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

Hypersensitivity reaction to a variety of stimuli

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33
Q

What are the causes of erythema nodosum?

A
Group A beta haemolytic streptococcus 
Primary TB
Pregnancy 
Malignancy 
Sarcoidosis
Inflammatory bowel disease 
Chlamydia 
Leprosy
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34
Q

What is the presentation of erythema nodosum?

A

Nodular, discrete tender nodules, may become confluent
Lesions continue to appear for 1-2 weeks
Leave bruise like discolouration as they resolve, within 6 weeks usually
Lesions do not ulcerate, resolve without atrophy or scarring
Shins most common site

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35
Q

What is a comedone?

A

A plug in a sebaceous follicle containing altered sebum, bacteria, and cellular debris.
Can present as open (blackheads) or closed (whiteheads)

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36
Q

What are common pressure areas for distribution (pattern of spread of lesions)?

A

Sacrum, buttocks, ankles, heels

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37
Q

What is Koebner phenomenon?

A

A linear eruption arising at a site of trauma e.g. in psoriasis

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38
Q

What is a discrete lesion?

A

Individual lesions separated from each other

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39
Q

What are confluent lesions?

A

Lesions merging together

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40
Q

What is the appearance of target lesions?

A

Concentric rings, like a dartboard

e.g. seen in erythema multiforme

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41
Q

What is an annular lesion?

A

Like a circle or ring

Seen in e.g. tinea corporis - ringworm

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42
Q

What is a discoid lesion?

A

Coin shaped/round lesion

Seen in for example - discoid eczema

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43
Q

What is purpura?

What is it due to?

A

Red or purple colour
Due to bleeding into the skin or mucous membranes

Does not blanch on pressure

There are petechiae - small pinpoint macules and ecchymoses - larger bruise like patches

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44
Q

What is a macule?

A

Flat area of altered colour e.g. freckles

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45
Q

What is a patch?

A

Larger flat area of altered colour or texture

for example, vascular formation - port wine stain

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46
Q

What is a papule?

A

Solid raised lesion <0.5cm in diameter

e.g. xanthomata - deposition of yellowish cholesterol rich material

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47
Q

What is a nodule?

A

Solid raised lesion >0.5cm in diameter, with a deeper component

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48
Q

What is a plaque?

A

Palpable scaling raised lesion >0.5cm in diameter

For example, psoriasis

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49
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

Small blister
Raised clear fluid filled lesion
<0.5cm in diameter

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50
Q

What is a bulla?

A

Large blister
Raised clear fluid filled lesion
>0.5cm in diameter

for example seen in a reaction to insect bites

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51
Q

What is a pustule?

A

Pus containing lesion
<0.5cm in diameter
For example in acne

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52
Q

What is an abscess?

A

Localised accumulation of pus in the dermis or subcutaneous tissue

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53
Q

What is a wheal?

A

Transient raised lesion due to dermal oedema

For example, urticaria

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54
Q

What is a carbuncle?

A

Staphylococcal infection of adjacent hair follicles

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55
Q

What is excoriation?

A

Loss of epidermis following trauma

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56
Q

What is lichenification?

A

Well defined roughening of the skin with accentuation of skin markings
For example seen in chronic rubbing in eczema

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57
Q

What are scales?

A

Flakes of stratum corneum

Seen in psoriasis - silvery scales

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58
Q

What is crust?

A

Rough surface consisting of dried serum, blood, bacteria and cellular debris
Exuded through an eroded epidermis e.g. burst blister
For example seen in impetigo

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59
Q

What is a scar?

A

New fibrous tissue
Occurs post wound healing
May be atrophic (thinning), hypertrophic (hyperproliferation within wound boundary)
or keloid scar - hyperproliferation beyond wound boundary

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60
Q

What is a fissure?

A

Epidermal crack often due to excess dryness

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61
Q

What are striae?

A

Linear areas which progress from purple to pink to white
Histopathological appearance of a scar
Associated with excessive steroid use and glucocorticoid production, growth spurts, pregnancy

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62
Q

What is hypertrichosis?

A

Non-androgen dependent pattern of excessive hair growth e.g. pigmented naevi
For example seen in hypertrichosis

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63
Q

When is koilonychia seen?

A

Spoon shaped depression of the nail plate

Iron deficiency anaemia, congenital, idiopathic

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64
Q

When is onycholysis seen?

A

Separation of the distal end of the nail plate from nail bed
Trauma, psoriasis, fungal nail infection, hyperthyroidism

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65
Q

When is nail pitting seen?

A

Punctate depressions of the nail plate

Psoriasis, eczema, alopecia areata

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66
Q

What are the major cell types in the epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes - produce keratin as a protective barrier
Langherhans - present antigens, activate T lymphocytes for immune protection
Melanocytes - produce melanin, gives pigment to skin and protects cell nuclei from UV damage
Merkel cells - contain specialised nerve endings for sensation

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67
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis?

A

Deepest - stratum basale
Stratum spinosum
Stratum granulosum - cells lose their nuclei and contains granules of keratohyaline
Stratum corneum - layer of keratin, most superficial layer

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68
Q

What are the components of the dermis?

A

Collagen, elastin, glycosaminoglycans
Synthesised by fibroblasts
Immune cells, nerves, skin appendages, lymphatic and blood vessels.

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69
Q

What are the main types of hair?

A

Lanugo - fine long hair in fetus
Vellus hair - fine short hair on all body surfaces
Terminal hair - coarse long hair on scalp, eyebrows, eyelashes, pubic areas

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70
Q

What stimulates sebaceous glands?

A

The conversion of androgens to dihydrotestosterone

Become active at puberty

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71
Q

What are the stages of wound healing?

A

Haemostasis - vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, clot formation
Inflammation - vasodilation, migration of neutrophils and macrophages, phagocytosis
Proliferation - granulation tissue formation, angiogenesis, re-epithelialisation
Remodelling - collagen fibre re-organisation, scar maturation

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72
Q

What is the difference between cellulitis and erysipelas?

A

Cellulitis - deep subcutaneous tissue, spreading bacterial infection
Erysipelas - acute superficial form of cellulitis, involves the dermis and upper subcutaneous tissue

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73
Q

What are the causes of cellulitis?

A

Strep pyogenes and Staph aureus

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74
Q

What are risk factors for cellulitis/erysipelas?

A
Immunosuppression
Wounds 
Leg ulcers 
Toeweb intertrigo 
Minor skin injury
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75
Q

What is the presentation of cellulitis?

A

Most common in the lower limbs
Local signs of inflammation - swelling, erythema, warmth, pain
May be associated with lymphangitis
Systemically unwell; fever, malaise, rigors; particularly with erysipelas

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76
Q

How can erysipelas be distinguished from cellulitis in clinical presentation?

A

Well defined red raised border

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77
Q

What is the management of cellulitis?

A

Antibiotics e.g. flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav in severe cellulitis
Supportive care - rest, leg elevation, sterile dressings, analgesia

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78
Q

What are the complications of cellulitis?

A

Local necrosis
Abscess
Septicaemia

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79
Q

What is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

Commonly seen in infancy and early childhood

Production of circulating epidermolytic toxins from phage group II, benzylpenicillin resistant staph

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80
Q

What is the presentation of scalded skin syndrome?

A
Develops within few hours to few days 
May be worse over the face, neck, axillae, groins 
Scald like skin appearance followed by large flaccid bulla
Perioral crusting is typical 
Intraepidermal blistering 
Painful lesions 
Eruption can be more localised 
Recovery within 5-7 days
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81
Q

What is the management of scalded skin syndrome?

A

Antibiotics - systemic penicillinase resistant penicillin, fusidic acid, erythromycin or appropriate cephalosporin.
Analgesia

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82
Q

What is a superficial fungal infection?

A

Common and mild infection
Superficial layers of the skin, nails and hair
Can be severe in immunocompromised individuals

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83
Q

What is the cause of superficial fungal infections?

A

Dermatophytes - tinea/ringworm
yeasts e.g. candidas, malassezia
Moulds e.g. aspergillus

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84
Q

What is the presentation of the different types of ringworm?

A

Usually unilateral and itchy

Tinea corporis - trunk and limbs, itchy, circular or annular, clearly defined, raised edge

Tinea cruris - groin and natal cleft, very itchy, same presentation of lesions

Tinea pedis - athlete’s foot, moist scaling and fissuring in toewebs, spreading to sole

Tinea manuum - infection of hand, scaling and dryness in palmar creases

Tinea capitis - scalp, patches of broken hair, scaling and inflammation
If untreated, raised pustular spongy mass known as kerion can form.

Tinea unguuim - infection of nail, yellow discolouration, thickened, crumbly nails

Tinea incognito - inappropriate treatment of tinea infection with topical or systemic steroids, leads to ill-defined and less scaly lesions

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85
Q

What is the appearance of candidiasis?

A

Candidal skin infection
White plaques on mucosal areas
Erythema with satellite lesions in flexures

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86
Q

What is the presentation of tinea versicolour/pityriasis?

A

Infection with Malassezia furfur

Scaly pale brown patches in upper trunk that fail to tan on sun exposure, usually asymptomatic

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87
Q

What is the management of superficial fungal infections?

A

Establish correct diagnosis with skin scrapings, hair or nail clippings, skin swabs if yeast
General measures - treat precipitating factors e.g. underlying immunosuppression, moist
Topical antifungals e.g. terbinafine
Oral antifungals e.g. itraconazole for severe widespread infections
Avoid use of topical steroids as can lead to tinea incognito

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88
Q

What is folliculitis?

A

Infection of the superficial part of a hair follicle with Staph aureus produces small pustule on erythematous base

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89
Q

What are common warts?

A

Raised cauliflower like lesions
Occur most frequently on hands, scattered or grouped
Cryotherapy to treat

Mainly due to HPV 2

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90
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum?

A

Due to poxvirus
Pearly pink papules
Central umbilication with keratin plug

Resolve spontaneously

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91
Q

What can cause a wart?

A

Infection - direct/indirect contact

Damaged epithelial barrier

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92
Q

What are the clinical findings of plantar warts?

A

Beneath pressure points
Either sharply defined rounded lesions or mosaic
Warts do not maintain skin markings
Can have rough keratotic surface

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93
Q

What is the appearance of anogenital warts?

A

Usually multiple
May have discomfort, bleed
Smooth, verrucous, lobules
Skin coloured or erythematous or hyperpigmented

Not all are sexually transmitted
However in children - possibility of sexual abuse

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94
Q

What is the management of warts?

A

Feet, hands, trunk - salicylic acid, cryosurgery

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95
Q

What lesions are seen in herpes simplex?

A

Type 1 HSV cold sore
Type 2 HSV genital herpes

Following primary infection, settles in sensory ganglia and then produces recurrent lesions by different stimuli

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96
Q

What are risk factors for candida infection?

A

Topical and systemic steroid therapy
Immunosuppression of any aetiology e.g. lymphoma, AIDS
Broad spectrum antibiotics
Diabetes mellitus

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97
Q

What is angular chellitis?

A

Inflammation at corners of mouth

Due to infection with candida or staph and prominent creases of the mouth
Saliva drawn into corners
Ill-fitting dentures

Modification of dentures may help
Treatment with imidazole/hydrocortisone

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98
Q

What is pityriasis versicolor?

A

Yeasts - malassezia
Normal skin commensals present in pilosebaceous follicles

On fair skin - pink/light brown macules
Pigmented skin - patchy hypopigmentation

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99
Q

What is the diagnosis and treatment of pityriasis versicolor?

A

Microscopic examination
Spores and hyphae

Selenium sulphide - shampoo on skin just before bathing

Topical imidazole antifungal creams

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100
Q

What is the aetiology of scabies?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei
From prolonged contact

Female scabies mite burrows in epidermis, lays eggs in the burrow

Itching begins 4-6 weeks after

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101
Q

What are the clinical features of scabies?

A

Itching, worse at night
Burrows - hands and feet, sides of fingers and toes
Often mild erythema around
Rash - inflammatory papules, occur mainly around axillae and umbilicus, and thighs

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102
Q

How can scabies be diagnosed?

A

Microscopy - mites, eggs etc

Skin scrapings

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103
Q

What is the treatment of scabies?

A

Topical agents from neck to toe

Malathion 0.5%, permethrin
Wash off after 8-12 hours

Topical antipruritic e.g. crotamiton 10% with hydrocortisone

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104
Q

What is crusted norwegian scabies?

A

Uncommon, lots of mites present in crusted lesions on the skin

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105
Q

What are the clinical findings of syphilis?

A

Primary stage:
Mainly glans penis, vulva or cervix
Solitary small firm red painless papule, becomes an indurated ulcer
Heals after 4-8 weeks with or without treatment

Secondary
Untreated infection manifests on skin and mucous membranes
Rash - not itchy, lesions distributed symmetrically, coppery red
Rounded oval macules
Systemic upset

Latent
No clinical signs of active infection

Tertiary
Affects approx 25% of untreated patients, slowly progressive
Solitary granulomatous plaque or nodule
CNS involvement

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106
Q

What can the herpes simplex virus cause?

A

Herpetic gingivostomatitis - HSV1 infection, 5-7 days and fully resolves within 2 weeks

Herpes labialis - cold sore
triggers e.g. UV, trauma, stress
Grouped vesicles on lips and perioral skin, crusts over

Herpes genitals
HSV-1 or 2
External genitalia, dysuria
Treat with prophylactic aciclovir

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107
Q

What causes chickenpox?

A

Varicella zoster
Highly contagious
Spread through contact with lesions or infected droplets - cough/sneeze

Become symptomatic 10 days - 3 weeks afterwards
No longer contagious when all lesions crusted over

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108
Q

What is the presentation of chickenpox?

A

Widespread erythematous
Raised, vesicular
Blistering lesions

Usually starts on trunk or face, spreads outwards
Affects whole body after 2-5 days

Lesions scab over

Fever first symptom
Itch
General fatigue and malaise

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109
Q

What are the complications of chickenpox?

A
Bacterial superinfection
Dehydration
Conjunctival lesions
Pneumonia
Encephalitis - ataxia

Can then lie dormant in dorsal root ganglion, reactivate later in life as shingles or ramsay hunt

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110
Q

What is the management?

A

Pregnant women not immune need varicella zoster immunoglobulins following exposure

Aciclovir for immunocompromised

Calamine lotion and chlorphenamine for itching

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111
Q

What is the morphology of herpes zoster virus?

A

Shingles rash

Closely grouped red papules
Become vesicular, then pustular, continuous band
Along dermatome

Lymph nodes draining the affected area are enlarged and tender

New vesicles continue to appear for several days

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112
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

Peripheral facial nerve palsy
Accompanied by an erythematous vesicular rash on the ear - HZ oticus or mouth

Infection involving the facial nerve, sensory nerve zoster causes pain and vesicles in affected distribution

Nerve palsy due to pressure on facial nerve motor fibres

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113
Q

What is herpes zoster ophthalmicus?

A

Hutchinson’s sign - tip of the nose, skin at inner corner of the eye, root and side of the nose

Without antiviral treatment can develop eye disorders, e.g. conjunctivitis, keratitis, uveitis, optic neuritis

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114
Q

What is the management of herpes zoster?

A

Oral antiviral therapy e.g. aciclovir, 800mg 5x a day for seven days

For postherpetic neuralgia - TCAs e.g. amitriptyline

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115
Q

What can be triggers of atopic eczema?

A

Soap and detergents
Overheating, rough clothes
Stress
Skin infection

Animal dander, house mites
Food
Aeroallergens - pollens

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116
Q

What differentials would you consider for itchy eruptions?

A
Eczema
Scabies
Urticaria
Lichen Planus
Tinea - pedis, capitis, corporis
Candida
Chicken pox
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117
Q

How would an eczematous lesion appear?

A

Dry, erythematous patches

Acute is erythematous, vesicular and exudative

Ill defined erythema
Dry skin, fine scale
Excoriations
Lichenification

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118
Q

How would you investigate eczema?

A

Patch testing
Serum IgE
Skin swab

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119
Q

What are the steps to management of atopic eczema?

A

Flare up - moderate to potent topical steroid e.g. Betnovate or Elocon
Sedating antihistamine e.g. chlorpheniramine if sleep disturbance

Long term management -
Emollient therapy; creams and gels moisturisers, soap substitutes e.g. Dermol

Topical steroids
Use lowest potency, moisturisers dry for 20 mins first e.g. hydrocortisone, Betnovate, Dermovate (strong)

Bandages, Clinifast, wet wraps

Consider topical calcineurin inhibitors e.g. tacrolimus

Can use light therapy or oral corticosteroids
Manage secondary infections with appropriate antibiotics

120
Q

What is the step wise progression of topical corticosteroids for eczema?

A

Hydrocortisone
Eumovate - Clobetsone Butyrate 0.05%
Betnovate - Betamethasone Valerate 0.1%
Dermovate - Clobetasol Propionate 0.05%

121
Q

What features may be associated with scabies?

A

Secondary eczema

Impetigo

122
Q

What is lichen planus?

A

Fairly common non infectious rash in adults

Lichen - small bumps on the skin, planus - flat
As flat topped papules

123
Q

What are the clinical findings in lichen planus?

A

Most common on flexural aspects of wrists, ankles, lumbar region

Shiny flat topped papules
White lines - Whickham’s striae transverse skin

Linear grouped lesions in scratch marks - Koebner’s

Papules flatten over few months, replaced by hyperpigmentation

124
Q

Where can lichen planus be found?

A

Wrists, ankles, back

Mucosal lesions - mouth and vulva
White lacework pattern

Can arise due to contact allergic dermatitis to mercury in fillings

125
Q

How would you investigate lichen planus?

A

Skin biopsy

126
Q

How would you manage lichen planus?

A

Corticosteroids - topical, oral if extensive
Antihistamines
Benzydamine mouth wash if oral

127
Q

Which drugs can cause lichenoid eruptions?

A

Thiazides
Gold
Quinine

128
Q

What are the timescales for SSSS?

A

Develop within few hours to few days

Recover within 5-7 days

129
Q

What nail changes can be seen in eczema?

A

Nail pitting and ridging

130
Q

How is mild eczema treated?

A

Reduce exposure to the trigger
Regular use of emollients - generous use!
Intermittent corticosteroids - 1% hydrocortisone

131
Q

How long should 1% hydrocortisone be used for in mild eczema?

A

48 hours after the flare up has calmed down

132
Q

How is moderate eczema treated?

A

as above
Moderately potent topical steroid - 0.025% betamethasone
Non-sedating anti-histamine to help with itch
Topical calcineurin inhibitors for prevention- tacrolimus

133
Q

How is severe eczema treated?

A

Potent corticosteroid - 0.1% betamethasone or 0.05% clobetasone

Flexural areas and face - 0.025% betamethasone
Antihistamine

134
Q

How are infected wounds in eczema treated?

A

Swab all infected area
Empirical Antibiotics - flucloxacillin or clarithromycin if pen allergic

Pick antibiotic based on sensitivity from swab

135
Q

What is herpetic whitlow?

A

Painful blisters on fingers or thumb

136
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

A chronic inflammatory skin disease due to hyperproliferation (abnormal T cell proliferation) of keratinocytes and inflammatory cell infiltration

137
Q

What are common triggers in psoriasis?

A
Stress
Alcohol - heaving drinking
Smoking - palmoplantar pustulosis and chronic plaque
Trauma
Strep infections
Drugs - lithium, certain anti-malarials e.g. hydroxychloroquine
Pregnancy
Sunlight

Severe psoriasis identified as HIV indicator condition

138
Q

What are some of the types of psoriasis?

A
Chronic plaque - most common
Seborrheic - naso-labial and retro-auricular
Flexural (body folds)
Pustular 
Erythrodermic
139
Q

What is the morphology of psoriasis?

A

Large plaque or small plaque psoriasis
Ruby red
Well defined
With silvery surface scale

Lesions can sometimes be itchy, burning or painful

50% have associated nail changes e.g. pitting, onchyolysis

140
Q

What is Auspitz sign?

A

When adherent psoriatic scales are scraped or picked off - causes bleeding

141
Q

What is the management of psoriasis?

A

General measures - avoid triggers

Emollients to reduce scale

Topical therapies, spray foam version Enstilar - Vitamin D and corticosteroid (betamethasone)

Continue Vit D analogues, coal tar, retinoids, keratolytics

Phototherapy for extensive disease

Oral therapies if severe - methotrexate, ciclosporins

CVD and arthritis risk

142
Q

What complications are associated with psoriasis?

A

Erythroderma

Psychological/social changes

143
Q

What are the four major features of acne vulgaris?

A

Androgen induced seborrhoea, excess grease
Comedone formation - due to abnormal proliferation, controlled by androgens
Colonisation of pilosebaceous duct with cutibacterium acnes
Production of inflammation

Androgens lead to seborrhoea and comedone formation, leads to changes in ductal micro environment results in P acnes colonisation and inflammation

144
Q

What factors can modify acne?

A
Hormonal factors e.g. PCOS, endocrine disorders
UV light can benefit
Stress
Diet
Cosmetics
Topical and oral corticosteroids
Anabolic steroids
Lithium
Ciclosporin
Iodides taken orally
145
Q

What are the clinical findings of acne vulgaris?

A
Greasy skin - seborrhoea
Non inflamed lesions e.g. comedones 
Inflamed lesions
Scarring - loss of tissue, increased fibrous tissue
Pigmentation
146
Q

How is acne managed?

A

General measures
Topical therapies for mild acne
Oral therapies for moderate to severe acne
Oral retinoids

147
Q

What general measures are suggested for acne?

A

Don’t over clean
Choose make up cleaners appropriately
Avoid squeezing spots - scar
Maintain healthy diet

148
Q

What treatment is recommended dependent on the severity of acne?

A

Mainly comedonal - a topical retinoid e.g. adapelene, with benzoyl peroxide or isotretinoin

Mild to moderate papular/pustular - fixed combination treatment, ideally containing. benzoyl peroxide
adapalene + BPO, clindamycin, tretinoin

If not responding to treatment or more widely distributed - antibiotic e.g. lymecycline or doxycycline

Ideally 3 months treatment, patients need to remain on topical treatment

Initially single topical therapy then combo
Must prescribe with oral antibiotics, and COCP

149
Q

What topical therapies can be given for acne?

A

Benzoyl peroxide
Topical clindamycin (antibiotic based on guideline)
Topical retinoids

150
Q

What oral therapies can be given for acne?

A

Oral abx - doxycycline

Anti-androgen - female

151
Q

What do you have to be aware of with prescribing oral retinoids?

A

Oral retinoids such as Isotretinoid are teratogenic - girls must be on contraception and have regular LFT and lipid checks

152
Q

What complications are associated with acne vulgaris?

A

Post inflammatory hyperpigmentation
Scarring
Deformity
Psychological and social effects

153
Q

What is a pilar cyst?

A

Common benign cyst
Usually found on the scalp
Contains keratin and its breakdown products
Is lined by walls resembling the external root sheath of hair

154
Q

What are the clinical findings of a pilar cyst?

A

Most arise on the scalp
Smooth mobile firm round nodule
No punctum - unlike an epidermoid cyst

155
Q

What is the management of a pilar cyst?

A

Be aware of possibility of dermoid cyst - can present from birth to early childhood

Surgical treatment if problematic, complete excision

156
Q

What is an epidermoid cyst?

A

Very common cyst, contains keratin and its breakdown products, surrounded by an epidermoid wall

157
Q

What is the cause of epidermoid cyst?

A

Inflammation around a pilosebaceous follicle
Can therefore follow on from more severe lesions of acne vulgaris

Can result from deep implantation of the epidermis by a blunt penetrating injury

158
Q

What are the clinical findings of an epidermoid cyst?

A

Common on the face, neck, shoulders and chest

In dermis, raises epidermis to create firm elastic dome shaped protuberance
Mobile over deeper structures

Cysts found near skin are yellow-white
Lesions enlarge slowly

Infected cysts enlarge, become red and tender and discharge pus

159
Q

What is the management of epidermal cysts?

A

Can be dissected

Any recent infection must settle for at least 6 weeks

160
Q

What is seborrheic keratosis?

A

Benign overgrowth of epidermal keratinocytes

161
Q

What are the clinical findings of seborrheic keratosis?

A

Frequently asymptomatic, occasionally itch
Part/all of lesion can come away with minimal trauma

Trunk and face commonly affected

Lesions vary from brown to black, traumatised lesions are inflammed

Thickened acanthotic lesion - irregular verrucous surface, greasy appearance, stuck on lesion, 1-3cm in diameter

Leser-Trelat sign - abrupt appearance of multiple seborrhoeic keratoses that rapidly increase in their size and number

162
Q

What dermoscopic features are seen in seborrheic keratosis?

A

Acanthotic SK - thickened epidermis, scattered milia like cysts

Multiple fissures and ridges and cerbiform pattern

Grouped skin coloured globules with a central blood vessel

163
Q

What is the management of SK?

A

Do not usually need treatment, or can be treated by. liquid nitrogen

164
Q

What is a dermatofibroma?

A

Benign skin lesion

Believed to represent a traumatic reaction e.g. to an insect bite

165
Q

What are the clinical findings of dermatofibromas?

A

Commonly on limbs
Multiple lesions common

Most approx 5mm in size and slightly elevated
Tends to be red-brown
Pinching results in central dimpling

Central scar like white area
Very fine brown rounded peripheral pigment network

166
Q

What is a lipoma?

A

Common benign tumour of adipose tissue

Usually found in the subcutaneous tissue, and less commonly in internal organs

Usually solitary lesions or multiple, usually of no significance

167
Q

What are the clinical findings of a lipoma?

A

Subcutaneous nodule
Often lobulated
Soft doughy consistency

Overlying skin surface normal
Freely mobile over the lipoma

168
Q

What are the differentials for a lipoma?

A

Angiolipomas - lots of capillary proliferation

Lipomatosis - diffuse infiltration of structures with non-encapsulated adipose tissue

Dercum’s disease - deposits of tender adipose, ecchymoses and obesity

Cutaneous sarcomas

169
Q

What is the management of lipomas?

A

Most do not require treatment

Surgical excision can be for symptomatic lesions

170
Q

What are angiomas?

A

Cherry angioma or Campbell de Morgan spots - small numerous lesions

Soft red/purple nodules/papules

171
Q

What are infantile haemangiomas?

inc strawberry naevi

A

Rapidly growing, benign proliferations of endothelial cells

Tumours can be localised, segmental, superficial or deep

Usually most lesions do not need treatment

Urgent referral if likely to grow into important structure, interfere with feeding, on scalp leading to intracranial complications

172
Q

What is a pyogenic granuloma?

A

Common benign and rapidly growing vascular lesion, possibly resulting from trauma

173
Q

What are the clinical findings of a pyogenic granuloma?

A

Can arise on any part of the body, most common sites

Lesion is sudden in onset, grows rapidly and bleeds after minimal trauma

Starts as small red spot, quickly enlarges into a nodule

174
Q

What is the management of pyogenic granuloma?

A

Apply vaseline to surrounding skin to prevent irritation, keep dry

Main differential is hypomelanotic melanoma - so may need excision if suspicious

175
Q

What is impetigo?

A

Superficial bacterial skin infection

Usually caused by staph aureus, or less commonly streptococcus pyogenes

Can be bullous or non bullous

Passed on from an infected individual, or arise with no clear source of infection, enters skin at site of minor skin injury or secondarily to another skin condition e.g. chickenpox

176
Q

What are the clinical findings in non bullous impetigo?

A

Multiple lesions arise
Most commonly on exposed sites such as the face
Particularly around nose and mouth, limbs, in flexures

Initial lesion - thin walled vesicle, ruptures easily
Exudate dries, forms golden yellow or yellow-brown crusts; thicker if strep infection

Lesions extend gradually without healing, resolves without scarring in 2-3 wks

Lesions can become more widespread if underlying skin condition

177
Q

What is the presentation of bullous impetigo?

A

Small or large bullae arise over short period of time

Usually spread locally on face, trunk, buttocks, extremities

Bullae rupture less easily than non-bullous form
Initially contain clear fluid, then become cloudy

Buccal mucous membrane can be informed

178
Q

What are the investigations for impetigo?

A

Swabs of the vesicles can confirm diagnosis, bacteria and antibiotic sensitivities

179
Q

What is the management of impetigo?

A

Cover affected areas, wash hands regularly
Avoid school until lesions are healed and crusted over, or 48 hrs after abx started

Consider hydrogen peroxide 1% cream for people with localised non-bullous and not systemically unwell

OR topical fusidic acid for 7-10 days, or mupirocin if resistant

For more widespread infection - use systemic antibiotic for 7 days either flucloxacillin or erythromycin/clarithromycin

180
Q

What are some examples of paraneoplastic conditions?

A

Paraneoplastic dermatoses - group of skin conditions that have strong associations with internal malignancies

Malignant acanthosis nigricans - adenocarcinoma of stomach, GI tract, lung

Acanthosis palmaris/tripe palms

Paraneoplastic pemphigus

Carcinoid syndrome

181
Q

What is paraneoplastic pemphigus?

A

Rare group of immunobullous conditions affecting skin or mucous membranes

Painful blisters, denuded areas of the mouth, lips, oesophagus, skin

182
Q

What are the clinical features of paraneoplastic pemphigus?

A

Associated malignancy
Painful oral erosions
Generalised cutaneous eruption

Oral erosions severe, crusting on lips

Respiratory and GI tract complications

183
Q

What are the investigations for paraneoplastic pemphigus?

A

Skin antibodies
Skin biopsy - intact blister excised, peri-lesional skin for direct immunofluorescence
Histology - acantholytic cells, blisters, dead keratinocytes
DIF - IgG antibodies

184
Q

What is the management of paraneoplastic pemphigus?

A

Supportive

Identify and treat underlying malignancy

185
Q

What is bullous pemphigoid?

A

Blistering skin disorder

Autoantibodies against antigens between epidermis and dermis, causes sub-epidermal split in the skin

186
Q

What is the presentation of bullous pemphigoid?

A

Tense fluid filled blisters
On an erythematous base
Lesions often itchy
May be preceded by non specific itchy rash
Usually affects trunk and limbs, mucosal involvement less common

187
Q

What is the management of bullous pemphigoid?

A

General measures. - wound dressings where required, monitor for signs of infection

Topical therapies for localised disease - topical steroids

Oral therapies for widespread disease - oral steroids, oral tetracyclines, nicotinamide, immunosuppressive agents

188
Q

What is pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Blistering skin disorder
Usually affects the middle aged
Autoantibodies against antigens within the epidermis causing an intra-epidermal split in the skin

189
Q

What is the presentation of pemphigus vulgaris?

A

General measures, wound dressings, monitor for signs of infection
Good oral care if oral mucosa is involved
Oral therapies, high dose oral steroids, immunosuppressive agents e.g. methotrexate, azathioprine, cyclophosphamide

190
Q

What is generalised pustular psoriasis?

A

Rare

Presents with flares of widespread sterile pustules on a background of red and tender skin

191
Q

What are possible triggers for flares of pustular psoriasis?

A

Sudden withdrawal of injected or oral corticosteroids
Drugs e.g. lithium, aspirin, indomethacin, iodide and some beta blockers
Infection
Pregnancy

192
Q

What is the presentation of pustular psoriasis?

A

Skin is dry, fiery red, tender
Within hours, 2-3mm pustules
Pustules then coalesce

Systemic symptoms, fever, chills, headache, rapid pulse rate, loss of appetite and nausea

193
Q

What is the management of generalised pustular psoriasis?

A

Hospitalisation usually required, prevent further fluid loss, stabilise temp

Antibiotics
Aciretin
Systemic corticosteroids
Ciclosporin
Methotrexate
194
Q

What is vitiligo?

A

Acquired depigmenting disorder, complete loss of pigment cells/melanocytes

Thought to be autoimmune
Can present at any age

195
Q

What is the presentation of vitiligo?

A

Single or multiple patches of depigmentation, often symmetrical

Common sites are exposed areas e.g. face, hands, feet, body folds, genitalia

Favours sites of injury - Koebner phenomenon

196
Q

What is the management of vitiligo?

A

Minimise skin injury as cut, graze, sunburn etc can trigger new patch

Topical treatments e.g. topical steroids and calcineurin inhibitors e.g. tacrolimus and pimecrolimus
Phototherapy - UVB

Oral immunosuppressants e.g. methotrexate, ciclosporin, mycophenolate mofetil

197
Q

What is melasma?

A

Acquired chronic skin disorder, increased pigmentation in the skin

198
Q

What is the cause of melasma?

A

Thought to be due to genetic predisposition
Triggered by factors such as sun exposure, hormonal changes e.g. pregnancy and contraceptive pills

Pigmentation is caused by overproduction of melanin by melanocytes

199
Q

What is the presentation of melasma?

A

Brown macules - freckle like spots, or larger patches with an irregular border

Symmetrical distribution

Common sites - forehead, cutaneous upper lips and cheeks

200
Q

What is the management of melasma?

A
Lifelong sun protection
Discontinue hormonal contraceptive pills
Cosmetic camoflauge
Topical treatments - inhibit formation of new melanin, e.g. hydroquinone, azelaic acid, kojic acid, Vit C
Laser treatments with caution
201
Q

What is alopecia areata?

A

Chronic inflammatory disease affects hair follicle

Causes patchy non-scarring hair loss on the scalp

202
Q

What is the presentation of alopecia areata?

A

Most probably an autoimmune disorder

Characteristic initial lesion - circumscribed totally bald smooth patch, normal skin

Short broken hairs, exclamation mark hairs - seen around the margins

Initial patch may regrow, or further patches appear, can go on to lose all hair

Nail pitting

203
Q

What is the treatment of alopecia areata?

A

Patient more likely to have full regrowth, but most likely have more than one episode

Topical steroids e.g. dermovate, evidence limited
Intralesional steroids for patchy hair loss e.g. triamcinolone
Contact immunotherapy
Wigs, integrated hair systems, hats, false eyelashes

204
Q

What are the types of lupus?

A

Discoid lupus erythematous
Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematous
Systemic lupus erythematous

205
Q

What is the aetiology of lupus?

A

Autoimmune of unknown cause
Some cases can be drug-induced
Frequently provoked by UV exposure, tends to be more severe in smokers

206
Q

What are the features of SLE?

A
Common cutaneous features - 
Photosensitivity
Butterfly rash
Raynaud's phenomenon
Urticaria
Mouth ulceration
Non-scarring alopecia
Chillblain lupus
Non erosive arthritis
Episcleritis
Renal involvement
Cardiac - HTN, pericarditis
Pulmonary e.g. pleurisy
NS - migraine, epilepsy
207
Q

What are the investigations for lupus?

A

Autoantibodies ANA
Anaemia, leucopenia, thrombocytopenia
RF, ESR, (normal CRP)
Lupus anticoagulant

208
Q

What is the management of lupus?

A

SLE - systemic steroids, antimalarials in photosensitivity, immunosuppressive drugs

DLE and SCLE - first line potent topical steroid e.g. betnovate or dermovate
Hydrochloroquine, chloroquine

209
Q

What are some examples of vasculitis?

A

Small vessel - Henoch Schonlein purpura, septic, urticarial

Larger vessel - Polyarteritis nodosa, Wegeners (granulomatosis with polyangiitis) Churg-Strauss (allergic granulomatous angiitis) Giant cell arteritis

210
Q

What are the causes of vasculitis?

A
Idiopathic
infection - viral Hep B and C, bacterial - strep infections
Medications - penicillins, quinolones, NSAIDs, thiazides, anticonvulsants
Connective tissue disorders
Abnormal proteins
Inflammatory bowel disease
Haematological, malignancy
Physical factors - exercise
211
Q

What are the cutaneous clinical features of vasculitis?

A

Capillaritis - red brown discolouration of skin
Palpable purpura
Ulceration and necrosis
Nodules - subcutaneous, tender, discoloured, ulcerated
Livedo reticularis - livedoid discolouration of the skin in a reticular pattern
Urticaria
Subungal haemorrhages

212
Q

What is seen in the history of a venous ulcer?

A

Often painful
Worse on standing
History of venous disease e.g. varicose veins, DVT

213
Q

What is seen in the history of an arterial ulcer?

A

Painful, especially at night
Worse when legs elevated
History of atherosclerosis

214
Q

What is seen in the history of a neuropathic ulcer?

A

Often painless
Abnormal sensation
History of diabetes or neurological disease

215
Q

What are common sites for venous ulcers?

A

Malleolar areas, more common over medial than lateral malleolus

216
Q

What are common sites for arterial ulcers?

A

Pressure and trauma sites e.g. pretibial, supramalleolar, distal points e.g. toes

217
Q

What are common sites for neuropathic ulcers?

A

Pressure sites

Soles, heels, toes, metatarsal heads

218
Q

What are the clinical features in arterial ulcers?

A

Small, sharply defined deep ulcer, necrotic base

Cold skin
Weak or absent peripheral pulses
Shiny pale skin
Loss of hair

219
Q

What are the clinical features of venous ulcers?

A

Large, shallow irregular ulcer
Exudative and granulating base

Warm skin
Normal peripheral pulses
Leg oedema, haemosiderin, melanin deposition

Lipodermatosclerosis
Atrophie blanche - white scarring with dilated capillaries

220
Q

What are the clinical features of a neuropathic ulcer?

A

Variable in size and depth
Granulating base
May be surrounded by or underneath hyperkeratotic lesion e.g. callus

Warm skin
Normal peripheral pulses - unless a neuroischaemic ulcer
Peripheral neuropathy

221
Q

What are some investigations for the different types of ulcers?

A

Venous - normal ankle brachial pressure index of 0.8-1

In arterial ulcers - ABPI <0.8 suggesting arterial insufficiency - Doppler studies and angiography

Neuropathic ulcers - ABPI <0.8 - neuroischaemic
X-Ray excludes osteomyelitis

222
Q

What is the management of venous ulcers?

A

Compression bandaging after excluding arterial insufficiency

223
Q

What is the management of arterial ulcers?

A

Vascular reconstruction

Compression bandaging

224
Q

What is the management of neuropathic ulcers?

A

Wound debridement

Regular repositioning, appropriate footwear, good nutrition

225
Q

What are some differentials for an itchy eruption?

A

Eczema
Scabies
Urticaria
Lichen planus

226
Q

What are some differentials for a changing pigmented lesion?

A

Melanocytic naevi - develop during infancy, asymptomatic

Seborrhoeic wart

Malignant melanoma - features of ABCDE, >6mm
Treatment based on breslow thickness

227
Q

What are the differentials for a purpuric eruption?

A

Meningococcal septicaemia
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Vasculitis
Actinic purpura - arises in elderly population with sun damaged skin, on extensor surfaces

228
Q

What are the differentials for a red swollen leg?

A

Cellulitis - painful spreading rash, systemically unwell, do skin swabs, antibiotics

Venous thrombosis - pain, swelling, redness, risk factor, usually systemically well, do D dimer and doppler USS, give anticoagulants

Chronic venous insufficiency - heaviness or aching of leg, worse on standing, relieved by walking, discoloured oedematous leg, haemosiderin deposition, doppler USS, leg elevation, compression stockings, sclerotherapy

229
Q

What are local side effects from topical corticosteroids?

A
Skin atrophy
Telangiectasia
Striae
May mask, cause or exacerbate skin infections
Acne, allergic contact dermatitis
230
Q

What are some systemic side effects from oral corticosteroids?

A
Cushing's syndrome
Immunosuppression
Hypertension
Diabetes
Osteoporosis
Cataracts
Steroid induced psychosis
231
Q

What are some of the side effects of oral aciclovir?

A

GI upset, raised liver enzymes
Reversible neurological reactions
Haematological disorders

232
Q

What are the side effects of oral antihistamines?

A

Sedation

Anticholinergic effects - dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation

233
Q

What are some of the systemic side effects of topical/oral antibiotics?

A

Local skin irritation, allergy

GI upset, rashes, anaphylaxis, vaginal candidiasis, antibiotic associated infections e.g. C diff

234
Q

What are the side effects of oral retinoids?

A

Mucocutaneous reactions e.g. dry skin, dry lips, dry eyes, disordered liver function, hypercholesterolaemia, hypertriglyceridaemia, myalgia, arthralgia, depression

Teratogenicity - effective contraception one month before, during and one month after isotretinoin
Two years after Acitretin

235
Q

What are the local and systemic side effects of biological therapies?

A

Local - redness, swelling, bruising at site of injection

Allergic reactions, antibody formation, flu-like symptoms, infections, hepatitis, demyelinating disease, heart failure, blood problems, rare reports of cancers

236
Q

What adverse effects are associated with methotrexate?

A
Mucositis
Myelosuppression
Pneumonitis
Pulmonary fibrosis
Liver fibrosis
237
Q

What are the rules surrounding methotrexate use and pregnancy?

A

Women - avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment stopped

Men - use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment stop

238
Q

How should methotrexate be prescribed?

A

Weekly

Folic acid 5mg once weekly co-prescribed - more than 24hrs after methotrexate dose

Methotrexate Mondays Folate Fridays

239
Q

How should patients on methotrexate be monitored?

A

FBC
U&E
LFT

Before treatment
Weekly until stabilised
Every 2-3 months thereafter

240
Q

What interactions with methotrexate should you be aware of?

A

Avoid trimethoprim/co-trimoxazole - increase risk of marrow aplasia

High dose aspirin increase risk of methotrexate toxicity secondary to reduced excretion

241
Q

Should a patient have a methotrexate toxicity, how should it be managed?

A

Folinic acid

242
Q

What is pityriasis rosea?

A

Generalised self limiting rash

May be caused by human herpes virus, but unsure

243
Q

What is the presentation of pityriasis rosea?

A

Characteristic herald patch - more than 2cm in diameter
Occurs on torso

Widespread faint red or pink, slightly scaly oval shaped lesions rash
Christmas tree arrangement along lines of the ribs

Generalised itch
Low grade pyrexia
Headache
Lethargy

244
Q

What is the management of pityriasis rosea?

A

Rash resolves without treatment in 3 months
Can leave discolouration of skin
Emollients, topical steroids, sedating antihistamines at night to help with sleep - chlorphenamine

245
Q

What occurs in head lice?

What is the management?

A

Due to close contact
Itchy scalp
Detection combing
Dimeticone 4%

246
Q

What are the characteristics of basal cell carcinoma?

A

Slow-growing, locally invasive, malignant epidermal basal layer skin tumour

247
Q

What are the risk factors for BCC?

A

Exposure to UV light is main aetiological factor
Fitzpatrick skin types I & II: light skin, tans poorly

Male 
Mutations in PTCH, p53, ras 
Albinism 
Gorlin's syndrome 
Xeroderma pigmentosum 
Increasing age 
Previous skin cancers 
Immunosuppression e.g. AIDs, transplantation 
Carcinogens - ionising radiation, arsenic, hydrocarbons
248
Q

What is Gorlin-Goltz syndrome?

A

Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome
Rare autosomal dominant condition, mutation of PTCH1 gene

Early onset BCCS 
Broad nasal root 
Palmar and plantar pits 
Bifid ribs 
Hypertelorism - wide spaced eyes 
Calcification of faux cerebri
249
Q

What are the clinical features of a typical nodular BCC?

A

TURP

Presence of irregular pink/skin coloured lesion
Commonly on face/neck

Telangiectasia
Ulceration
Rolled edges
Pearly edge

250
Q

What are the clinical sub-types of BCC?

A

Nodular
Superficial

Morphoeic
Pigmented
Basosquamous

251
Q

What are the features of nodular BCC?

A

Most cases of BCC
Occur mostly on head

Flesh/red coloured
Well defined borders
Overlying telangiectasias
Rodent ulcer - central ulceration

252
Q

What are the features of superficial BCC?

A

Erythematous plaque
Mostly on trunk/limbs

Slow-growing
May be dry/crusted
May have bluish tinge

Numerous of these may indicate arsenic exposure

253
Q

What are the features of morphoeic infiltrative BCC?

A

Scar-like lesion or indentation
Commonly occur on upper trunk or face

Whitish, compact
Poorly defined plaque/scar
Deeply invasive

254
Q

What are the features of pigmented BCC?

A

Difficult to distinguish from melanoma
Pigmentation due to melanin production, why it is hard

Often excised with 2mm margin as a result

255
Q

What are the features of basosquamous BCC?

A

Rare but agressive
Increased risk of recurrence and metastasis

Differentiation towards SCC
Has macro and histopathological features of both

256
Q

What surgical management is available for BCC?

A

Excision - wide local or Moh’s micrographic surgery for high risk lesions
Destructive - curettage, cautery, cryotherapy, carbon dioxide laser (these don’t provide histological sample, so low risk lesions only)

257
Q

What non-surgical management is available for BCC?

A

Radiotherapy -
Adjuvant

Prevent recurrence e.g. incompletely excised margins
Recurrent BCC
High risk BCCs; and surgery not appropriate

NB risk of radiation induced BCC in those with Gorlin’s

Topical immunotherapy e.g. Imiquimod
PDT

258
Q

What are the features of a high risk BCC lesion?

A

Size > 2cm
Site - around eyes, lips, ears

Poorly defined margins
Histological sub-type - morpoeic, infiltrative, micro nodular, basosquamous
Histological features - perineural, perivascular inv
Previous tx failure
Immunosuppression

259
Q

What are the surgical excision margins for BCC?

A

Lesions should be excised down to subcutaneous fat to ensure entirety of skin; epidermis and dermis is included in sample

Low risk lesions - (small <2cm, well defined) margin of 4-5mm = 95% clearance

High-risk lesions - (large >2cm poorly defined) 5mm provides 83% clearance

Recurrent lesions - referral to Skin MDT, re-excision of scar 5-10mm margins or Moh’s surgery and radiotherapy

260
Q

What is Moh’s surgery?

A

Surgical removal of tissue
Free margin removed can be less

Mapping piece of tissue, freezing and cutting, staining
Interpretation of slides, determines if any more needs to be removed
Possible reconstruction of surgical defect

261
Q

What is the system used to describe a skin lesion?

A

A - asymmetry
B - border irregularity

C - colour (varies)
D - diameter (greater than 6mm)
E - evolving (change in shape, size or shade)
F - funny looking

262
Q

Describe how BCC grow

A

Slow growing
Locally Invading

Very rarely metastasis

263
Q

What cells do BCCs arise from?

A

Epidermal tumours arising from hair follicles

264
Q

Describe the appearance of solar (actinic) keratoses:

A

On sun-exposed skin

Crumbly, yellow-white crusts

265
Q

What is the risk associated with actinic keratoses?

A

Malignant change to squamous cell carcinoma may occur after several years

266
Q

How should actinic keratoses be managed?

A

Cryotherapy or fluorouracil/imiquimod cream

267
Q

Describe the appearance of Bowen’s disease:

A

Slow growing red/brown scaly plaque

268
Q

How should Bowen’s disease be managed?

A

Cryo, topical fluorouracil, photodynamic therapy

269
Q

Describe the appearance of keratoacanthoma:

A

Dome-shaped erythematous lesions that grow rapidly and often contain a central pit of keratin

270
Q

name 3 genetic conditions associated with increased risk skin ca

A
  • gorlins syndrome (PTCH1 gene mutation leading to increased risk nevoid BCC)
  • xeroderma pigmentosa
  • albinism
271
Q

How should a suspected BCC be referred?

A
  • routine referral if suspect BCC

- 2WW if concern that delay would have impact either bc or site or feature of the lesion

272
Q

How should BCC be investigated?

A
  • excision biopsy
  • incision biopsy before non surgical treatment to confirm diagnosis
  • examine for lymphadenopathy
  • MRI or CT only when bony involvement suspected or tumour invaded major nerves, orbit or parotid gland
273
Q

What is squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Malignant tumour
Keratinising cells of the basal layer of the epidermis

Locally invasive
Potential to metastasise

274
Q

What are the risk factors for SCC?

A

UV light
Fair skin

Chemical carcinogens - arsenic, chromium, soot, tar and pitch oils
HPV
Ionising radiation exposure
Immunodeficiency
Chronic inflammation - near chronic ulcers, lupus vulgaris
Genetic conditions e.g. albinism, xeroderma pigmentosum
Pre-malignant conditions e.g. Bowen’s disease

275
Q

What are the features of actinic keratosis?

A

Macule or patch
On areas that receive large amounts of sunlight: head and neck, dorsum of hands, forearms

Erythematous base
Overlying scale
Typically non tender

276
Q

Where can invasive cutaneous SCC occur?

A

Arise from any cutaneous surface
Most frequently head and neck

Legs, hands, forearms, shoulder, back, chest, abdomen

277
Q

What are the characteristics of a well differentiated invasive cSCC?

A

Papule, plaque or nodule
0.5-1.5cm or larger

Erythematous base
Rough scale, crusting
May have ulceration
Firm, indurated on palpation

278
Q

How do invasive cutaneous cSCC lesions evolve?

A

Grows over period of months
Becomes increasingly tender

More likely to ulcer and bleed

May present as a non-healing wound, asymptomatic

279
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for invasive cSCC?

A

Actinic keratosis
Superficial BCC

Warts
Pyogenic granuloma

280
Q

What are the investigations for SCC?

A

Visual inspection and removal for histology where necessary

Excision biopsy - whole lesion excised

Incisional or punch biopsy if lesion in large, in cosmetically sensitive areas, close to vital structures

If advanced disease - imaging including CT scanning for bone or soft tissue spread, MRI scan
Clinically enlarged nodes should be examined histologically e.g. by fine needle aspiration

281
Q

At which sites can squamous cell carcinoma of the skin develop from (predisposing sites)?

A

Actinic keratoses, lips of smokers, or in long standing ulcers (Marjolin’s)

282
Q

What are the features of suspicious of melanoma?

A

ABCDE

Asymmetry 
Border - irregular 
Colour - alterations 
Diameter >6mm 
Evolving lesions
283
Q

What are risk factors for melanoma?

A

Exposure to UV light
Severe sun burn

Immunosuppression
Skin types I and II
Family history
Genetic mutations

284
Q

What biopsy is available for melanoma?

A

Excision biopsy of the suspicious lesions
Completely excised with a margin of 1-2mm of healthy surrounding skin

Includes portion of subcutaneous fat to ensure full-thickness of dermis sampled

Orientation important - longitudinal lesions preferred on the limbs

Incisional biopsy - punch or incision for small sample for large lesions or close to vital structures - eyes, ears, nose

285
Q

What are the major subtypes of melanoma?

A

Superficial spreading - initial radial growth progresses to vertical growth

Nodular - transition quickly to vertical growth

Acral lentiginous - under nails, hands and feet, black line on nail = Hutchinson’s sign

Lentigo maligna - common in elderly, chronically sun-exposed sites

Desmoplastic - very rare, due to abnormal deposits of collagen

286
Q

What are the features of histological analysis of melanoma?

A

Clark level:
I-V histological classification for depth of invasion

Breslow thickness (mm): 
Measured from stratum granulosum of epidermis or from bottom of ulceration to the point of maximum infiltration 

Ulceration:
Absence of intact epithelium overlying the lesion
Correlates with poorer prognosis, suggestive of aggressive tumour phenotype

Mitotic index
Indicator of cell turnover
Important histological finding
Number of mitoses per mm2

287
Q

What are the investigations for melanoma?

A

Careful skin and lymph node examination
FNA and cytology if suspicious lymph node

Total body CT or PET-CT for high-risk lesions - those with aggressive lesions, or presence of known lymph node spread

LDH (lactate dehydrogenase blood marker of cell turnover) for risk stratifying

288
Q

What is the surgical management of melanoma?

A

Wide local excision for primary melanoma, removal of biopsy scar, margin depends on Breslow thickness

Senital lymph node biopsy under GA at same time as WLE - radio-labelled tracer and CT identifies hot spots, further shown in surgery with blue dye
Positive SLNB results in subsequent lymphadenectomy

Electro-chemotherapy
For locally advanced melanoma
Chemo agent given IV or injected into the tumour, then powerful pulses of electricity applied to the tumour
Increases permeability of tumour cell membranes so chemo agent can pass through

289
Q

What is the medical management of melanoma?

A

Adjuvant therapy e.g. interferon alpha

Chemo, radio, immuno

290
Q

Describe the clinical features of melanoma

A
  • lesion changed in size
  • irregularity of pigmentation (may need dermatoscope to appreciate)
  • irregularity of outline
  • size >6mm
  • inflammation
  • oozing or bleeding
  • itch or altered sensation
  • risk factors identified
  • not all melanomas are pigmented but most are
291
Q

what are the criteria for melanoma 2WW

A
  • 2WW if 3 or more points from:
    2 points:
  • change in size
  • irregular shape
  • irregular colour
    1 point:
  • > 6mm
  • inflammation
  • oozing
  • change in sensation
292
Q

Describe the breslow scale

A

about depth of invasion at biopsy, strongly correlated with survival
- Tis= top layer of skin

  • T1= 1mm thick or less
  • T2= melanoma between 1 and 2mm thick
  • T3= 2-4mm thick
293
Q

Describe the Glasgow 7-point checklist for malignant melanoma and when you should refer:

A

Major (2pts): change in size, shape, colour
Minor (1pt): inflammation, sensory change, diameter >6mm, crusting/bleeding

Refer if 3+

294
Q

Where do malignant melanomas metastasise?

A

Bone, brain, lung, liver

295
Q

What are some poor prognostic indicators for malignant melanoma?

A

High Breslow thickness
Ulcerated

Node involvement
Location of head, neck, back of arms