derma Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

superficial, elevated, palpable lesion less or equal to 0.5cm; more than 0.5 cm

A

Papule/Plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

circumscribed color change without elevation or non palpable depression

A

Macule/Patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

like a papule but containing fluid

A

Vesicle/Bulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

dew drop vesicle

A

Chicken Pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

palpable, solid, deeper than papule; more than 0.5cm

A

Nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pale red, palpable, superficial lesion, evanescent, disappearing in 1-2 days. From edema in the papillary layer of the dermis. Allergy

A

Wheal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

like vesicle, only with purulent exudate as the fluid

A

Pustule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

an elevated lesion, fluid filled

A

Blister

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

depressed lesion with loss of surface epithelium

A

Ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

mixture of scale and serum- yellowish accretions on the surface of a lesion

A

Crust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

non raised red-brown non blanchable lesions - Dengue fever

A

Petechiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

epidermal hyperplasia, colon CA

A

Acanthosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

premature keratinization of cells below stratum granulosum

A

Dyskeratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

outer, waterproof, protective layer. Melanocytes and keratinocytes

A

Epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

collagen and elastin for toughness and elasticity

A

Dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

subcutaneous tissue, mainly fat. Padding, blood supply

A

Hypodermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

horney cell layer

A

stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

basal cell layer

A

stratum germinativum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

goose bumps

A

arrector pili muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

body odor

A

apocrine, eccrine, sebaceous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Simple, coiled, tubular

A

sweat gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A beta hemolytic strep, S aureus, or combo. Spread through close contact

A

Impetigo Contagiosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mild itching and soreness followed by eruption of small vesicles and pustules that rupture and crust

A

Impetigo Contagiosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Generally develops in body folds that are subject to FRICTION

A

Impetigo Contagiosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Infection of hair follicle that results in pustule formation - Staph aureus

A

Furunculosis (boils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Inflammation of hair follicle resulting 2nd blockage of apocrine gland

A

Hidradenitis Suppurativa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Begins as small papule that develop into deep dermal inflammation

A

Hidradenitis Suppurativa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Avoid use of antiperspirants, deodorants and shaving creams

A

Hidradenitis Suppurativa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Use medicated soaps and systemic antibiotics

A

Hidradenitis Suppurativa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Desquamation of keratinocytes within pilosebaceous unit, increased sebum production, proliferation of Propionibacterium acnes

A

Acne vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

1st treatment line of Acne vulgaris

A

Topical retinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2nd treatment line of Acne vulgaris

A

Salicylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Imflammation disease of hair follicle and sebaceous glands, sex hormone contributes

A

Acne vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

whiteheads, blackheads, flesh or red colored papules, pustures or cysts

A

Acne vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Chronic Acneform disorder of middle aged and older adults; period of exarcebation and remission

A

Acne Rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Vascular dilation of the central face(nose, cheek, eyelids, and forehead) Facial Erythema, Telangiectasias

A

Acne Rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Increased in hot or spicy food, drinking alcohol, temperature extremes and emotional reaction

A

Acne Rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Atopic, Varicose, Irritant contact dermatitis eg ring, Nummular

A

Eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

arises from direct skin exposure to an substance. Allergic or irritant

A

Allergic contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most common sensitizer of allergic contact dermatitis

A

plant oleoresin urushiol in poison ivy, oak, sumac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dermatographism

A

Urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

a type of allergic contact dermatitis

A

nickel dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Test for allergic contact dermatitis

A

patch test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How long does allergic contact dermatitis take

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Genetic factors plays a role

A

Psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Reddish papules that progress to plaque and progress to yellowish white scaly condition that tends to be located on the elbow, knees, trunk, genitalia, and umbilicus

A

Psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Mgt psoriasis that also modifies antireumatic drug

A

methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Additional mgt for psoriasis

A

glucocorticoids and kerolytic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

symmetrically distributed plaques involving the scalp, extensor elbows, knees and back

A

Plaque psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

abupt appearance of multiple small psoriatic lesions

A

Guttate psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

most severe form of psoriasis; erythema, scaling, sheets of superficial pustules with erosion

A

Pustular psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Intetriginous area

A

Inverse psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

More severe, need dermatologist, need oral therapy

A

erythrodermic and pustular psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

erythema multiforme (mucous membrane involvement)

A

Steven Johnson syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

number one reason for SJS

A

Sulfonamides (Co-trimoxazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

number two reason for SJS

A

Anticonvulsants(phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Another reasons for SJS

A

Allopurinol, Trimetoprin Sulfa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Rodent Ulcer

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pearly papules. Palisading nuclei

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Treatment of Basal cell carcinoma

A

excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Basal cell carcinoma features

A

sun exposed area, whipcord edge, central ulceration, locally invasive only, slow growing, danger near eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Keratin pearls

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

area of repeated trauma, chronic non healing wound

A

Marjolin’s ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Treatment of Squamous cell carcinoma

A

excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Features of Squmous cell carcinoma

A

Poorly defined edge, presistent scaly patch, metastasize, non pigmented, sun exposed area, nodular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Melanoma in women area

A

legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Melanoma in men area

A

back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Features of melanoma

A

asymmetry, varied pigments, change in shape or coulour or size, bleeding itching, satellite lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Progenosis of melanoma

A

depends of depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Cure of Melanoma

A

early excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Can Melanoma spread

A

Yes spreads easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

locally invasive

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

May metastasize

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

non usually pigmented

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

varied pigment

A

Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Whipcord edge

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

persistent scaly patch

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Asymmetry

A

Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Danger near eye

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Poorly defined edge

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

central ulceration

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

bleeding, itching, change in shape, colour or size

A

Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Most common type of melanoma

A

Superficial spreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is precursor lesion

A

Dysplastic nevus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the two classification used for prognosis of melanoma

A

Clack and Breslow classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Kawasaki rash resembles what

A

measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Kawasaki previously known as

A

mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

morbillform, maculopapular (red patch and bumps)

A

Kawasaki

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

1st most common vasculitis

A

Henoch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

2nd most common vasculitits

A

Kawasaki

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Skin peeling and periungual desquamation

A

Kawasaki

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Most serious complication of Kawasaki

A

coronary artery ds/ aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

txt of cad

A

aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

aspirin don’t give to febrile child due to

A

Reye’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

txt of kawasaki

A

IVIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Kawasaki fever lasts

A

more or equal to 5 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Marked irritability

A

child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How does skin of extremities affected

A

erythema, swelling, desquamation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How is the eye affected in Kawasaki fever

A

Bilateral conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Inflammation of lips, mouth and or tongue

A

Strawberry tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Strawberry tongue found also in?

A

Scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Cervical Lymphadenopathy unilateral or bilateral

A

unilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

7 yr itchy rash and fever for 1 day, feels unwell. Blisters on red base. New lesions are still appearing. Dx?

A

Chicken pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

whats another name for chicken pox

A

varicella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

when is varicella infectious?

A

from 1 to 2 days before rash develops, until after last lesion scaps over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Thin vesicle with honey colored crusting

A

Impetigo

108
Q

etiology of impetigo

A

Staph or strep

109
Q

how is impetigo spread

A

contact from fingers, towels, clothing

110
Q

whats treatment for impetigo

A

topical antibiotics, severe infection needs oral

111
Q

rash appears as small, dome shaped yellow pustules with hair shaft in the center

A

folliculitis

112
Q

as a result of contact/plugging with oil, dirt, sweat

A

folliculitis

113
Q

etiology of folliculities

A

staph

114
Q

deep or superficial infx of hair follicle (barbae, hot tub)

A

folliculitis

115
Q

deep extension of superficial folliculities into the dermis and subcutaneous tissue

A

furuncle boils

116
Q

cause of furuncle

A

staph

117
Q

1-5cm red/tender nodule with pus

A

furuncle boils

118
Q

treatment of furuncle simple lesion

A

warm compress

119
Q

treatment of furuncle severe lesion

A

drainage and antibiotics

120
Q

large deep abscess that is a progression of furuncle

A

carbuncle

121
Q

size 3-10cm

A

carbuncle

122
Q

associated symptoms of carbuncle

A

fever and chills

123
Q

treatment of carbuncle

A

drainage and antibiotics

124
Q

acute inflammation of skin

A

cellutitis

125
Q

redness, swelling, warmth and tenderness of affected area within 1-2 days of injury

A

cellutitis

126
Q

etilogy of cellulitis

A

staph or strep, complication of wound and trauma

127
Q

border of cellutitis

A

defined and change rapidly

128
Q

Super bug caused by staph

A

methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus

129
Q

treatment of mrsa

A

vancomycin

130
Q

risks factor of mrsa

A

recent hospitalization, long term care, recent antibiotic use, young age, contact sports, sharing towel,

131
Q

most severe staph scaled skin syndrom

A

Ritter’s syndrom

132
Q

Splitting of the skin destruction of basal layer

A

exfoliating toxin

133
Q

itchy red bown scaling annular plaque expands peripherally in extremities and trunk

A

tinea corporis

134
Q

vesicles/erosion on the soles of the foot and between toes

A

tina pedis athlete foot

135
Q

athlete foot txt

A

antifungal cream/powder (micronazole), keep feet dry

136
Q

red brown scaling plaque with snake like border

A

tinea cruris tinea of groins

137
Q

another name of tinea cruris

A

jock itch

138
Q

red/scaly rash on inner thighs/inguinal creases on buttock, no scrotum or labia. Common in obese, athlete

A

tinea cruris tinea of groins

139
Q

dark lines between fingers and toes, body flexures, nipples and genitalia.

A

scabies

140
Q

excoriation, pustules and papules caused by itching tends hide true cause

A

scabies

141
Q

extreme nocturnal itching (tunnels and lays egg)

A

scabies

142
Q

mgt of scabies

A

permethrin 5%

143
Q

treat itching

A

topical corticosteroids

144
Q

other mgt of scabies

A

washing of bedding and cloths

145
Q

rash 2-4 days after prodrome, 14 days after exposure, maculo papular becomes confluent, begins on face and head. Persists 5-6 days. Fades in order of appearance.

A

measles

146
Q

etiology of varicella

A

herpes virus DNA

147
Q

primary infection results in varicella

A

chicken pox

148
Q

recurrent infection results in

A

herpes zoster(shingles)

149
Q

txt of varicella

A

acyclovir

150
Q

dew drop rose petal

A

varicella

151
Q

incubation of varicella

A

14-16 days (10-21 days range)

152
Q

mild prodrome of varicella

A

1-2 days

153
Q

predilection fo varicella

A

appear first on head; most concentrated on trunk

154
Q

sccessive crops of pruritic vesicles

A

2-4 days

155
Q

Hallmark of varicella rash

A

vesicular lesions

156
Q

series of varicella

A

macules-maculopapular-vesicular-crusting-scab formation

157
Q

predilection of varicella

A

lesions first on scalp, face or trunk. At any point in time lesion in various stages are observed

158
Q

clear papules c superficial ulcerations/erosions

A

Herpes Simplex

159
Q

What types of herpes simplex

A

viral infection either type 1 or type 2

160
Q

treatment of herpes simplex

A

oral antiviral acyclovir

161
Q

predilection in wrestler

A

herpes gladiatorum

162
Q

predilection in lips

A

herpes labialis

163
Q

reactivation of varicella virus

A

herpes zoster(shingles)

164
Q

varicella zoster associatios

A

aging, immunosupression,intrauterine exposure, varicella at

165
Q

reactivation of varicella virus

A

shingles

166
Q

another name for varicella virus

A

Chicken pox

167
Q

painful rash, prickly nerve pain along dermatomal distribution

A

herpes zoster(shingles)

168
Q

Usual demartome location

A

thoracic dermatome

169
Q

treatment of herpes zoster

A

symptomatic pain, calamine lotion, carbamazepine, gabapentin

170
Q

Herpes virus 6

A

Roseola infantum

171
Q

Roseola infantum timing

A

non seasonal but peaks during summer

172
Q

Roseola infantum age

A

peak age 7 to 13 months (virtually all cases in less than 2 years)

173
Q

Mild illness in children; adults may have arthralgia and arthritis

A

erythema infectiosum

174
Q

etilogy of erythema infectiosum

A

parvovirus B19

175
Q

OB complication of parvovirus

A

intrauterine infection - fetal hydrops, fetal death, miscariage, no congenital malformation associated

176
Q

Hallmark sign of erythema infectiosum

A

slapped cheek appearance and circumoral pallor

177
Q

how does this rash happen in erythema infectiosum?

A

rash, erythematous, maculopapular on trunks and limbs -> fluctuation in intensity of rash, pruritic over extensors (1-3 weeks)

178
Q

Where does it goes pruritic?

A

extensor?

179
Q

how does extensor look like?

A

lace like pattern on the extensor surface of arm

180
Q

how can you diagnose?

A

clinically

181
Q

treatment of erythema infectionsum

A

no specific anti viral drug

182
Q

for chronic infection in immunodeficient patient what treatment?

A

IVIG

183
Q

When is erythema infectiosum the most infectious?

A

before illness onset

184
Q

when is erythema infectiosum the least infectious?

A

after onset of rash

185
Q

maculopapular rash starts as petechia rash on ankles and wrist and then spreads to the trunk, palms, soles and face in a centripetal rash

A

rocky mountain spotted fever

186
Q

what is the vector

A

tick: dermacentor

187
Q

mode of action of tick

A

invades endothelial lining of capillaries and vasculitis

188
Q

where does the rash start?

A

ankles and wrist

189
Q

where does it spread?

A

trunk, palms, soles and face

190
Q

in what fasion does it spread

A

centripetal rash

191
Q

in what day does the rash start

A

day 6

192
Q

what is the etiology agent of syphilis

A

treponema pallidum

193
Q

how is it transmitted

A

sexually

194
Q

how many stages does syphilis have?

A

3 stages

195
Q

what is the first stage of syphilis?

A

classic chancre.

196
Q

whats the characteristic of the classic chancre?

A

1-2 cm ulcer with raised indulated border

197
Q

how is the pain scale?

A

usually painless

198
Q

where does the painless happen

A

occurs at site of innoculation

199
Q

how does it heal

A

heals spontaneously

200
Q

premalignant lesions that develop only on sun damaged skin

A

actinic keratoses (ak)

201
Q

how does ak appear?

A

patches of hyperkeratosis

202
Q

how does the surrounding look like?

A

with some surrounding erythema on sun exposed area

203
Q

where do you see this the most?

A

head and neck, forearm and hands and upper back

204
Q

vesicular bullous eruptions of palms and soles

A

Pemphigus syphiliticus

205
Q

what is the general name of pemphigus syphliticus

A

early congenital syphilis

206
Q

what is the characteristics of skin for pemphigus syphiliticus

A

desquamation

207
Q

what are the other associated symptoms of pemphigus syphiliticus

A

bony lesion, osteochondritis, periostitis, pseudoparalysis

208
Q

what are the lesions found in the eye

A

chorioretinitis, salt and pepper fundus

209
Q

where do you eight nerve deafness, interstitial keratitis, hutchinson teeth

A

late congenital syphilis

210
Q

what is the triad of hutchinson’s triad

A

eighth nerve deafness, interstitial keratitis, hutchinson’s teeth

211
Q

what is the joint lesion for late congenital syphilis

A

clutton’s joint

212
Q

what is facial lesions for late congenital syphilis

A

frontal bossae of parrot, short maxilla, saddle nose

213
Q

what is the wrong with the mandible in late congenital syphilis

A

relative protuberant mandible

214
Q

what’s wrong with the extremities in late congenital syphilis

A

saber shin

215
Q

what’s wrong with the teeth in late congenital syphilis

A

hutchinson’s teeth and Mulberry molars

216
Q

what is the hutchingson’s triad

A

eighth nerve deafness, interstitial keratitis, hutchinson’s teeth

217
Q

what is vesicular bullous eruption of palms and soles and where do u see that

A

pemphigus syphiliticus and early congenital syphilis.

218
Q

normal reticulated mottling of the skin caused by vascular response to cold

A

Cutis marmorata harlequin color change in newborn

219
Q

thrombocytopenia and eczema

A

wiskott aldrich

220
Q

malar rash - butterfly rash

A

SLE

221
Q

Heliotrope rash

A

dermatomyositis

222
Q

dermatomyositis associated with

A

breast cancer

223
Q

helitrope rash associated with

A

periorbital eyelids

224
Q

shagreen patch and ash leaf spot and adenoma sebaceum

A

tuberus sclerosis

225
Q

tuberus sclerosis presents with

A

epilepsy

226
Q

spider cells

A

rhabdomyoma

227
Q

portwine stain v1 -v2-v3 presents with brain tumor

A

surge weber syndrome

228
Q

long arm of chromosome 17

A

von recklinghousen disease

229
Q

von recklinghousen disease associated with

A

neurofibromatosis 1 and lisch nodule

230
Q

lesions on langer’s line

A

pityrisiasis rosea

231
Q

loss of melanocytes

A

vitiligo

232
Q

moa of loss of melanocytes

A

autosomal, neurohumoral, self destruction by melanocytes

233
Q

absense of melanin; lack of defect in tyrosinase/ tyrosine hydroxynase

A

albinism

234
Q

immunodeficiency and albanism

A

chediak higashi

235
Q

depletion of melanosomes in keratinocytes. Fungal infection

A

pityriasis vesicolor

236
Q

melanocytes lives where

A

stratum basale/ germinativum

237
Q

hypopigmentations

A

vitiligo,albanism, chediak higashi, pityriasis vesicolor

238
Q

hyperpigmentation

A

freckles, melasma, lentigo

239
Q

worst form ? Balness

A

alopecia areata

240
Q

boiled lobster appearance and sand paper rash

A

Scarlet fever

241
Q

etiology of scarlet fever

A

strep pyogenes

242
Q

strep pyogenes belongs to what group

A

group A

243
Q

rheumatic fever

A

erythema nodosum

244
Q

iris lesion

A

erythema multiforme

245
Q

nocturnal itching

A

scabies

246
Q

scabies official name

A

sarcoptes scabie

247
Q

drug of choise of scabies

A

permethrine

248
Q

koplik’s spot

A

measles

249
Q

koplik’s spot location

A

oppsite the 2nd molar tooth, near the stensen duct

250
Q

measles associated symptoms

A

cough, colds, conjuntivitis

251
Q

black eschar and malignant pustule

A

cutaneous anthrax

252
Q

wool sorter’s disease

A

pulmonary anthrax

253
Q

hot tub folliculitis

A

pseudomonas aeroginosa

254
Q

itchyma gangrenosum

A

pseudomonas aeroginosa

255
Q

bull’s eye/ target lesion

A

lime disease

256
Q

erythema chronicum migrans

A

borrelia brugdoferi.

257
Q

etiology of borrelia

A

ixodes tick- anthropod vector

258
Q

blue berry muffin rash

A

congenital rubella

259
Q

herman’s rash

A

hemorragic dengue fever

260
Q

vascular response to cold in new born

A

harlequin rash

261
Q

coxsackie A

A

hand foot mouth disease

262
Q

purpuric ezcema

A

langerhan’s histiocytosis

263
Q

birbeck granules

A

tenis racket apperance

264
Q

purpuric ezcema , birdbeck granule

A

langerhan’s histiocytosis

265
Q

malasezzia furfur

A

tinea vesicolor