Derma Flashcards

1
Q

A 48/F laundrywoman and cleaner consulted for dryness and itchiness of her hands. She had multiple papules and vesicles on both palms and the lateral aspects of her fingers, some of which had erythematous bases and purulent discharge. Which of the following is an appropriate management for her condition?

a. Use latex gloves to protect her hands from harsh chemicals

b. Application of warm compress on bilateral hands

c. Treatment with low-potency glucocorticoid ointment or cream

d. Testing for secondary dermatophyte or bacterial infection

A

Testing for secondary dermatophyte or bacterial infection

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2
Q

A 23/F fashion model consulted for multiple inflamed papules and pustules most noticeable on her chin and forehead. She was initially started on benzoyl peroxide, but despite good compliance to therapy for the past three months, the lesions progressed to severe nodulocystic acne. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

a. Isotretinoin

b. Azelaic acid

c. Topical glucocorticoids

d. Spironolactone

A

Isotretinoin

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3
Q

A 50/M fair-skinned businessman consulted for multiple oval, erythematous, and hyperpigmented patches with minimal scaling on his chest, shoulders and back. KOH showed short hyphae and round spores. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen involved?

a. Malassezia furfur

b. Candida albicans

c. Trichophyton tonsurans

d. Microsporum spp.

A

Malassezia furfur

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4
Q

A 19/M consulted for multiple macules on the anterior chest with fine silver scales when scratched. Golden fluorescence was observed on Wood’s lamp examination. What is the most appropriate management?

a. Selenium sulfide shampoo

b. Topical glucocorticoids

c. Methotrexate

d. UV-B phototherapy

A

Selenium sulfide shampoo

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5
Q

A 47/F consulted for marked acral sclerosis that has been progressing proximally, associated with the presence of focal digital ulcers. Her skin appeared smooth and unwrinkled with evidence of perioral radial furrowing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on her cutaneous findings?

a. Scleroderma

b. Secondary Reynaud’s

c. Generalized morphea

d. Localized morphea

A

Scleroderma

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6
Q

Which of the following conditions is INCORRECTLY paired with its associated skin findings?

a. Primary herpes virus infection: generalized vesicles evolving into pustules and ulcerations

b. Typhoid fever: transient, blanchable erythematous macules and plaques usually on the trunk

c. Dengue fever: maculopapular rash beginning on the trunk and spreads centrifugally to extremities and face

d. Anthrax: pruritic papule enlarging and evolving into a painless ulcer eventually developing into a central eschar with edema

A

Primary herpes virus infection: generalized vesicles evolving into pustules and ulcerations

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7
Q

A patient presents with pruritic papules and vesicles on his axillae, scrotum and buttocks. He noted worsening of pruritus at night and after taking a hot bath. Which of the following is the organism most likely responsible for this patient’s presentation?

a. Ixodes scapularis

b. Pthirus pubis

c. Pediculus capitis

d. Sarcoptes scabiei

A

Sarcoptes scabiei

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8
Q

A 50/M presented with erythema, telangiectasis and superficial pustules on his nose and cheeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate set of interventions for the most likely condition?

a. Oral tetracycline, isotretinoin

b. Oral tetracycline, topical glucocorticoids

c. Oral tetracycline, topical metronidazole

d. Topical glucocorticoids, topical ketoconazole

A

Oral tetracycline, topical metronidazole

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9
Q

A 30/M presented with erythematous patches and plaques on his nasolabial folds and behind his ears. Which of the following is the most appropriate set of interventions for this patient?

a. Oral tetracycline, topical glucocorticoids

b. Topical glucocorticoids, topical ketoconazole

c. Topical metronidazole, topical glucocorticoids

d. Topical metronidazole, topical ketoconazole

A

Topical glucocorticoids, topical ketoconazole

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10
Q

What is the most common type of drug-induced cutaneous reaction?

a. Urticaria

b. Fixed drug eruption

c. Morbilliform eruption

d. Pigmentation changes

A

Morbilliform eruption

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11
Q

A patient was started on allopurinol for gout . He later presented with fever and nasal catarrh for several days then developed a diffuse rash involving the face, chest and upper extremities. Laboratory tests showed creatinine 5 mg/dL, and ALT and AST both 5x elevated. Tubular cell casts and eosinophils were found in the urine. What is the usual interval between drug initiation and onset of this cutaneous reaction?

a. 1 to 2 days

b. 1 to 2 weeks

c. 2 to 8 weeks

d. 4 to 14 weeks

A

2 to 8 weeks

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12
Q

Which of the following would herald a poor prognosis for a patient with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

a. Younger age

b. Admission to ICU

c. Early systemic glucocorticoids

d. Upper respiratory tract involvement

A

Upper respiratory tract involvement

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13
Q

Type of eczema characterized by deep-seated vesicles and scaling on palms and on lateral fingers, often associated with atopic diathesis.

a. Dyshidrotic eczema
b. Allergic contact dermatitis
c. Lichen simplex chronicus
d. Lichen planus

A

a. Dyshidrotic eczema

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14
Q

The following topical immunosuppressive agent is one used for atopic dermatitis
a. Azathioprine
b. Ciclosporin
c. Tacrolimus
d. Mycophenolate mofetil

A

c. Tacrolimus

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15
Q

In atopic dermatitis
a. Increased IgM levels
b. Decreased IgE levels
c. Increased serum IgE levels
d. Normal epidermal barrier

A

b. Decreased IgE levels

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16
Q

In atopic dermatitis, hyperpigmentation and scaling are found in
a. Dorsum of feet
b. Plantar areas of feet
c. Cheeks and scalp
d. Antecubital fossae

A

d. Antecubital fossae

17
Q

This type of papulosquamous disease is an immune-mediated disease characterized by sharply demarcated papules and plaques with silvery micaceous scale.
a. Pityriasis rosea
b. Lichen simplex chronicus
c. Pleva
d. Psoriasis

A

d. Psoriasis

18
Q

Type of papulosquamous disease with Koebner phenomenon, with onycholysis and nail thickening
a. Psoriasis
b. Pityriasis rosea
c. Dermatophytosis
d. pleva

A

a. Psoriasis

19
Q

This is precipitated by local irritants, pregnancy and systemic glucocorticoid withdrawal, and infections
a. Pustular psoriasis
b. Guttate psoriasis
c. Parapsoriasis
d. Pleva

A

a. Pustular psoriasis

20
Q

Histologic features seen in this disease - acanthosis and vascular proliferation
a. Pityriasis rosea
b. Parapsoriasis
c. Psoriasis
d. Lichen planus

A

c. Psoriasis

21
Q

This approved systemic therapy for psoriasis which is a phospodiesterase type 4 inhibitor has adverse effect of depression and hypersensitivity reaction.
a. Cyclosporine
b. Methotrexate
c. Apremilast
d. Infliximab

A

c. Apremilast

22
Q

This systemic drug is effective especially in patients with PsA. However, has adverse events of hepatotoxicity, diarrhea and potential for increased malignancies.
a. Methotrexate
b. Acitretin
c. Cyclosporine
d. apremilast

A

a. Methotrexate

23
Q

Presence of heliotrope, Gottron’s papules, poikiloderma, with severe muscle disease
a. Lupus Erythematosus
b. Dermatomyositis
c. Morphea
d. Scleroderma

A

b. Dermatomyositis

24
Q

Disease characterized by erythema of nose and malar eminences “butterfly” distribution, scaling of extensor surfaces of extremities
a. Acute cutaneous LE
b. Subacute cutaneous LE
c. Chronic cutaneous LE
d. Scleroderma

A

a. Acute cutaneous LE

25
Q

This disease is characterized by violaceous, hyperpigmented, atrophic plaques, follicular plugging and scarring.
a. Acute LE
b. Subacute cutaneous LE
c. Chronic cutaneous LE
d. scleroderma

A

c. Chronic cutaneous LE

26
Q

The skin changes usually begin on fingers, hands, toes, feet and face with episodes of recurrent nonpitting edema, acral sclerosis and focal digital ulcers.
a. Scleroderma
b. LE
c. Morphea
d. dermatomyositis

A

a. Scleroderma

27
Q

Adverse drug reaction Urticaria is mediated
a. Type I IgE pathway with IgE as key immune mediators
b. Type III Immune complex, IgG + antigen
c. Type II IgG mediator
d. Type IVb - T lymphocyte-mediated, IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

A

a. Type I IgE pathway with IgE as key immune mediators

28
Q

The total body surface area of blistering and eventual detachment is <10%
a. TEN
b. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
c. SJS/ TEN overlap
d. Dermatitis herpetiformis

A

b. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

29
Q

Total body surface detachment >30%
a. TEN
b. SJS
c. DRESS
d. SJS / TEN overlap

A

a. TEN

30
Q

The clinical findings suggestive of severe cutaneous adverse drug reactions
a. High fever, skin pain and swelling of lips or tongue
b. Low grade fever
c. Hypertension
d. CBC within normal limits

A

a. High fever, skin pain and swelling of lips or tongue

31
Q

Systemic drug reaction presents with prodrome of fever, flu-like symptoms followed by diffuse morbilliform eruption usually involving face with facial swelling and hand/foot swelling.
a. Fixed drug reaction
b. Drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction
c. Anaphylactoid reaction
d. Allergic contact dermatitis

A

b. Drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction

32
Q

Severe cutaneous drug reaction with oral erosions about 20%, with pinpoint pustules overlying diffuse erythematous eruption with high fever, leukocytosis, hypoclacemia
a. AGEP-acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis
b. TEN
c. SJS
d. Angioedema

A

a. AGEP-acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis