Derm Emergencies Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Within the United States, three genera
contain species whose bites are toxic to man:

A

● Latrodectus “Black Widows”
● Loxosceles “Brown Recluse”
● Eratigena Agrestis “Hobo Spider”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Latrodectus “Black Widows”

A

● Black body with red, hourglass shaped
markings on their abdomen
● Found in most states
● Non aggressive spiders; human bites
are often from accidental provocation.
● Webs can be found in corners of doors
or windows, underneath woodpiles, in
garages and sheds, undersides of
leaves, basements, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bites of the black widow spider:

A

● Painful bites
● Within 20- 60 minutes: localized
erythema develops, piloerection, and
sweating at the wound site.
● Numbness or aching pain may develop.
● A small red macule may develop to a
larger target lesion with a blanched
center and surrounding erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Black widows venom

A

● Venom contains a neurotoxin which releases
neurotransmitters: acetylcholine and
norepinephrine
● Bites may produce crampy abdominal pain
and muscle spasm (may mimic an acute
abdomen)
○ May be misdiagnosed as drug
withdrawal, appendicitis,
meningitis, tetanus, etc
● Hypertension
● Tachycardia
● Headache
● Nausea/vomiting
● Diaphoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for black widow spider bites

A

● Most require local wound care
● Patients at increased risk for serious complications? Very young,
very old, and cardiovascular disease
Mild Envenomation:
● Clean bite site
● Administer PO pain meds or benzodiazepines, as needed
● PO muscle relaxants may be helpful (evidence is lacking though, per UTD)
● Administer tetanus prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Moderate to Severe Envenomation care for black widow spider bites:

A

● Local wound care and tetanus prophylaxis
● IV/IM opioids for pain
● IV/IM benzodiazepines to reduce the
frequency and severity of muscle spasms
● Administer antiemetic therapy for nausea
and vomiting
● Latrodectus antivenom, if severe
Don’t give IV calcium (an older treatment modality).
It does not appear to be effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Antivenoms

A

can reduce pain, have more prolonged effect than analgesics,
can reduce the need for hospitalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Loxosceles “Brown Recluse”

A

● Dark brown marking on their thorax in
the shape of a fiddle
● Most abundant in Midwest and
Southeast
● Recluses are named because they
will live in closets, attics, and
storage areas
● Bites occur when the spider feels
threatened or provoked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Loxosceles “Brown Recluse” bite symptoms

A

● Initial bite is usually painless
● Pain increases over the next 2-8 hours,
may become severe
● Site may be identified by two small
cutaneous puncture marks with
surrounding redness
● Usually a red plaque or papules is
present, developing a central pallor
● Self-limiting and may resolve in one
week
● In some patients, the lesion will
develop a dark, depressed center
over 1-2 days that results in a dry
scab that ulcerates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The hallmark “red, white, and blue” is a
central violaceous area surrounded by
blanched skin, surrounded by large area of
erythema - seen with which bite?

A

Loxosceles “Brown Recluse”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Brown recluse venom

A

● Venom contains many enzymes and biologically active substances that
contribute to destruction.
● Systemic symptoms are an infrequent complication and may
develop within 1–2 days:
○ Malaise, nausea, vomiting, headache, fever, myalgias.
● Rare but severe symptoms: angioedema, renal failure, hemolytic
anemia, rhabdomyolysis, hypotension, DIC, coma, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for Loxosceles “Brown Recluse” bite

A

● Clean the bite
● Apply cold compress
● Analgesics
● Administer tetanus prophylaxis
● Antibiotics can be used to treat
secondary infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For dermal necrosis from brown recluse bite:

A

● There is an antivenom used in Brazil, but it’s not available in the US
● Necrotic wounds may require surgical excision/debriding later on, but
not initially
● Don’t use dapsone (an older treatment); no clear evidence of benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Eratigena Agrestis “Hobo spiders”

A

● Brown in color with a gray herringbone
pattern on the abdomen
● Build funnel shaped webs in
basements, wood piles, and bushes
● Most bites occur July - September
● Aggressive house spider
● Most common cause of necrotic
spider bites
● Live in most climates Alaska-Utah

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Eratigena Agrestis “Hobo spiders” bites

A

● Bite sites may have localized
erythema, itching, pain, and
swelling
● Little documentation supports
the occurrence of necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Scorpiones “Scorpions” sting

A

● Sting produces an immediate, sharp
burning pain; followed by numbness
● Regional lymph node swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Scorpion sting venom

A

● Venom contains a powerful neurotoxin
that produces muscle spasm, blurred
vision, slurred speech, excessive salivation,
respiratory distress, myocarditis
● Infant and young children are at the
greatest risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Scorpion sting treatment

A

● Mild stings only need symptomatic
treatments (analgesics and ice)
● Any child stung should be hospitalized to monitor respiratory, cardiac, and neurologic status
● Antivenom is the treatment of choice for pts with severe systemic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common cause of drug
reaction is _____

A

antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Exanthematous Eruptions

A

● An adverse hypersensitivity reaction to
ingested or parenterally administered
drugs
● Most common form of drug eruptions,
95% of skin reactions
● Macules and/or papules bright red;
Lesions become confluent
● Typically starts on the trunk and spreads
in a symmetric fashion
● Pruritus is almost always present
● May mimic viral exanthem, like measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Exanthematous Eruptions course

A

● Can occur within 1 week of starting
therapy to 1-2 days after stopping
treatment
● Typically resolves in 7-14 days
● After discontinuing the drug, the rash
usually fades, however it may worsen
for a few days
● Eruption usually recurs with
rechallenge (not always)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Exanthematous Eruptions treatment

A

● Identify the offending drug and discontinue it
● PO antihistamine for itching (ie. benadryl)
● Glucocorticoids
○ Potent Topical Preparation- May help speed resolution of
eruption (ie. hydrocortisone, betamethasone)
○ Oral or IV- Provides symptomatic relief (ie. solumedrol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Exanthematous Eruptions treatment

A

● Patients must be aware of their specific
drug hypersensitivity and that other drugs
of the same class can cross-react
● Consider wearing a medical alert bracelet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Urticaria and Angioedema

A

● Two variations of the same process,
IgE mediated
● Urticaria: characterized by
pruritic red wheals of various
sizes
● Individual lesions that last less
than 24 hours, but new lesions
may occur
Angioedema: a larger edematous
area that involves the dermis and
subcutaneous tissues and is ill
defined
● Angioedema is nonpruritic, and
lasts for 1-2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Urticaria and angioedema indicate an _____

A

immunoglobulin igE mediated hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Signs and symptoms of Urticaria and Angioedema include:

A

○ Pruritus, urticaria, cutaneous flushing, angioedema, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, laryngeal edema, and bronchospasm or hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Urticaria and Angioedema treatment

A

● Identify and withdraw offending drugs
● Antihistamines:
○ H1-blockers: hydroxyzine
○ H2 blockers: ranitidine, pepcid
● Glucocorticoids:
○ IV - hydrocortisone or methylprednisolone for severe symptoms
○ Oral - prednisone
● Patients with laryngeal edema or anaphylaxis:
○ Epinephrine 0.3 -0.5 mL SQ, repeated in 15-20 minutes
○ Maintain airway; breathing treatment (albuterol 2.5mg Neb)
○ IM/IV: Methylprednisolone 125 mg, Benadryl 50 mg, Ranitidine 50 mg

28
Q

Pemphigus

A

● A group of autoimmune blistering diseases of
skin and mucous membranes
○ Dangerous variant: Pemphigus Vulgaris
● Characterized by intraepidermal blisters due
to separation of epidermal cells from each
other by circulating immunoglobulin (Ig)
directed against the cell surface of
keratinocytes
● Pemphigus can be related to drug reactions,
commonly caused by penicillamine and other
thiol-containing drugs (e.g., captopril)

29
Q

Pemphigus Vulgaris

A

● Vesicles and bullae which can rupture and cause painful denuded area
● Particularly prone to rupture in the mucous
membranes, especially the mouth
● Skin biopsy needed to determine the site of
blister formation. Also need to document the
presence of skin autoantibodies
● Urgent derm consult. Grave prognosis

30
Q

Nikolsky’s sign

A

lateral pressure of
the skin dislodges
the epidermis
Seen with pemphigus vulgaris

31
Q

Pemphigus Vulgaris treatment

A

Admit pt for IV fluids and aggressive therapy
When drug induced, can resolve spontaneously when drug is withdrawn.
Glucocorticoids: Before glucocorticoid therapy, PV was a fatal due to severe
blistering of the skin and mucous membranes leading to malnutrition,
dehydration, and sepsis

32
Q

Bullous pemphigoid

A

Before the development of glucocorticoids, Bullous pemphigoid was classified
separate from pemphigus eruptions because pemphigus was commonly fatal and
Bullous pemphigoid was not

33
Q

Bullous pemphigoid

A

● Large, tense bullae arising from an
erythematous, urticarial base with
moderate involvement of the oral cavity

34
Q

Medications that have been reported
to cause bullous pemphigoid include
_____

A

furosemide, amoxicillin, and
spironolactone

35
Q

Treatment for Bullous pemphigoid

A

corticosteroids and immunosuppressants

36
Q

Erythema Multiforme

A

Erythema Multiforme (EM) is an acute, self-limited, and sometimes
recurring skin condition that is considered to be a type IV
hypersensitivity reaction associated with certain infections, medications,
and other various triggers.
Common causes:
● Herpes simplex
● Medications
○ Antibiotics
○ Anticonvulsants

37
Q

Erythema Multiforme treatment

A

● Treatment similar to SJS and TEN
● Systemic corticosteroids seem to
shorten the duration of fever and
eruption but increase length of
stay due to infection
● Herpes prophylaxis
● Admit to ICU or burn unit

38
Q

SJS is a more severe, multisystem version of ____

A

EM
SJS is also a variant of TEN

39
Q

Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)

A

● Commonly caused by drugs or infections
● Pts are systemically ill
● Sxs: peeling skin, fever, body aches, a flat red rash, and blisters and sores
on the mucous membranes
● Sloughing of respiratory epithelium can compromise airway
● The urethra may also be affected, making urination difficult and
painful
● Affected people are typically transferred in a burn unit and given fluids
and sometimes drugs. Stop suspected drugs.

40
Q

SJS and TEN - Cause

A

Most often sulfa and other antibiotics; anticonvulsants (phenytoin and
carbamazepine); and certain other drugs (piroxicam or allopurinol)

41
Q

Skin peeling in SJS/TEN

A

● Skin peeling is the hallmark of these conditions.
○ Positive Nikolsky sign
● The skin peeling involves the entire top layer of the skin (the epidermis),
which sometimes peels off in sheets from large areas of the body
● Blistering of the mucous membranes typically occurs in the mouth, eyes,
and vagina
● Both disorders can be life threatening

42
Q

TEN - Treatment similar to burns

A

● Transfer to a burn center or intensive care unit and give scrupulous
care to avoid infection
○ Concerns about the airway because of sloughing of epithelium
○ Address hypovolemia and electrolyte imbalances
○ Antibiotics for suspected or documented infections
● If the person survives, the skin grows back on its own, and, unlike burns,
skin grafts are not needed

43
Q

Burns- Initial Management:

A

● A: Establish an airway
○ Severe burns to the lower face and neck may be associated with
upper airway and laryngeal edema that causes airway obstruction.

44
Q

Indication for intubation with burns:

A

■ Full thickness facial or perioral burns
■ Circumferential neck burns
■ Acute respiratory distress
■ Respiratory depression or altered mental status
■ Consider early intubation in patients with stridor, hoarseness, or hypoxia.
■ If endotracheal intubation is not successful, cricothyrotomy or
tracheostomy may be necessary.

45
Q

Toxic inhalants

A

■ Carbon monoxide exposure - results in brain hypoxia
● Monitor carboxyhemoglobin levels, order the ABG
● Can falsely elevate pulse oximetry

46
Q

Burns- Initial Management: ABCs

A

● A: Establish an airway
● B: Breathing
● C: Circulation
● D: Neurological disability
● E: Exposure with environmental control
● F: Fluid resuscitation

47
Q

The following factors are used to determine burn severity:

A

● Burn size
● Burn depth
● Burn site
● Presence of circumferential burns
● Inhalation injury
● Electrical injury
● Age of patient
● Major underlying medical problems

48
Q

pt’s hand as reference for ____ of
body surface area, and compare that to the size of scattered
small burns

A

1%

49
Q

Determining Fluid Resuscitation for burns

A

● Patients with deep burns over more
than 15% of the BSA require fluid
resuscitation.
● Large bore >16 gauge IVs
● Use rule of “rule of nines” to
estimate total BSA burned.
○ 9%: Head, anterior chest, anterior
abdomen, each arm, anterior of
each leg, and posterior of each leg.
○ 18% Back
○ 1% groin

50
Q

First line fluid used in burns

A

4 ml Crystallloid x TBSA % x weight in kg (Parkland - Baxter)

51
Q

Superficial or epidermal burns

A

involve only the epidermal layer
of skin
○ No blisters; painful; approx
5 days healing time
○ Example: sunburn

52
Q

Superficial partial-thickness

A

burns
involve the epidermis and portions
of the dermis
○ Blisters; very painful; 14-21
days healing time
○ Example: hot water scald

53
Q

Deep partial-thickness burns

A

Includes epidermis, superficial dermis,
sweat glands and hair follicles
○ Blisters; does not blanche;
no pain; 3-8 week healing
time
○ Example: hot liquid, grease,
steam, flame

54
Q

Full-thickness burns

A

burns extend through and
destroy all layers of the dermis
○ No pain; healing time requires months;
skin grafts are necessary
○ Example: flame

55
Q

Deeper (fourth-degree) burns

A

extend through the skin into underlying soft
tissues such as fascia, muscle, and/or bone

56
Q

nhalation injury signifies a _____ burn.

A

major

57
Q

Signs and symptoms suggestive of inhalational burn injury include:

A

Burns sustained in a confined space, singed nasal nares,
soot around the nares, carbonaceous sputum, hoarseness,
stridor, respiratory distress, and a carboxyhemoglobin level
>10%

58
Q

Electrical Injury

A

Damage from electrical injury may be extensive, even though the outward
signs of injury are minimal.
Cardiac arrhythmias and renal failure from myoglobinuria are possible
complications.
All electrical injuries should be considered major injuries.

59
Q

_____ a burn patient are associated
with an increased rate of serious complications and death

A

Major pre-existing medical problems in

60
Q

Evaluation for burn patients (labs)

A

● Arterial blood gas analysis
● Submit blood for carboxyhemoglobin levels, CBC, electrolytes and urine for
myoglobin
● Order CXR and EKG and consider cardiac enzymes in pts with carbon
monoxide poisoning
● Don’t forget to look for other injuries (i.e. MVA)
● Place urinary catheter to monitor for urine output
● Patients with deep burn covering more than 20% BSA will develop ileus,
insert a nasogastric tube will decrease risk of emesis and possible aspiration

61
Q

Treatment of burns

A

Provide wound care
Control pain

62
Q

Initial Wound Care

A

● Gently remove clothing, dirt, and other foreign material adhering to the
burn
● Irrigation with sterile saline (at room temperature) may be helpful
● Do not scrub wounds or use harsh detergents or chemical disinfectants
(eg, benzalkonium chloride, povidone–iodine)
● Little or no debridement of moderate or major wounds should be
performed in the emergency department

63
Q

T/F Patients with moderate or major burns should not be treated with
topical ointments or complex dressings in the emergency department

A

T

64
Q

Leave _____ intact as they will heal the burn faster

A

blisters

65
Q

What to do if a burn blister pops

A

If the blister is popped then you may unroof them (remove the
unattached tissue of the blister)

66
Q

Outpatient Treatments for burns

A

● Cover wound in silver sulfadiazine cream or
triple antibiotic and apply dressing
● Have pt keep changes dressings daily
● If burn is on an extremity, elevate to prevent
edema
● Give tetanus prophylaxis
● Prophylactic systemic antibiotics are not
indicated
● Control pain with NSAIDS, or opiate, if
necessary
● Follow up in clinic every 1-2 days
● Debride ruptured blisters or dead tissue
● Treat any minor infection with oral anti-staph
antibiotics
● Monitor for fever or cellulitis
● Caution if patient is diabetic