Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

derm > derm > Flashcards

derm Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

age of onset:
- erythema toxicum
- neonatal acne
- milia

A
  • erythema toxicum = within first 72h
  • neonatal acne = ~3-6weeks
  • milia = 6 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

erythema toxicum vs transient neonatal pustular melanosis

A

erythema toxicum:
- first 72h
- papules > pustules
- significant surrounding erythema
- spare palms and soles
- no PIH

pustular melanosis:
- often at birth
- pustules and macules, no surrounding erythema
- palms and soles, leave PIH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

infantile vs neonatal acne

A

neonatal:
- 3-6 weeks onset
- from oil glands with yeast
- ketoconazole if need to treat
- no PIH

infantile:
- 3-4mo onset
- from hyperplasia of sebaceous glands secondary to androgenic stimulation, so more common in boys
- treat as can cause PIH e.g. benzyl peroxide or retinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

maculopapular mastocytosis

A

reddish brown spots that are chronic, and redden up when you touch them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cradle cap vs scalp eczema

A

cradle cap 1 week to 4 mo, greasy waxy flakes. no need to treat, but can use moisturiser/soft toothbrush to get it off.

scalp eczema > 4mo, treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

nappy rash vs candidiasis

A

nappy rash spares the folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is acrodermatitis enteropathica?

A

from zinc deficiency, present after weaning off breastmilk. Classic triad:
1) Peri-acral and periorificial dermatitis - sharply demarcated
2) Diarrhoea
3) Alopecia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

accessory tragus =

A

goldenhar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ectodermic dysplasias have problems where?

A

hair, teeth, skin, nails, and sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

haemangioma - natural history

A

most not present at birth
grow 6-9mo
>1y - spontaneous involution, 10% per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

beard haemangioma, think =

A

airway risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

large facial haemangioma, think =

A

PHACES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Segmental haemangioma overlying lumbosacral spine =

A

tethered spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

> 5 haemangiomas, think =

A

visceral, esp hepatic/GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most common side effects of oral propranolol

A

diarrhoea (most common)
hypoglycaemia!! educate - all symptoms masked except sweating!
hypo/brady 2h post dose
migraine
bronchochonstriction
hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PHACE syndrome + beta-blocker?

A

Risk of stroke given often have cervical stenosis and arteriopathy (coarctation) as part of syndrome – hypotension from BB resulting in ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

key complication of Kaposiform haemangioendothelioma (KHE)

A

Kasabach-Merritt phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sturge-Weber syndrome vs Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome vs Parkes-Weber syndrome

A

Sturge-Weber: capillary malformation over V1/V2
Klippel-Trenaunay: over limbs, soft tissue/bone hemihypertrophy
Parkes-Weber: same as KT but have AV shunts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

haemangioma vs port wine stain

A

port wine stain:
- present at birth
- grow with overall growth, do not regress
- flatter and darker, does not blanch with pressure
- doesn’t usually pass the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Congenital melanocytic naevi - risk of melanoma

A

5%

21
Q

FRACP: albinism + recurrent infection, think =

A

Chediak-Higashi

22
Q

Waardenburg a/w what four major factors

A
  1. white forelock
  2. heterochromia
  3. SNHL
  4. cleft palate
23
Q

piebaldism vs vitiligo vs waardenburg

A

piebaldism - amelanocytic macules on head and trunk from arrest in migration of melanocytes (not AI destruction as in vitiligo, and patchier than waardenburg)

24
Q

lentigines vs cafe au lait

A

lentigines have clubbed rete ridges, cafe au lait do not

25
Q

hypomelanosis of ito - 3 key features

A
  1. whorle like hypopigmented macules
  2. seizures /ID
  3. eye problems
26
Q

EB - which skin layer does it affect?

A

depends on the type:
- Simple = intraepidermal blisters, keratin mutations (mostly AD)
- Junctional = intra-lamina, integrin/ laminin mutations (AR)
- Dystrophic = subepidermal lamina, collagen mutations (AR/ AD)

27
Q

Chronic Bullous Dermatitis of Childhood

A
  • ” linear IgA dermatosis” in 1st decade
  • itchy subepidermal blisters
    everywhere, but esp scalp, groin, inner thighs
  • spont remits, but treat with steroids
28
Q

erythema multiforme - 3 key features

A
  • mostly HSV + mycoplasma triggering type 4 hypersensitivity
  • target lesion with central erosion +/- mucosal involvement with blisters
  • steroids + anti-histamines
29
Q

erythema multiforme - must distinguish from??

A

SJS/TENS - esp if mucosal involvement

30
Q

allergic vs irritant contact dermatitis

A

Allergic e.g. nickel
- T cell mediated, slower 1-3days
- itchy ++++, erythematous
- steroids / calcineurin inhib / anti-his

Irritant e.g. hand gel
- rapid, few hours
- burning ++++, dry/fissures

31
Q

pityriasis rosea - key features

A
  • HHV6/7 trigger, seen in teenagers
  • pink herald patch > 2 weeks later, smaller dots like christmas tree
  • resolves in 2 mo
32
Q

Gianotti Crosti syndrome (papular acrodermatitis) -key features

A
  • 6mo-12y
  • hep B / EBV
  • non-pruritic little crops of papules, will self-resolve
33
Q

most common disorder of keratinisation?

A

icthyosis vulgaris - looks like. asnake, filaggrin problem

34
Q

mastocytosis - key features

A
  1. cutaneous: urticaria pigmentosa, dermatographism positive!
  2. mastocytomas: brown nodules
  3. systemic (uncommon in kids)
  4. Adverse reactions to mast cell degranulating agents seen: ETOH, NSAIDS, thiamine, narcotic

mostly self-remitting for paeds onset

35
Q

lichen planus vs lichen sclerosis

A

LS:
- minora > majora, but not the vagina/oral
- itchy, dysapareunia, atrophic /white papules
- risk of SCC
- steroids/calcineurin inhibs

LP: often involve mucosa of vagina/oral, much older
LP violaceous
also risk SCC

36
Q

telogen vs anagen effluvium

A

telogen = from stressful event
anagen = loss of growing hairs, e.g. chemo

37
Q

hair things:
- falling in clumps
- irregular pattern with mixed length, stubbly hairs
- positive hair pull test
- nail pitting/grooves

A
  • falling in clumps = telogen effluvium
  • irregular pattern with mixed length, stubbly hairs = trichotillomania
  • positive hair pull test = telogen effluvium
  • nail pitting/grooves = alopecia areata
38
Q

HPV types cause what

A

2 and 4 = skin warts
6 and 11 = genital warts, resp papillomatosis (11 is worse)
16 and 18 = cervical cancer

39
Q

bronchogenic vs thyroglossal vs branchial vs dermoid cysts

A

bronchogenic: midline sternal notch
thyroglossal: midline over neck
branchial: over SCM
dermoid: firm non mobile +/- hair, most often at supraorbital ridge

40
Q

pilomatrixoma key features

A

rockhard, blueish hue
a/w gardner, myotonic dystrophy
tent sign positive

41
Q

angiofibroma vs neurofibroma

A

angiofibroma:
- red, firm, blanchable
- TS, MEN-1

NF:
- flesh coloured, compressible
- buttonhole sign

42
Q

scabies in paeds looks like?

A

bullae and pustules, esp palms and soles!
use permethrin/ivermectin

43
Q

vulvovaginitis - key features

A
  • itching, discharge, redness, stinging
  • most common causes: moisture > irritants > strep > threadworms (itch at night)
  • Mx: lose weight, loose clothing, vinegar bath, minimise irritants
43
Q

molluscum key features

A
  • pearly umbilicated lesions +/- 2nd eczema
  • from poxvirus
  • self-resolves in 6-12 months
44
Q

impetigo - key features

A
  • gas / strep
  • from nose, yellow crust +/- bullous
  • mupirocin
45
Q

cellulitis vs erysipelas

A

cellulitis: staph > GAS
deep dermis, less well demarcated
indolent

erysipelas: GAS&raquo_space;> staph
upper dermis, well demarcated
acute onset
typically face rash with milian’s sign - **feature distinguishing erysipelas from cellulitis, because the pinna has no deeper dermis and subcutaneous tissue

46
Q

Pityriasis Versicolour known as what?

A

tinea dude

47
Q

tinea capitis - what can you use?

A

NO steroids, and NOT nilstat (nilstat only for cutaneous candida, NOT dermatophytes):
griseofulvin, itraconazole, terbinafine

48
Q

diagnostic test for tinea

A

not woods, but KOH scrapings

derm (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions