Departure and Approach Procedures

Question 1

What are the Visual Flight Rules? Therefore, what are is IFR?

Answer 1

VFR may only be conducted:
1. In VMC;
2. Provided that, when not navigating by visual reference to ground or water, the pilot in command must comply with the requirements of Chapter 14 of Part 91 MOS, as if the flight were an IFR flight;
3. Sub-sonic speeds; and
4. In accordance with the airspace speed limitations specified in ENR 1.4 - 250 knots below 10,000 ft.

REF: AIP ENR 1.2, 1.1.1 – Visual flight rules

Question 2

What are VMC conditions for helicopters in class C, D and E > 10,000ft (and in class G – 10,000ft > 700ft)?

Answer 2

Q: What are VMC conditions for helicopters in class C, D and E and G > 10,000ft?

1. Class C, E & G: 8000m VIS, distance from cloud - 1500m horizontal separation and 1000ft vertical.
2. Class D: Nil as not above 10,000ft
3. Class G below 1000ft AGL (when terrain above 9000’) = 5000m visibility and clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water.
   NOTE: ATC may permit operations in weather conditions that do not meet this criteria (see special VFR – not available in Class E).

REF: Part 91 MOS 2.07 – Definition of VMC Criteria – VMC Criteria

Question 3

What are VMC conditions for helicopters in class C, D and E < 10,000 ft?

Answer 3

Q: What are VMC conditions for helicopters in class C, D and E < 10,000 ft?

1. Class C, E & G: 5000m VIS, distance from cloud - 1500m horizontal separation and 1000ft vertical.
2. Class D: 5000m VIS, distance from cloud - 600m horizontal separation & 1000ft above and 500ft below cloud,
3. Class G below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL (whichever is the higher) – 5000m visibility and clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water.

ATC may permit operations in weather conditions that do not meet this criteria (see special VFR – not available in Class E)

REF: Part 91 MOS 2.07 – Definition of VMC Criteria – VMC Criteria

Question 4

Helicopter VMC?

Answer 4

Q: Helicopter VMC?

Day operations only in Class G Airspace:
1. Within 700 ft of the ground;
2. Clear of Cloud;
3. In sight of ground or water;
4. 800m visibility (require track guidance overwater - i.e. GNSS);
2. At a speed that allows the pilot adequate opportunity to see any obstructions or air traffic in sufficient time to avoid collision.
3. If operating less than 10nm from an aerodrome with an approved instrument approach procedure then:
a. In accordance with all requirements to report, broadcast and maintain a listening watch and;
b. Maintaining a separation of at least 500ft vertically from any aircraft conducting an IFR operation less than 10nm from the aerodrome.

REF: Part 91 MOS 2.07 – Definition of VMC Criteria – VMC Criteria

Question 5

OSA VFR flight Offshore requirements?

Answer 5

Q: OSA VFR flight Offshore requirements?

1. Offshore operations conducted OCTA require a minimum VFR en route flight altitude rule of 1000ft AMSL by day or 1500ft AMSL by night;
2. At all times a minimum visibility of 5000M for day or night VFR offshore operations is required; and
3. Flights between platforms that are less than 10NM apart a minimum VFR altitude of 500ft ADH by day may be used providing there is a minimum cloud ceiling of 600ft ADH.

Question 6

What is Special VFR & what are the Requirements?

What is the BIG difference between Special VFR and Helicopter VMC (aside from the airspace)?

Answer 6

By day, when VMC do not exist, the ATC unit responsible for a CTR or CTA may issue, at pilot request, and provided an IFR flight will not be unduly delayed, a Special VFR clearance for flight:
1. In the CTR; or
2. In a CTA next to the CTR for the purpose of entering or leaving the CTR

When operating under a Special VFR clearance, pilots are responsible for ensuring that:
1. The flight is conducted clear of cloud
2. The visibility is not less than 800m for helicopters
3. A helicopter is operated at such a speed that the pilot has adequate opportunity to observe any obstructions or other traffic in sufficient time to avoid a collision.

Special VFR is not permitted in Class E airspace.

BIG DIFFERENCE: Special VFR is not required to be within a certain height above ground NOR REQUIRED TO BE IN SIGHT OF GROUND OR WATER!

REF: AIP ENR 1.2- Special VFR

Question 7

What are the tracking requirements for a visual approach in controlled airspace?

Answer 7

Except when on a STAR, Maintain track / heading on the route progressively authorized by ATC until:
1. By Day – within 5 nm of the aerodrome,
2. By Night – The aerodrome is in sight and within the prescribed circling area for IFR flight and within 3nm of the aerodrome reference point for VFR flight. From this position join the circuit as directed by ATC for an approach to nominated runway

When tracking via a STAR and subsequently cleared for a visual approach, the pilot must continue to follow the lateral profile of the STAR, including any visual or instrument termination route.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.14.6(c) – Visual Approach Requirements for IFR Flights

Question 8

What is the landing minima for an IFR flight?

Answer 8

1. For an aerodrome WITH an IAP: the minima of the IAP plate; or
2. For an aerodrome WITHOUT an IAP, the visual approach requirements.

REF: Part 91 MOS 15.10, 7 & 8 – Landing Minima

Question 9

IFR Visual Approach Requirements – BY DAY?

Answer 9

Within 30 nm of aerodrome, and at an altitude not below LSALT/ MSA for route segment, the appropriate step of a DME/GNSS arrival procedure or the MDA for procedure being flown, the aircraft is established:
1. Clear of cloud;
2. In sight of ground or water;
3. With flight visibility not less than 5000M, or in the case of a helicopter is able to proceed under helicopter VMC, or the aerodrome is in sight; and
4. Subsequently can maintain the 1-3 at an altitude not less than:
a. If in controlled airspace – 500ft above the lower limit of the CTA unless a clearance is received from ATC to depart and re-enter controlled airspace during the descent; and
b. The minimum height prescribed by CASR 91.265 or 91.267 as relevant to the location of the aircraft

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.14 – Visual Approach Requirements for IFR Flights

Question 10

IFR Visual Approach Requirements – BY NIGHT?

Answer 10

At an altitude not below LSALT/MSA for route segment, the appropriate step of the DME/GNSS Arrival procedure or MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established:
1. Clear of cloud;
2. In sight of ground or water;
3. With flight visibility not less than 5000M; and
4. Subsequently can maintain the 1-3 at an altitude not less than:
a. LSALT/MSA;
b. Step of the DME/GNSS Arrival procedure, or
c. If being vectored – the last assigned altitude;
d. UNTIL the aircraft is established within:
i. The circling area and the aerodrome is in sight (For an aerodrome with an authorised instrument approach procedure);
ii. Within 3NM and the aerodrome is in sight (For an aerodrome without an authorised instrument approach procedure); or
iii. Within 5NM (7NM for a runway equipped with an ILS/GLS) of the aerodrome, aligned with the runway centreline and established not below “on slope” on the T-VASIS or PAPI; or
iv. Within 10NM (14NM for runways 16L and 34L at Sydney) of the aerodrome, established not below the ILS/GLS glide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection.

NOTE: Reference to circling area includes the circling area for the category of aircraft or a higher category where the limitations of the higher category are complied with.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.14 – Visual Approach Requirements for IFR Flights

Question 11

When operating similar to aeroplanes which aircraft performance Category should helicopters use?

Answer 11

All fixed-wing Category A approaches can be flown by appropriately equipped helicopters, provided the speeds flown are within the Cat A range. The use of Vat is not applicable to helicopters.

Where procedures are developed for the specific use of helicopters, they are designated CAT H and promulgated on separate charts.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.3.1 – Helicopters

Question 12

What are the aircraft performance CAT A, B and CAT H and handling IAS ranges?

Answer 12

CAT A:
- Initial and Intermediate Approach = 90 - 150
- Reversal Procedures = 110
- Final Approach = 70 - 100
- Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) = 100
- Missed Approach = 110

CAT B:
- Initial and Intermediate Approach = 120 - 180
- Reversal Procedures = 140
- Final Approach = 85 - 130
- Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) = 135
- Missed Approach = 150

CAT H:
- Initial and Intermediate Approach = 70 - 120
- Reversal Procedures = N/A
- Final Approach = 60 - 90
- Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) = N/A
- Missed Approach = 90

Question 13

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

What are the requirements and restrictions that apply to the conduct of a GNSS arrival?

Answer 13

Q: What are the requirements and restrictions that apply to the conduct of a GNSS arrival?

1. GNSS IFR approach operations require a current aviation database;
2. Coordinates for the specified radio navigation aid cannot be modified by the crew or operator;
3. GNSS integrity (RAIM) is available before descent below MSA/LSALT;
4. Azimuth guidance is required from the specified radio navigation aid;
5. Descent is not permitted until the aircraft is established within the appropriate sector or on the specified inbound track;
6. If manoeuvring within a sector is required, the pilot must ensure that the aircraft is contained within the sector, at or above the appropriate segment minimum safe altitude. Manoeuvring within a sector after passing the FAF is prohibited;
7. If at any time during the approach there is cause to doubt the validity of the GNSS information (e.g. RAIM warning) or if GNSS integrity is lost (RAIM not available) then the pilot must conduct a missed approach; and
8. The requirements of circling approaches and visual circling, missed approach procedures and visual segments apply.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 11.1.1 & 11.1.2 & 11.1.3 – DME or GNSS Arrival Procedures – General & OMA 8.4.8 – GPS Database Currency & CAAP179A-1(1) Guidelines for Navigation Using GNSS

Question 14

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

Can you use the forecast Area QNH for an Instrument Approach?

Answer 14

Q: Can you use the forecast Area QNH for an Instrument Approach?

Yes, However, the minima must be increased by 50 ft.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 5.3.1 &, 5.3.4 - QNH sources

Question 15

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

By when must you set the QNH for an Instrument Approach?

Answer 15

Q: By when must you set the QNH for an Instrument Approach?

Prior to passing the IAF, pilots are required to set either:
1. The actual aerodrome QNH from an approved source
2. The Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH, or
3,. The forecast area QNH.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 5.3.1 &, 5.3.4 - QNH sources

Question 16

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

What is the meaning of a shaded background in the minima title box of an instrument approach chart?

Answer 16

Q: What is the meaning of a shaded background in the minima title box of an instrument approach chart?

Where instrument approach charts are identified by a shaded background to either the minima titles for IAL charts or the published minima for DME or GNSS arrival procedures, landing, circling and alternate minima have been calculated assuming the use of Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) QNH. These minima may be reduced by 100FT whenever an actual aerodrome QNH is set.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 5.3.2 - QNH Sources

Question 17

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

Validity period for Actual QNH? What are the approved sources? Can I use METAR QNH as an actual QNH?

Answer 17

Q: Validity period for Actual QNH? What are the approved sources? Can I use METAR QNH as an actual QNH?

Actual QNH is valid for a period of 15 minutes from the time of receipt.

Approved sources of QNH are ATC, ATIS, AWIS and CASA approved meteorology observers

NO! METAR QNH does not meet this requirement.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 5.3.2 - QNH Sources

Question 18

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

What is the meaning of a double asterisk in conjunction with an aerodrome minima and when can you use it?

Answer 18

Q: What is the meaning of a double asterisk in conjunction with an aerodrome minima and when can you use it?

Special alternate weather minima is identified by a double asterisk on the instrument approach chart adjacent to the ALTERNATE title. Special alternate minima are available for specified approaches at some aerodromes, for aircraft equipped with dual ILS/VOR approach capabilities. This must include:
1. Duplicated LOC; and
2. Duplicated glide path; and
3. Duplicated VOR; and
4. Either:
a. Duplicated DME; or
b. Duplicated GNSS; or
c. Single DME and single GNSS

Special alternate minima will not be available if:
¨drome control service is not provided
AIP ENR 1.5, 6.2.1 & 6.2.2- Special Alternate Minima

Question 19

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

What are the visibility minima requirements for Precision approaches (ILS and RNP)?

Answer 19

Q: What are the Visual Flight Rules? Therefore, what are is IFR?

1. Start at 1500M;
2. Reduces to 1200M if normally available HIAL are serviceable;
3. Reduces to 800m (minimum for CAT 1 ILS) if:
   a. The approach cannot be flown to at least the landing minima using a flight director, a HUD or an autopilot; or
   b. The aircraft is not equipped with an operative failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference systems; or
   c. High intensity runway edge lighting is not in operation; or
   d. The approach lighting system normally available beyond 210m from the runway threshold is inoperative.
4. Reduces to the RVR or visibility specified on the instrument approach chart for the IAP being conducted if:
   a. The TDZ RVR report is not available; or
   b. The approach lighting system normally available beyond 420m from the runway threshold is inoperative.

NOTE: this can be increased by:
1. Relevant minima specified in the AFM / RFM;
2. Relevant minima specified in the operator’s operations manual; or
3. A lighting failure has occurred on a runway at a controlled aerodrome; and Double spacing of runway edge lights results, that is from 60m spacing to 120m spacing.

REF: Part 91 MOS, 15.10 Landing Minima

Question 20

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

What must a pilot do if a Partial runway lighting failure occurs at a controlled aerodrome?

Answer 20

Q: What must a pilot do if a Partial runway lighting failure occurs at a controlled aerodrome?

A Partial runway lighting failure results in double spacing of runway edge lights; i.e. from 60m to 120m spacing. When such a failure occurs at night, pilots must apply the following requirements to an approach to land:
1. In VMC: No restriction;
2. In less than VMC: The prevailing visibility must be equal to, or greater than, the published minimum for the instrument approach procedure being used for an aircraft’s arrival multiplied by a factor of 1.5
Runway edge lighting is omni-directional on intensity 1, 2, 3 in order to provide circling guidance. Stages 4, 5, 6 are unidirectional for approach.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.18.3 – Partial Runway Lighting Failure & AIP AD 1.1 5.4.4 – Runway Edge Lights

Question 21

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

What obstacle clearance dose MSA provide?

Answer 21

Q: What obstacle clearance dose MSA provide?

25nm and 10nm MSA’s provide 1000ft obstacle clearance – deviation from track to facilitate entry to the instrument approach is permitted.

When MSA is divided into sectors and the 25nm MSA sector is lower than the 10nm MSA, the 25nm MSA may be used for tracking to the nominated significant point, if the aircraft is kept within the sector.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 2.3.1 - Minimum Sector Altitude

Question 22

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

What bank angle are approach procedures based on? What is the rule of thumb for calculating the correct AOB?

Answer 22

Q: What bank angle are approach procedures based on? What is the rule of thumb for calculating the correct AOB?

Procedures are based on a bank angle of 25°, or a bank angle which will produce a rate one turn, whichever is less.

Rule of thumb: indicated airspeed /10+7 i.e.120 knots = (120/10) + 7 =19→ 19° @100 knots rate one= 17°

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.22.1 – Bank Angle

Question 23

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

When are you considered ‘established’ on track or on a DME arc?

Answer 23

Q: When are you considered ‘established’ on track for an IAP or on a DME arc?

“Established” means being within;
1. Half full-scale deflection for the ILS, VOR and GNSS;
2. 5° of the required bearing for the NDB; or
3. 2 nm of the DME arc.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.20.2 Note – Descent

Question 24

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

A holding pattern must be entered in accordance with what?

Answer 24

Q: A holding pattern must be entered in accordance with what?

Entry into a holding pattern must be according to heading in relation to the three entry sectors, recognizing a zone of flexibility of 5° on either side of the sector boundaries.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 3.4.1 - Entry into the holding pattern

Question 25

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

How do you conduct a sector 1 entry and when does the timing commence?

Answer 25

Q: How do you conduct a sector 1 entry and when does the timing commence?

Parallel Entry:
After fix turn on outbound heading (to track parallel with the inbound track) for one (1) still air minute (taken from over or abeam the holding fix whichever is later) or until reaching the limiting DME distance (if earlier) before turning onto the holding side to intercept the inbound track to the fix.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 3.4 - Entry into the Holding Pattern

Question 26

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

How do you conduct a sector 2 entry and when does the timing commence?

Answer 26

Q: How do you conduct a sector 1 entry and when does the timing commence?

Offset Entry:
After the fix turn onto a heading to make good a track making an angle of 30° from the reciprocal inbound track on the holding side, then flown outbound for one (1) still air minute from the holding fix, where timing is specified, up to a maximum of 1 minute 30sec, or earlier, until the appropriate limiting DME distance is attained (where distance is specified) before turning in the direction of the holding pattern to intercept the inbound track to the fix.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 3.4 - Entry into the Holding Pattern

Question 27

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

How do you conduct a sector 3 entry and when does the timing commence?

Answer 27

Q: How do you conduct a sector 1 entry and when does the timing commence?

Direct Entry:
After the fix turn the aircraft to follow the holding pattern. Outbound timing begins abeam the fix, or when the abeam position cannot be determined, from completion of the outbound turn.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 3.4 - Entry into the Holding Pattern

Question 28

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

When does the outbound timing commence in the holding pattern?

Answer 28

Q: When does the outbound timing commence in the holding pattern?

Outbound timing begins abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 3.3.1 (b) – Limitations – Outbound Timings

Question 29

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

Which sector entry into a holding pattern on a DME arc is not permitted?

Answer 29

Q: Which sector entry into a holding pattern on a DME arc is not permitted?

Sector 2 Offset Entry is not permitted.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 3.4.5 - DME Arc Entry

Question 30

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

The outbound leg of the holding pattern must be no longer then what?

Answer 30

Q: The outbound leg of the holding pattern must be no longer then what?

The outbound leg of a holding pattern must not be longer than 1 minute or the time or distance limit specified on the chart.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 3.3.1 (c) (1) – Limitations – Time/Distance Outbound

Question 31

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

Should allowance be made for wind while holding?

Answer 31

Q: Should allowance be made for wind while holding?

Wind allowances should be made in heading and timing for the effects of wind to ensure the inbound track is regained before passing the holding fix inbound. Full use should be made of indications available from the aid and estimated or known winds.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 3.2.1 (e) – Limitations – Wind Allowance

Question 32

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

The holding pattern may be shortened but can it be increased?

Answer 32

Q: The holding pattern may be shortened but can it be increased?

For prolonged holding at a level not limited by obstacles the length of the pattern may be increased subject to ATC approval where appropriate.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 3.7.1 – Shortening

Question 33

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

When may an aircraft commence an approach without entering the holding pattern?

Answer 33

Q: When may an aircraft commence an approach without entering the holding pattern?

1. For procedures using radio NAVAIDS:
   a. Where a procedure turn is required, it has been completed/complied with; or
   b. For a DME Arc - it has been joined at/before the IAF; or
   c. The en route track to the procedure’s IAF is within +/- 30° of the first track of the procedure.
2. For Procedures Using GNSS:
   a. The aircraft is tracking to an initial approach waypoint from within the capture region; or
   b. In controlled airspace, the aircraft is being vectored to intercept the initial approach segment (IAF to IF) or is tracking direct to the IF with a resultant track change that does not exceed 45°.

Obviously In controlled airspace, ATC must have cleared the aircraft for the approach.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 2.5.1 – Procedure Entry

Question 34

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

Should pilots make allowances for wind with procedures?

Answer 34

Q: Should pilots make allowances for wind with procedures?

All procedures depict tracks and pilots should attempt to maintain the track by applying corrections to heading for known or estimated winds.

REF: DAP 1-1, 1.8 – Information Instrument approach charts; CAAP 178-1(2) Non-precision Approaches (NPA) & Approaches with Vertical Guidance (APV) October 2012, section 4.9.1

Question 35

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

Describe three types of reversal procedures & what they are used for?

Answer 35

Q: Describe three types of reversal procedures & what they are used for?

2 types of ‘PROCEDURE’ turns and 1 BASE turn:

1. Procedure Turns:
   a. 45°/180° - Timing from facility, 45° turn away for 1 minute (CAT1) followed by a 180° turn in the opposite direction.
   b. 80°/260° - Timing from facility, 80° turn away followed by a 260° turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track.
2. Base Turn: Specific outbound track to intercept inbound track.
   Note: Some instrument approach procedures require a procedure turn after passing over a navigation aid or fix. Where this requirement exists, the turn must be initiated immediately after passing over the navigation aid or fix.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 2.8.2 – Reversal procedures – Types

Question 36

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

In reversal procedure when can descent be initiated after the aircraft has crossed the fix or facility?

Answer 36

Q: In reversal procedure when can descent be initiated after the aircraft has crossed the fix or facility?

If an outbound descent is specified, the descent may be commenced after the aircraft has crossed the fix or facility and is established on the specific track or has turned to a heading to intercept the specific outbound track.

Further descent after the reversal procedure, must not be started till established on the inbound track. For approaches without a FAF, the final segment commences at the completion of the reversal procedure.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.20.2 - Descent

Question 37

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

Descend rate after the FAF should not exceed what? Does the company OPS manual limit this? When can you exceed this OMA requirement?

Answer 37

Q: Descend rate after the FAF should not exceed what? Does the company OPS manual limit this? When can you exceed this OMA requirement?

Aircraft may commence a segment in excess of the specified commencement altitude provided that any upper altitude limitations are observed, however the rate of descent after the FAF should not normally exceed 1000ft per minute.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.19.2 - Descent Gradients

Yes, OMA stabilised approach requirements for ROD for an IFR aircraft after the FAF are “The sustained rate of descent should not be greater than 600 fpm, unless required by the published onshore approach profile”. SO, if the profile requires >600 fpm past the FAF, you can increase above this –> i.e. WPDL VOR via overhead usually requires Vy and 1000fpm from the FAF.

Question 38

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

When must a missed approach be executed during an IAP?

Answer 38

Q: When must a missed approach be executed during an IAP?

A missed approach must be executed if:
1. During an instrument approach and below MSA (as specified on the IAL chart) the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect, or the radio aid fails (includes RAIM warning for a GNSS-based approach); or
2. During the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use; or
3. Visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT from which the missed approach procedure commences; or
4. A landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling; or
5. visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach.

Question 39

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

Obstacle clearance that the MAP provides and what gradient is this? What must the PIC do, if he can’t meet this gradient?

Answer 39

Q: Obstacle clearance that the MAP provides and what gradient is this? What must the PIC do, if he can’t meet this gradient?

Missed Approach path is designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of 100ft along the missed approach path – 2.5 % gradient or 152ft per nm / 200FPM at 80kts

For Helicopter Procedures the missed approach is designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of 100ft to a helicopter climbing at a gradient of 4.2% or 255ft per nm / 336 FPM at 80kts from the MDA at, or before, the MAWP or from any point within the VAA-H, to the MAHWP as applicable.

If this missed approach climb gradient cannot be achieved the DA, MDA or RA Height should be increased, or other action taken to achieve the required obstacle clearance along the specified missed approach flight path.

Question 40

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

What does visual reference mean with regard to an IAP?

Answer 40

Q: What does visual reference mean with regard to an IAP?

“visual reference” means the runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot, AND either:
1. Circling approaches: clear of cloud, in sight of the ground or water and with a flight visibility not less than the minimum specified for circling; or
2. RWY approaches: a flight visibility not less than that specified for the procedure.

Question 41

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

If visual reference is lost during circling, what is the expectation when conducting a missed approach?

Answer 41

Q: If visual reference is lost during circling, what is the expectation when conducting a missed approach?

When a missed approach is required from visual circling, the expectation is that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and overhead the aerodrome where the pilot will establish the aircraft climbing on the missed approach track.

In as much as the circling manoeuvre may be accomplished in more than one direction, different patterns will be required to establish the aircraft on the prescribed missed approach course depending on its position at the time visual reference is lost.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.10.3 - Missed Approach – Standard Procedure

Question 42

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

If RAIM is lost during a GNSS-based Approach, can the pilot use the GNSS be used for MAP guidance?

Answer 42

Q: If RAIM is lost during a GNSS-based Approach, can the pilot use the GNSS be used for MAP guidance?

NO! Should the RAIM warning remain when the missed approach is selected or should there be any doubt about the accuracy of the GNSS, then an alternative means of guidance or dead reckoning must be used to fly the missed approach.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.11 - Missed Approach – RNAV GNSS

Question 43

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

What procedure must a pilot follow if a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point?

Answer 43

Q: What procedure must a pilot follow if a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point?

In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAPT, pilots must fly the aircraft to the MAPT and then follow the missed approach procedure.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.9.2 - Missed Approach – Standard Procedure

Question 44

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

What is the obstacle clearance altitude (OCA)?

Answer 44

Q: What is the obstacle clearance altitude (OCA)?

1. In a precision approach – lowest altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or
2. In a non-precision runway approach procedure, the lowest altitude below which the aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or
3. In a visual (circling) procedure, the lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation in accordance the obstacle clearance criteria. - Categories A and B minimum obstacle clearance is 300FT

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.17 - Obstacle Clearance Altitude, AIP ENR 1.5 - 1.16.3 Speed Restrictions

Question 45

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

When can an aircraft descend below the LSALT/MSA?

Answer 45

Q: When can an aircraft descend below the LSALT/MSA?

1.Wwhen complying with the requirements for a visual approach; or
2. When conforming to a published DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure; or 3. When identified and assigned an altitude by ATC; or
4. When it has passed the IAF during an IAP; or
5. In an emergency.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 1.4 – Minimum Route Altitudes and AIP ENR 1.5, 5.1.1 – Application of Aerodrome Meteorological Minima

Question 46

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

When can an aircraft continue an IAP below the MDA / DA when the weather conditions are below the minima?

Answer 46

Q: When can an aircraft continue an IAP below the MDA / DA when the weather conditions are below the minima?

Only in an emergency.

REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 5.1.1 – Application of Aerodrome Meteorological Minima

Question 47

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

11 rules relating to Standard Instrument Departures?

Answer 47

Q: 11 rules relating to Standard Instrument DePartures?

1. The pilot must advise ATC if cleared via a SID which requires the use of navigation aids not available to the aircraft;
2. SID procedures assume that the pilots will not compensate for wind effects when being radar vectored, but will compensate for known or estimated wind effects when flying deParture routes expressed as tracks.
3. SID procedures may be flown by aircraft already airborne provided that, before commencing a SID, the pilot visually positions the aircraft over the runway centre line so that all tracking and altitude restrictions can be met.
4. Each SID specifies the minimum climb gradient that ensures obstacle clearance.
5. Where the climb gradient exceeds 3.3% the altitude at which a 3.3% climb gradient may be flown is also shown.
6. A gradient in brackets specifies the climb gradient required to remain in controlled airspace
7. The climb gradient requirements on a radar SID cease when the aircraft reaches the MSA/LSALT
8. Instead of assigning a deParture heading, ATC may instruct an aircraft to track the extended runway center line for deParture - if the first and only track on a radar SID is aligned with the runway bearing
9. For aircraft on a radar SID, ATC will assign a deParture heading (or track) to be flown after the initial take-off phase. The pilot is not to commence the take-off without having obtained the assigned deParture heading or track and should advise ATC if the heading or track is unacceptable.
10. Unless explicitly cancelled or amended by ATC, the pilot must follow the vertical and lateral profile of the SID and comply with any published speed restrictions.
11. The use of a SID designator without a cleared level does not authorize the pilot to climb on the SID vertical profile.
    • A level restriction depicted on a SID chart does not authorize a pilot to climb to meet that restriction. ATC will assign climb to permit compliance with vertical navigation restrictions. Pilots must inform ATC if a level restriction cannot be met.
    • When a deParture report is required during a SID, the SID designator must be included in the report.
    • For a radar SID, the direction of turn and the assigned heading must be advised in the airborne report.
    REF: AIP ENR 1.5, 8.2 – SID Procedures

Question 48

IPC Quiz

Knowledge Requirement:
Departure and Approach Instrument procedures

Once the aircraft has started an instrument approach, must it continue on the approach till it reaches the aerodrome?

Answer 48

Q: Once the aircraft has started an instrument approach, must it continue on the approach till it reaches the aerodrome?

No. The aircraft need not commence or may discontinue the approved instrument approach procedure to that aerodrome once the visual approach criteria are met.

Pilots should advise ATC that they are “VISUAL” as soon as they are satisfied that the visual approach requirements can be met. A pilot who is unable to continue a visual approach which has been authorised by ATC must immediately advise ATC

REF: AIP ENR 1.6 1.14.3 & 1.14.4 & 1.14.6