Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dental Pharmacology > Dental Pharmacology Exam 1 > Flashcards

Dental Pharmacology Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

xenobiotics

A

chemicals not synthesized in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pharmacodynamics =

Pharmacokinetics =

A

what the drug does to the body

what the body does to the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pharmacovigilance =

pharmacogenenics =

A

the safetly of the drug

variations in response due to genetic differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

examples of drugs that do not follow the receptor method of action

A

antacids

osmotic diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

most drug/receptor bonds are (weak or strong) and are classified as ______ type.

A

weak

van der waals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

name 6 receptor types

A 
transmembrane ion channel
transmembrane G protein 
transmembrane enzymatic cytosolic domains
intracellular
adhesion
extracellular enzyme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

explain the nicotinic Ach receptor

A
  • ligand gated ion channel
  • the ligand binds to the channel
  • allows permeability to Na
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

G protein activation steps (4)

A
  • Agonist binds
  • GTP attaches to Alpha unit, displacing GDP
  • alpha-GTP diffuses to the effector
  • effector activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

activating adenyl cyclase is (inhibitory or stimulatory)?

A

stimulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

major G proteins and their actions (5)

A
  • G(s) = stimulatory = activates adenyl cyclase
  • G(I) = inhibitory = inhibits adenyl cyclase
  • G(0) = inhibits Ca channes
  • G(q) = activates phospholipase C
  • G(12/13) = ion transport interactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Adenyl cyclase reaction

A

ATP —–[adenyl cylase]——> cAMP——>PKA———> Protein phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Phospholipase C reaction

A

PIP3——-[PLC]——–> DAG + IP3

DAG——–> PKC——–> protein phosphorylation

IP3———-> Ca————> protein phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Intracellular receptor example = ______

important characteristics to know about the ligand

A

steroid hormone, thyroid hormone

  • lipohillic
  • binds a transcription
  • causes changes in genome/protein translation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ligand A increases cAMP and Ligand B decreases cAMP

Net result?

A

they cancel each other out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tachyphylaxis

A

RAPID/REPEATED administration of the SAME DOSE of a drug, resulting in REDUCED effect over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

desensitization

A

decreased ability of a receptor to respond to stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

homologous desensitization vs. heterologous

A

homo = one receptor has decreased response

hetero = 2 or more receptors have decreased response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

inactivation of receptor =

refractory =

down- regulation =

A

inactivation = loss of ability for a receptor to respond to stimulation by drug or ligand

refractory = a period of time before the next drug/receptor interaction can produce an effect

down-regulation = less receptors available due to persistent drug-receptor interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe down regulation of a receptor

A
  • LESS receptors available due to CHRONIC drug interaction

- the receptor is INTERNALIZED in the cell and SEQUESTERED or DEGRADED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Kd =

A

K(off)/K(on)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

affinity and Kd relationship

A

inc Kd

dec affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Drug A: 3 mg binds 50% of ther receptors

Drug B: 1 mg binds 50% of the receptors

Which has higher affinity? Kd?

A

Drug B = higher affinity, lower Kd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Kd occurs at ____% binding.

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

KNOW : graphs on Lecture 1/2 slide 32

A

:)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

On the drug-receptor binding curve:

  1. 0 LR/R0 =
  2. 5 LR/R0 =
A
  1. 0 = 100% binding

0. 5 = 50% binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

dose-dependent response =

A

as you increase the dose, you increase the effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Kd = EC50 means that

A

at 50% receptor/drug binding, you get 50% of the effect

  • does not always occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ED50
TD50
LD50

A
  • effective (therapeutic) dose = 50% of the pop has a therapeutic response
  • toxic dose = same but toxic response
  • lethal dose = same but lethal response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which statement is correct?

  1. The receptor must be bound to the ligand in order for the response can occur
  2. The receptor may not be bound to the ligand and can till cause a response
A

2

“some receptors can spontaneously activate with binding of a drug”

CHECK!!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

antagonist (2)

A
  • no intrinsic activity

- cause no response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Competitive antagonist binds ____ on the receptor and is (IRREVERSIBLE or REVERSIBLE)?

A

at the active site

reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Non-competitive antagonists bind _____ on the receptor and are (IRREVERSIBLE or REVERSIBLE)?

A

at the ACTIVE SITE or ALLOSTERICALLY

active site = irreversible
allosteric = both irreversible and reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

full agonists have an intrinsic activity =

Pure antagonists have an intrinsic activity =

A

1

0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

potency =

efficacy =

A

potency = response of a drug over a given range of concentrations
- the effective CONCENTRATION (of the agonist) leading to its high maximal effect

efficacy = effect of a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

define intrinsic activity

A

maximal effect of a drug or EFFICACY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

graph:
y axis: % max response
x axis: [agonist]

in the presence of a COMPETITIVE agonist:

  • the curve will shift which way?
  • what happens to max response
A
  • curve shifts to the right

- max response remains the same because eventually the the reversible antagonist will pop off.

37
Q

graph:
y axis: % max response
x axis: [agonist]

in the presence of a NON-COMPETITIVE agonist, what happens to?

  • potency
  • efficacy
A
  • potency = unchanged

- efficacy = less max activity bc some receptor activity is blocked

38
Q

In the presence of a non-competitive antagonist, the max activity is (INCREASED or DECREASED)?

  • The max activity will be unchanged if, ______ is present?
A

decreased

spare receptors (and if there is a LOW dose of non-comp antagonist)

39
Q

Partial agonist =

inverse agonist =

A

partial = activates receptor but not at max efficacy

inverse = inactivates active receptor

40
Q

Competitive antagonist:

  • effect on potency?
  • effect on efficacy?
  • action:
A
  • potency = yes
  • efficacy = no

binds REVERSIBLY the active site of the receptor, COMPETES with agonist binding.

41
Q

_____ prevents receptors from going into spontaneous activity

and DEFINE how they achieve this (2)?

A

inverse antagonist

  • have opposite effects of the agonist
  • prevents baseline activity of the receptor
42
Q

spare receptors

  • define
  • how do they affect EC50 and Kd
A

50% response before you get 50% binding

EC50 is lower than Kd

43
Q

Competitive antagonist:

  • effect on potency?
  • effect on efficacy?
  • action:
A
  • potency = no
  • efficacy = yes
  • binds IRREVERSIBLY to the active site OR allosterically
  • prevents conformational change of the receptor
44
Q

therapeutic index formula =

A

TI = TD50/ED50

45
Q

narrow therapeutic window means

A
  • only effective in a narrow range of concentrations

- increased concentrations the drug may become toxic.

46
Q

What are the four ways in which the body handles the drug

A
  1. absorption
  2. Distribution
  3. Metabolism
  4. Excretion
47
Q

which statement is true?

  1. When bound to a binding protein, the drug can not be excreted or metabolized.
  2. In order for the drug to be metabolized or excreted it must be bound to a binding protein.
  3. When bound to a binding protein, the drug can then bind its receptor
A

1

48
Q

Brain capillaries are surrounded by _______ so drugs (can/cannot) pass into the brain

A

astrocytes

cannot

Blood brain Barrier

49
Q

Blood brain barrier is permeable to primarily very ______ molecules

A

lipophilic

50
Q

Weak acids (e.g. _________ ) are absorbed better in _______ environments (e.g ________).

These weak acids will exist in a ______ form.

A

aspirin
acidic environments
stomach

HA (uncharged form)

51
Q

Concentration - TIme curve graph.

Describe

A
  • elevating absorption phase
  • rapid declining distribution
  • declining excretion phase
52
Q

Concentration-Time curve graph

Define Cmax, Tmax, half life

A

Cmax = maximal concentration at full absorption before distribution occurs.

Tmax = the time that Cmax occurs

half life = time to go from Cmax to half max concentrion

PLASMA CONCENTRATION!

53
Q

Bio availability

A

the amount of drug administered that actually gets absorbed

54
Q

first pass metabolism

A

when drugs get immediately exposed to liver metabolsm

55
Q

which route of drug administration is more likely to be exposed to first pass metabolism

A

oral/enteral

56
Q

Volume distribution (also known as ______) = (FORMULA)

A

apparent volume

= total amount of drug in the body/drug blood plasma concentration

57
Q

Weak bases (e.g. _________ ) are absorbed better in _______ environments (e.g ________).

These weak bases will exist in a ______ form.

A

codeine
basic environments
intestine

A- + H+

58
Q

High sequestration in the plasma suggests a _____ volume of distibution

A

LOW

59
Q

Loading Dose = (FORMULA)

A

(desired plasma concentration) x (Vd)

60
Q

Parenteral route of drug administration refers to the administering of drugs ________. Name a view disadvantages

A

pain
infection
irreversible
skilled personnel

61
Q
  • Highly lipophilic drugs might be distributed to ___ tissue
  • Ions might be distributed to ____ tissue
  • highly plasma protein-bound molecules
  • small water soluble molecules
  • large water soluble molecules
A
  • adipose tissue
  • bone and teeth
  • plasma
  • total body water
  • extracellular water
62
Q

high volume of distribution suggests that

A

the drug is stored in tissue other than blood plasma (e.g. fat)

63
Q

site or parenteral route drug adminsteration

A
  • subcutaneous (lidocaine)
  • intramuscular
  • intravenous (morphine)
  • intrathecal = Blood brain barrier
64
Q

Transdermal administration of drugs requires _____ type of drug. Name 2 disadvantages

A

highly lipophilic

  • slow delivery to the site of action
  • irritating to skin possibly
65
Q

IV administration of a drug has an altered concentration-time curve. this is due to_____

A

very rapid absorption phase because the drug is absorbed immediately.

66
Q

Describe the concentration-time graph if:

  • distribution only (no excretion)
  • excretion only (no distribution)
  • both distribution and excretion
A
  • distribution will plateau eventually (equilibrium)
  • with excretion only, the excretion phase will decline in a linear continuous pattern
  • rapid distribution decline and slower excretion decline (both linear)
67
Q

Polar substances are excreted via _____.

Non-polar substances are excreted via ____.

Which is most common means of excretion?

A

urine

bile

Urine

68
Q

elimination includes (2)

A

metabolism and excretion

69
Q

Which route of drug administration requires a highly lipophilic drug

  • may cause infection?
  • few drugs are available in this method?
  • susceptible to first pass metabolism
  • slow delivery to site of action
A
  • transdermal
  • parenteral
  • muscous membrane
  • oral
  • oral and transdermal
70
Q

Phase 1 metabolism =

Phase 2 metabolism =

A
  • oxidation/reduction phase (Cytochrome P)

- conjugation reactions (glucoronation)

71
Q

During renal excretion ____% of plasma is filtered.

A

10%

72
Q

During renal excretion, some substances are actively secreted (example ___________) and have a ______ half life

A

penicillin

short

73
Q

Clearance formula

A

clearance = (metabolism + excretion)/[drug]

74
Q

As Vd increases, what happens to the half life?

As Clearance increases, what happens to the half life?

A
  • increases

- decreases

75
Q

How is half-life effected? (increased or decreased)

  • aging
  • obesity
  • pathologic fluid
  • cytochrome P450 induction
  • CYP450 inhibition
  • cardiac failure
  • hepatic failure
  • renal failure
A
  • decreases (dec muscle mass dist)
  • increases (increased adipose tissue dist.)
  • increases
  • decreased
  • increased
  • increased
  • increased
  • increased
76
Q

Zero order vs. first order

  1. Enzyme systems are saturated during
  2. Constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
  3. Constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time
  4. Most common form of elimination
  5. elimination is linear
  6. easier to get into the toxic range
A
  1. Zero
  2. Zero
  3. First
  4. First
  5. Zero
  6. zero
77
Q

ethanol is eliminated via ____ order elimination

A

zero

78
Q

Concentration steady state define

A

concentration of blood when the rate of input of the drug equals the rate of output.

79
Q

Loading dosage define

A

an increased amount of drug to get the pt into the therapeutic range faster

80
Q

It takes approximately ____ elimination half lives to reach steady state on any drug regimen

A

4

81
Q

Half-life formula =

A

t1/2 = (Vd x 0.693)/CL

82
Q
  • Continuous infusion of the drug
  • Infrequent large doses
  • frequent small doses

which can keep the pt within the therapeutic range?

A

continuous infusion of the drug

freq small doses

83
Q

Maintenance dose =

A

concentration steady state x clearance

84
Q

CYP450s have _____ which aids in the oxidation process

A

heme groups

85
Q

True or false.

CYP450 oxidation must occur before Phase II metabolism may occur

A

false

86
Q

Conjugation reactions make substances more hydro______ by adding ____ species.

A

hydrophilic

polar

87
Q

examples of Drug transport proteins

A

MDR1
OATP
OCT

88
Q

Statin is a P450 substrate. St. John’s wart is an inducer. If a pt is taking both, what will happen to:

  • metabolism of statin
  • effective concentration of statin
A
  • increased metabolism

- lower effective concentration

89
Q

Most common form of P450.

second most common form of P450.

A
  • most common = 3A4

- second most common = 2D6

Dental Pharmacology (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions