Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BDS4 Paediatric Dentistry > Dental Anomalies > Flashcards

Dental Anomalies Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 different subsections of dental anomalies?

A
  • number
  • shape and size
  • structure
  • eruption and exfoliation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Provide examples of dental anomalies of number

A
  • hypodontia
  • hyperdontia/supernumerary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is hypodontia?

A

congenitally missing teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the most common teeth to be missing in hypodontia?

A
  • third molars
    • 9-37% have >1 missing
  • mandibular premolars
    • 1.2-2.5%
    • most commonly 5s
  • maxillary lateral incisors
    • 1-2%
  • lower central incisor
    • lateral coded for before central
  • last tooth in the series is most likely to be missing
    • lateral incisor
    • second premolar
    • third molar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What teeth are least likely to be missing?

A
  • first permanent molars
  • upper central incisors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Celtic Canine?

A
  • absence of a maxillary canine
    • very rare
    • most common in Scotland/Ireland
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What conditions may be associated with hypodontia?

A
  • ectodermal dysplasia
    • abnormal development of skin, nails, etc
      • fine, sparse hair
      • saddle shaped nose
      • intolerance to sweating
  • Down syndrome
    • trisomy 21
  • cleft palate
  • Hurler’s syndrome
    • IUDA deficiency
      • lysosomal enzyme
  • incontinentia pigmenti
    • genodermatosis
      • skin, eye, teeth, CNS abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can pose a challenge when replacing the space left by a missing upper lateral incisor in a hypodontia patient?

A
  • over-eruption of the lower canine
  • if no tooth or retained primary
    • must keep canine in position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the different dental management options for hypodontia?

A
  • diagnosis
  • removable prosthesis
  • orthodontics
  • composite build ups
  • porcelain veneers
  • bridges and implants
  • preventative treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can removable prosthesis be used for management of hypodontia?

A
  • used until patient is old enough for definitive restoration
    • space maintenance
  • over denture
    • placed over infraoccluded teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When can a definitive solution be considered for hypodontia patients?

A
  • once growth is complete
    • must be out of the mixed dentition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How can ortho be used to manage hypodontia patients?

A
  • changing the size and location of spaces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can composite build ups be used to manage hypodontia patients?

A
  • teeth are commonly small and straight sided or cone shaped
    • build up to traditional shape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can porcelain veneers be used to manage hypodontia patients

A
  • teeth are commonly small and straight sided or cone shaped
    • veneer to traditional shape
  • must wait until early 20s
    • gingival margin settles at this age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can bridges and implants be used to manage hypodontia patients?

A
  • replacement of spaces
    • definitive
    • once fully grown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is preventative treatment so important for hypodontia patients?

A
  • must prevent tooth loss
    • already have reduced number of teeth
  • considered high risk
    - enhanced prevention route
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What problems may present with dental management of hypodontia?

A
  • abnormal tooth shape and form
    • cone shaped
    • straight sided
    • small
  • spacing
  • submergence/infraocclusion
  • occlusal problems
    • deep overbite
    • reduced LFH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the prevalence of hyperdontia?

A

1.5-3.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is hyperdontia more common in males or females?

A

males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Is hyperdontia more common in the mandible or the maxilla?

A

maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What condition may be associated with hyperdontia?

A

cleidocranial dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 4 types of supernumerary teeth? Describe them

A
  • conical
    • cone shaped
  • tuberculate
    • barrel shaped
    • has tubercles
      • can have premolar like appearance
  • supplemental
    • looks like tooth of normal series
    • most commonly lateral incisor
    • supplemental usually smaller
    • both usually erupt
      • chose to keep one in better position
  • odontome
    • irregular mass of dental hard tissue
      • complex
      • compound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What problem can supernumerary teeth cause?

A

most common cause of delayed eruption of permanent incisors, particularly upper lateral incisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Provide examples of anomalies of tooth shape and size?

A
  • microdont
  • macrodontia
  • double teeth
  • odontomes
  • taurodontism
  • dilaceration
  • accessory cusps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the prevalence of microdontia and what gender is more commonly affected?

A
  • 2.5%
  • more common in females
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is microdontia?

A
  • reduced tooth size
    • e.g. peg shaped lateral incisor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is macrodontia?

A
  • increased tooth size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the prevalence of microdontia?

A
  • 1% for single teeth
  • 0.1% for generalised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the two ways in which double teeth can form?

A
  • germination
    • one tooth splits into two
  • fusion
    • two teeth join to form one
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is taurodontism and what risks does it pose?

A
  • flame shaped pulp
    • bull horn appearance
  • increased risk of pulp exposure
    • normal clinical appearance
    • larger pulp to expose during restoration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is dilaceration?

A
  • deviation or bend of the crown or root
    • may or may not be caused by trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are accessory cusps?

A
  • extra cusps
    • e.g. talon cusp
      • can be labial or palatal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How can peg shaped laterals be managed?

A
  • commonly with composite build ups
34
Q

How can talon cusps be managed?

A
  • selective grinding
    • small amount of tooth ground away
    • fluoride applied
    • encourage pulp to shrink
  • disguise with composite
35
Q

What is dens in dente and how are they managed?

A
  • tooth within a tooth
  • invaginations within teeth
    • additional pulp system
  • seal all areas
    • prevent ingress of bacteria
    • cannot perform RCT
36
Q

Provide examples of anomalies of root structure

A
  • short root anomaly
  • dentine dysplasias
  • accessory roots
37
Q

Describe short root anomaly and its implications

A
  • 2.5% incidence in permanent maxillary incisors
    • 15% also have affected canines and premolars
  • high risk of root resorption with ortho
    • roots begin much shorter than average
38
Q

Provide examples of anomalies in enamel structure

A
  • amelogenesis imperfecta
    • hypoplastic
    • hypocalcified
    • hypomaturational
    • mixed forms
  • environmental enamel hypoplasia
    • systemic
      • systemic diseases
      • kidney failure
      • liver failure
    • nutritional
      • deficiencies during development
    • metabolic
      • Rhesus incompatibility
      • liver diseae
    • infection
      • measles
  • localised enamel hypoplasia
    • trauma
      • enamel lesions on permanent teeth
      • result of trauma to primary teeth
    • infection of primary teeth
      • most commonly primary molars
      • spots visible on premolars
      • ask if any primary teeth extracted
39
Q

How does hypomineralised enamel form?

A
  • secretory phase adequate
    • correct enamel matrix
  • mineralisation phase inadequate
    • incorrect mineralisation
  • white, brown or yellow patch appearance
40
Q

How does hypoplastic enamel form?

A
  • secretory phase inadequate
    • insufficient enamel matrix
  • mineralisation phase adequate
    • correct mineralisation
  • chunks of enamel missing but good quality
41
Q

How can hard tissue defects be categorised?

A
  • aetiology
    • localised
    • generalised
      • environmental
      • hereditary
42
Q

How might localised hard tissue defects form in enamel?

A
  • trauma
    • damage to primary tooth
    • causes damage to permanent tooth
  • infection
    • caries then abscess in primary tooth
    • defect apparent in permanent tooth
43
Q

Provide examples of generalised environmental hard tissue defects in enamel

A
  • fluorosis
  • hypoplasia associated with childhood illness
44
Q

What is fluorosis and how does it present?

A
  • increased fluoride content in enamel
    • uptake during enamel development
  • mild
    • diffuse white flecks across teeth
    • generally good appearance
      • patients may not like discrepancy
  • more severe
    • diffuse brown patches
45
Q

How can fluorosis be managed and what warning must be given to patients?

A
  • can successfully remove marks
    • only surface layer of enamel affected
  • micro abrasion therapy
    • advise that teeth will be normal enamel
    • colour will be darker
  • veneers
    • usually composite
    • patient can chose shade
  • vital bleaching
    • disguises whiter areas
46
Q

What is enamel hypoplasia associated with childhood illness?

A
  • inadequate enamel formation in association with a childhood illness
    • areas of missing enamel
  • chronological pattern
    • can see areas on different teeth
    • correspond to time of illness
    • once better, enamel forms normally
47
Q

How can enamel hypoplasia associated with childhood illness be managed?

A
  • composite veneers
48
Q

When investigating a enamel hypoplasia associated with childhood illness what 3 time periods must be investigated?

A
  • prenatal
  • neonatal
  • postnatal
49
Q

What does investigation of the prenatal period in relation to generalised enamel hypoplasia involve?

A
  • any issues with the mother
    • rubella
    • congenital syphilis
    • cardiac issues
    • kidney disease
  • drug history
    • thalidomide
  • deficiencies
    • fluoride
    • vitamins A & D
50
Q

What does investigation of the neonatal period in relation to generalised enamel hypoplasia involve?

A
  • prematurity
    • hypoplasia/hypomineralisation common
  • meningitis
51
Q

What does investigation of the postnatal period in relation to generalised enamel hypoplasia involve?

A
  • otitis media
  • measles
  • chickenpox
  • TB
  • pneumonia
  • diptheria
  • vitamin deficiencies (A, C and D)
  • heart disease
  • long term health problems (e.g. organ failure)
  • cardiac conditions have a strong link to enamel defects
52
Q

Provide an example of a generalised hereditary enamel defect

A

amelogenesis imperfecta

53
Q

What is the prevalence of amelogenesis imperfecta and what are the genetic links?

A
  • 1:14,000
  • familial inheritance
    • autosomal dominant
      • most common in Europe and USA
    • recessive
      • most common in Middle East
    • x-linked
  • check for associated systematic disorder
  • family history
    • can be a new mutation
    • mild form in relatives
      • never diagnosed
54
Q

How can amelogenesis imperfecta be diagnosed?

A
  • family history
    • positive affirmation not required
  • generally affects both dentitions
    • worse in permanent
    • often no diagnosis in primary
  • affects all teeth
  • tooth size, structure and colour
  • radiographs
    • no change in radiolucency between enamel and dentine
55
Q

What gene mutations have been found in amelogenesis imperfecta and what kind of molecules are they?

A
  • extracellular matrix molecules
    • amelogenin
    • enamellin
  • kallikrein 4
56
Q

How does the hypoplastic type of amelogenesis imperfecta form?

A

the enamel crystals do not grow to the correct length

57
Q

How does the hypomineralised type of amelogenesis imperfecta form?

A

the crystallites fail to grown in thickness and width

58
Q

How does the hypo maturational type of amelogenesis imperfecta form?

A

enamel crystals grow incompletely in thickness or width but to normal length with incomplete mineralisation

59
Q

What problems are associated with amelogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • sensitivity
    • less enamel protecting dentine and pulp
  • caries/acid susceptibility
    • carious lesions form
      • even with reasonable diet/OH
    • erosion
      • dentine quickly uncovered
  • aesthetics
    • brown colour
      • honeycomb like appearance
    • white colour with flecks
    • can be poor or good
    • mild appears similar to fluorosis
  • delayed eruption
  • anterior open bite
60
Q

What solutions are available for amelogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • preventive therapy
    • enhanced prevention route
  • composite veneers/composite wash
    • improves aesthetics
    • reduces sensitivity
  • fissure sealants
    • if molars not too badly affected
  • metal/ceramic onlays
    • can be challenging
      • bonding system less effective
  • stainless steel crowns
    • when 6s have just erupted
      • replaced with more aesthetic option
      • when older
  • orthodontics
    • for anterior open bite
      • not just aesthetic
    • can be very challenging
      • debonding very common
      • bonding systems do not work as well
      • may have to put metal bands around all teeth
61
Q

What systemic disorders may be associated with enamel defects (not amelogenesis imperfecta)?

A
  • epidermolysis bulls
  • incontinenta pigmenti
  • Down syndrome
  • Prader-Willi
  • porphyria
  • tuberous sclerosis
  • pseudohypoparathyroidism
  • Hurler’s
62
Q

Provide examples of structural anomalies affecting dentine

A
  • dentinogenesis imperfecta
  • dentine dysplasia
  • odontodyspluasia
  • systemic disturbance
63
Q

What is dentine dysplasia?

A
  • normal crown morphology
  • amber radiolucency
  • pulpal obliteration
  • short constricted roots
64
Q

What is odontodysplasia?

A
  • localised arrest in tooth development
  • thin layers of enamel and dentine
  • large pulp chambers
  • ‘ghost teeth’ appearance radiographically
65
Q

What kind of systemic disturbances can cause anomalies in dentine?

A
  • nutritional
  • metabolic
  • drugs
66
Q

How many types of dentinogenesis imperfecta are there and what are they called?

A
  • 3 types
    • Type II
      • associated with bone conditions
        • osteogenesis imperfecta
    • Type II
      • autosomal dominant
      • not associated with other conditions
    • Brandywine
67
Q

How is dentinogenesis imperfecta diagnosed?

A
  • appearance
    • amber/translucent/grey colour
  • family history
  • associated osteogenesis imperfecta
    • patient in wheelchair
    • multiple bone fractures
    • blue sclera of eye
  • both dentitions affected
  • radiographically
    • bulbous crowns
      • look similar to primary teeth
      • must look at root morphology
    • obliterated pulp
      • pulp large when first erupted
      • very quickly obliterated
      • very challenging for endodontics
    • occult abscesses
      • no demonstrative disease on crown
  • enamel loss
    • enamel formed normally
    • lost very quickly as not attached at ADJ
68
Q

What is Brandywine dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • localised ot Brandywine, Maryland, USA
  • tri-racial mix
    • native american
    • irish
    • afra-american
  • not many new genes being introduced
69
Q

What problems are associated with dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • aesthetics
  • caries/acid susceptibility
  • spontaneous abscess
    • very difficult to treat
  • poor prognosis
70
Q

What possible solutions exist for dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • prevention
    • enhanced prevention route
  • composite veneers
    • difficult to bond
  • over dentures
    • attempt to protect teeth
  • removable prosthesis
  • stainless steel crowns
    • as many teeth as possible
71
Q

Which hereditary dentine defects are limited to dentine only?

A
  • dentinogenesis imperfecta type II
  • dentine dysplasia types I and II
  • fibrous dysplasia of dentine
72
Q

What general disorders may be associated with hereditary dentine defects?

A
  • osteogenesis imperfect
  • Ehlers-Dablos syndrome
  • brachio-skeletal genital syndrome
  • rickets
  • hypophosphatasia
73
Q

What 3 parts of treatment must be considered for tooth structure defects?

A
  • prevention and pain control
  • restoration of lost tissue
  • harness growth
74
Q

What are the 5 components of dental management of tooth structure defects?

A
  • continuous dental care
  • management of growth and development
  • removable prosthesis
  • crowns
  • interceptive orthodontics
75
Q

What structure anomalies can exist affecting cementum?

A
  • cleidocranial dysplasia
    • hypoplasia of cellular component
  • hypophosphatasia
    • hypoplasia or aplasia of cementum
    • early loss of primary teeth
      • nothing holding teeth into bone
76
Q

What anomalies of eruption exist?

A
  • premature exfoliation
  • delayed exfoliation
77
Q

What can cause premature eruption?

A
  • high birth weight
  • precocious puberty
  • natal/neonatal teeth
    • 1:2000/3000 births
78
Q

What can cause delayed eruption?

A
  • pre-term and low birth weight
  • malnutrition
  • associated general conditions
    • Down syndrome
    • hypothyroidism
    • hypopituitarism
    • cleidocranial dysplasia
  • gingival hyperplasia/overgrowth
    • pseudo delayed eruption
      • teeth have erupted but not visible
79
Q

Why might natal teeth be extracted and what impact does this have?

A
  • inhalation risk
  • teeth are part of the normal eruption series
    • just erupted extremely early
    • must warn that there will be a gap left
80
Q

What are the possible causes of premature exfoliation?

A
  • trauma
  • following pulpotomy
    • reason not known
  • hypophosphatasia
  • immunological deficiency
    • cyclic neutropenia
  • Chediak-Higashi syndrome
  • Histiocytosis X
81
Q

What are the possible causes of delayed exfoliation?

A
  • infra-occlusion
    • appearance of tooth sinking into gum
    • 1-9%, more common in males
    • first primary molar most common
    • congenital absence of premolar
    • usually exfoliate by 11-12 years
      • must remove if ankylosed
  • double primary teeth
    • can last longer in the mouth
  • hypodontia
    • no permanent successor to replace
  • ectopic permanent successor
    • permanent not pushing primary out
  • trauma
    • tooth may be ankylosed

BDS4 Paediatric Dentistry (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions