Delta D Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

39,100 feet pressure altitude

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2
Q

Maximum Takeoff and landing tailwind component A319*320

A

10 knots or as permitted by the company pages

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3
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component A321*NEO

A

15 knots or as permitted by the company pages

Note: flaps full recommended when landing with tailwinds greater than 10 knots

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4
Q

Delta crosswind limit for takeoff and landing

A

38 knots including gusts

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5
Q

Minimum altitude for use of autopilot

A

The minimum for takeoff and manual go around is 100 feet AGL and at least 5 seconds after liftoff

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6
Q

Flight Controls limit altitude

A

Do not extend flaps/slats above FL200

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7
Q

CAB PR Excess CAB ALT or Rapid Depressurization

A
  1. Oxygen masks: ON

2. Crew communications: establish

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8
Q

Unreliable Airspeed Indication

A

IF THE SAFE CONDUCT OF THE FLIGHT IS IMPACTED:
1. AP: off
2. A/THR: off
3. FD: off
4. PITCH/THRUST
-Below THR RED ALT: 15 degrees/TOGA
-Above THR RED ALT & Below FL100: 10 degrees/CLB
-Above THR RED ALT & Above FL100: 5 degrees/CLB
5. FLAPS:
-(if conf 0 (1)(2)(3): maintain current configuration
6. FLAPS
(if config full): select CONF 3 and maintain
7. Speedbrakes: check retracted
8. L/G: up
9. When at or above MSA or pattern altitude: level off for troubleshooting.

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9
Q

Abornomal Alpha Protection

If speed is above Vls, and the aircraft goes into a continuous nose down pitch rate, which cannot be stopped with side stick inputs:

A
  1. One ADR pb: keep on

2. Remaining two ADR pb(s): off

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10
Q

Loss of braking

A
  1. Thrust Levers: maximum reverse (as required)
  2. Brake pedals: release
  3. A/SKID & NWS switch: off
  4. Brake pedals: apply (max 1000 PSI)
  5. Parking brake (if required): use

Note: use short successive parking brake applications to stop the aircraft

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11
Q

Emergency Evacuation Flow/Philosophy

A

Stop
Configure
Shutdown
Evacuate

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12
Q

Pushback FO flow “ATC”

A

Apu-APU Bleed pb ON
Transponder-on
Cockpit Door-closed and locked

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13
Q

After Start/After delayed start FO

Norm-y BIAST-F

A

Norm- Eng Mode selector: norm
Y-yellow electric hyd pump ON if S/E taxi
B-bleed panel: set as required for taxi/2nd eng start
I-Eng anti-ice as required
A-APU master SW: off when not needed
S-ECAM status page: check if STS
T-verify stab trim set if WDR available and/or set time for engine warm up
F-set flaps to the SDR flap setting or the default of 2, if WDR not available

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14
Q

Before T/O flow

Lead, Bleed, Brakes, Config, Ignig, Squawk, Talk

A

Lead: make PA to flight attendants and receive acknowledgement
Bleed: APU bleed ON or packs off if required per WDR
Brakes: autobrakes MAX and brake temp less than or equal to 275 C
CONFIG: TO CONFIG pb
IGNIG: continuous ignition if required
SQUAWK: transponder RA/TA
Talk: navigation briefing if not already accomplished

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15
Q

After takeoff (flaps up) Pilot monitoring

A
Pilot monitoring "3 in a Row, Ice and APU to go"
Flaps up
Eng Mode Selector: norm
Spoilers: disarm
Anti Ice: as required
APU Bleed pb/APU: as required
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16
Q

After Landing

A

First Officer: Five in a Row, Ice and APU to go (backward W)

Transponder: ON
Flaps Up
Eng Mode Selector: Norm
Spoilers: verify disarmed
Radar: off
Ice: WAI off, EAI as required
APU: as required
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17
Q

Taxi-In

A

First Officer: YIK-X like yikes after 3 minutes with captain concurrence and engine cooldown

Yellow electric pump: on (for SE taxi)
Ice: off (engine anti-ice)
Kill engine Eng 2 master sw: off (for SE taxi)
X bleed: open for SE taxi

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18
Q

One aircraft length from gate on taxi in

A

Bleed, Brake Fan ON (if required)
APU Bleed pb: on
Brake Fan: on (if required, A321 only)

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19
Q

After stopped at the gate and CA says Let ‘em up and shut ‘em down

FO: SIK

A

Seatbelt Sign: off
Ice: off (engine anti-ice)
Kill the engines after ensuring cooldown

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20
Q

Shutdown: after seat belt sign off, engine anti-ice off, APU avail, and engine master switch off: FO YFB ETE

A

Yellow electric pump: off
Fuel Pumps: off
Beacon: off

Engines: confirm shutdown via E/WD Upper ECAM
Transponder: STBY
Ext Pwr: on if available

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21
Q

Describe the roles of the elevator aileron computers ELAC1 and ELAC 2

A
  • Provides control of the elevators, ailerons, and trimmable horizontal stabilizer THS
  • Determines requirement for and activates spoiler assist during rolls, and rudder input for yaw
  • Both ELAC’s are normally active. Should one fail, the remaining ELAC automatically assumes all ELAC related runctions.
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22
Q

Describe the roles of the Flight Augmentation Computers FAC1 and FAC 2

A

Provides control of the Rudder to include:

  • turn coordination
  • yaw damping
  • high/low speed rudder limiting
  • rudder trim
  • only one FAC is active at a time with the other serving as a backup
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23
Q

Describe the roles of the spoiler elevator computers SEC 1-2-3

A
  • SEC’s are responsible for specific pair, or pairs, of spoiler panels
  • SEC 1 and SEC 2 can provide backup control of the elevators and THS in the event of dual ELAC failure
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24
Q

Normal Law:

A
  • defines the flight control computers’ logic of the airplanes pitch, roll and yaw limits during normal operations
  • ALL PROTECTIONS ARE AVAILABLE in order to prevent the airplane from exceeding its designed flight envelope. Active when all, or nearly all, systems are functioning correctly.
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25
Q

Alternate Law:

A
  • defines the flight control computers logic of the airplanes pitch, roll, and yaw limits in response to multiple failures involving a flight control computer, hydraulic, or navigation system/s AIDRS
  • maintains a high level of capability, through some flight control characteristics change, and SOME FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTIONS ARE LOST.
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26
Q

Direct law:

A
  • typically occurs as the results of the landing gear lowered while in Alternate law but, can also be the result of more significant system failures
  • flight control feel, and response is like a conventional aircraft but, ALL PROTECTIONS ARE LOST
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27
Q

mechanical backup law

A
  • occurs when all flight control computers have failed or there has been a total loss of electrical power
  • side sticks are inoperative, and the airplane can only be controlled by manual pitch trim, rudder pedals and engine thrust
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28
Q

Abnormal attitude law

A
  • provides sufficient control to recover from unusual attitudes as the result of extraordinary external event
  • is a subset of alternate law
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29
Q

Describe load factor deman

A
  • available in Normal AND alternate Law
  • Flight Control computers interpret pitch change commands as G-load changes:
    1. climb commands (stick aft) result in a POSITIVE G-LOAD change
      2. Descent commands (stick forward) result in NEGATIVE G-load change
      3. Neutral stick results in ZERO G-load change
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30
Q

Describe automatic pitch trim during a roll

A
  • automatic pitch trim is provided by the ELAC’s in normal AND alternate law
  • pitch trim is automatically provided for bank angles up to and included 33 degrees!!
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31
Q

Describe maneuver protection

A
  • available in normal AND alternate law
  • Restrics flight control surface movement that would cause the airplane to exceed its designed structural G-load limits:
  • clean configuration (flaps and slats retracted): -1.0g to +2.5g !!!
  • Slats extended, and flaps retracted: -1.0g to +2.5g !!!
  • Slats and flaps extended: 0.0 g to 2.0g !!
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32
Q

Describe Pitch Protection

A
  • Available ONLY in normal law
  • Prevents excessive nose up and nose down attitudes
  • ELAC will allow attitudes no greater than 30 nose up or 15 nose down!!!, even if side stick is held full aft/forward
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33
Q

Describe High Speed Protection

A
  • Available ONLY in normal law
  • attempts to prevent airplane from exceeding VMO/MMO!!!!
  • Autopilot automatically disengages
  • ELAC automatically pitch the airplane up to limit further acceleration, even if the sidestick is held full forward
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34
Q

Describe Alpha Protection (Alpha Prot)

A

-Available ONLY in normal law
-Flight control computers prevent the airplane’s angle of attack from exceeding a predetermined threshold at low airspeeds
0autopilot automatically disengages and speed brakes, if deployed, automatically retract
-flight control computers logic changes from load factor demand to direct sidestick pitch control
-pilot sidestick input CAN OVRRIDE the flight control computers and further degrade the AOA

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35
Q

Describe the indication of Alpha Prot on the airspeed indicator

A
  • Alpha Prot is represented by the position of the top of the AMBER AND BLACK BAND
  • is available ONLY in normal law
  • it CAN BE OVERRIDDEN with aft side stick movement
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36
Q

Describe Alpha Max and how it is indicated on the airspeed indicator

A
  • Alpha max is the highest angle of attack that the flight control computers will allow:
    1. Available ONLY in normal law
    2. It CANNOT be overridden by the pilot even with full aft sidestick pressure

-it is represented by the top of the red band on the airspeed indicator

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37
Q

Describe roll rate in normal law

A
  • full side stick deflection yields the maximum allowable roll rate of 15 degrees per second!!!!, regardless of airspeed or configuration
  • deflecting a sidestick only halfway yields a roll rate half of the maximum allowable rate
  • neutral side stick commands a zero change in roll rate
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38
Q

Describe bank angle hold and positive spiral static stability

A

-Both are only available in normal law

Bank angle hold: at commanded BANK ANGLES OF GREATER THAN 33 DEGREES, the bank angle is maintained with automatic pitch trim when side stick is released

Positive spiral static stability: at commanded bank angles of LESS THAN 33 DEGREES, if the sidestick is released, bank angle returns to and maintains 33 degrees
Continuous pressure must be applied to the sidestick to hold bank angles exceeding 33 degrees as well as pitch

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39
Q

Describe the role of automatic pitch trim during turns

A
  • available in normal and alternate law
  • at bank angles LESS THAN OR EQUAL TO 33 DEGREES, the ELAC automatically introduce the necessary back pressure through automatic pitch trim
  • at bank angles above 33 degrees!!!, this feature becomes inhibited, and the aft sidestick will be necessary to maintain a level turn
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40
Q

Describe bank angle protection

A
  • available only in normal law

- ELAC restrict bank angle to a maximum of 67 degrees!!!, even in full left or right side stick is maintained

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41
Q

Recall the indications of normal law on the pfd

A
  • Green equal signs displayed at:
  • 67 degree bank angle limit
  • +30 degree and -15 degree pitch attitude limits
  • high speed protection limit
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42
Q

Ground Mode

A
  • active when airplane is on the ground
  • direct relationship between the side sticks and flight control surfaces
  • permits pilot to perform a flight control check and rotate the airplane on takeoff
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43
Q

Flight Mode

A
  • active shortly after takeoff

- all flight control computer protections and flight characteristics take effect

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44
Q

Flare (landing) mode

A
  • becomes active as the airplane descends through 50 FEET RA!!, at which point the ELACS “memorize” the pitch attitude
  • beginning at 30 FEET RA!!!, the ELACS add a gentle nose down pitch command
  • Instinctively, the pilot counters this nose down action with aft sidestick input, resulting in a landing flare maneuver much like a conventional airplane
  • shortly after landing, the airplane returns to ground mode and then THS resets to 0
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45
Q

Explain how roll control is maintained while in alternate law

A
  • Direct relationship exists between sidestick deflection and elevator/aileron deflection
  • All roll control fight characteristics and protections are lost
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46
Q

High speed stability

A
  • becomes active slightly below VMO/MMO
  • ELACS command the elevators to increase the pitch, attempting to prevent an increase in airspeed

NOTE: high speed stability CAN BE overridden by sidestick input

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47
Q

Low speed stability

A
  • Becomes active at airspeed slightly higher than stall speed
  • Flight control computers command the elevators to decrease pitch, attempting to increase speed

NOTE: low speed stability CAN BE overridden by sidestick input

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48
Q

Recall the stall warning speed indication on the PFD speed scale when in Alternate or direct law

A

-stall warning speed is represented by the top of the black/red barber pole on the pfd speed scale

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49
Q

Recall the indications of alternate law

A
  • all green equal signs on the PFD associated with normal law are replaced with amber X’s
  • F/CTL ALTN LAW (PROT LOST)!!!! message in the E/WD memo section

Note: contrary to the ECAM message, SOME flight control computer protections remain active

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50
Q

Recall the indications of direct law

A
  • the amber X’s present in alternate law remains in view
  • USE MAN PITCH TRIM (in yellow) appears above the artificial horizon on the PFD
  • F/CTL DIRECT LAW (PROT LOST)…in yellow : message in the E/WD memo section

Note: in this case, the ECAM message is correct and ALL PROTECTIONS are lost

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51
Q

Describe mechanical backup law

A
  • provides mechanical control of the airplane in the event all flight control computers have failed or there is total electrical failure
  • it is intended to be used only for as long as it takes to restore flight control computers or electrical power
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52
Q

Recall which flight control surfaces are operational when in mechanical backup law

A
  • rudder
  • trimmable horizontal stabilizer THS
  • mechanical cable connections to these flight controls permit continued use ONLY if hydraulic power to the respective servos is available
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53
Q

Recall the PFD indications of mechanical backup law

A
  • amber X’s present in alternate and direct law remain
  • MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY (all in red) appears above the artificial horizon on the PFD

Note: PFD displays are predicated on electrical power being available

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54
Q

Describe Abnormal Attitude Law.

A

 Ensures flight characteristics and protections associated with Normal Law do not interfere with recovery from an
abnormal flight attitude.
 Essentially it is Alternate Law with no automatic pitch trim or yaw damping. After the recovery has been made,
the aircraft remains in Alternate Law for the remainder of the flight!!!!
NOTE: Law will NOT degrade to Direct Law once the landing gear is extended.

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55
Q

Describe the Rudder and Rudder Trim displays on the ECAM F/CTL page.

A

 The rudder is depicted in green and represents actual rudder position.
 Commanded rudder trim is represented by the cyan (blue) tick mark.

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56
Q

Recall the meaning of a pulsing A-LOCK (blue) on the E/WD.

A

A-LOCK is displayed as an indication that leading-edge slat retraction has been inhibited due to excessively low airspeed
or high angle of attack.
 Once airspeed and/or angle of attack corrections have been made, the slats will respond to flap lever commands
and retract, and A-LOCK indication disappears.

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57
Q

Describe the sidestick priority system.

A

The sidestick priority system allows either pilot’s sidestick to have sole control of the aircraft in the event of an opposing
sidestick’s failure.
 Pressing and holding the Autopilot Disconnect/Priority pb:
• Disengages the autopilot/s, if engaged.
• Temporarily deactivates the opposite sidestick.
• Generates respective “Priority Left” or “Priority Right” voice message
• A red arrow illuminates only on the SIDE STICK PRIORITY indicator of the pilot whose sidestick has been
deactivated.
• If the deactivated sidestick is sensed not to be in the neutral position, CAPT or F/O (both green) illuminates only on
the SIDE STICK PRIORITY indicator of the pilot who has taken priority.

Example of: Capt. has taken priority, but the FO’s side stick is not in neutral position.

 After 40 seconds of pressing the sidestick Autopilot Disconnect/Priority pb, it may be released, and the opposing
sidestick will remain temporarily deactivated.
NOTE: A deactivated sidestick may be reactivated at any time by simply be pressing its Autopilot Disconnect/Priority pb.

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58
Q

Explain what occurs should both sidesticks be simultaneously moved.

A

DUAL INPUT is heard over the flight deck loudspeakers.

  • if moved in the same direction: ELAC will SUM THEIR INPUTS, up to a maximum of one sidestick’s full deflection
  • if moved in opposite directions ELACs cancels both inputs
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59
Q

Describe the indications on the ECAM F/CTL page of hydraulic system power sources.

A

 G indicates controls powered by the Green hydraulic system.
 Y indicates controls powered by the Yellow hydraulic system.
 B indicates controls powered by the Blue hydraulic system.
NOTE: The system’s letter appears in amber if the respective hydraulic system has failed.

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60
Q

Describe the indications of the Flight Control Computers on the ECAM F/CTL page.

A

 The two ELACs and the three SECs are depicted.
 The respective computer’s number is shown in green when functioning normally.
 If a flight control computer fails or has been selected OFF, the computer’s number and the half-box surrounding it
both turn amber.
NOTE: The two FACs are not depicted on the ECAM F/CL page.

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61
Q

Describe the indications of Pitch Trim on the ECAM F/CTL page.

A
  • A digital readout for PITCH TRIM is presented on the F/CTL page:
  • it displays the angle of the THS for nose UP or nose DN trimming.

For example -.6 UP indicates the THS is set at -.6 for aircraft nose up trimming

1.2 DN indicates the THS is set at 1.2 for aircraft nose down trimming

Note: pitch trim must be manually set for takeoff. Once airborne pitch trim is automatically positioned per flight control computer logic

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62
Q

Recall the two references on the ECAM F/CTL page which represent the neutral aileron positions.

A
  • the two WHITE TICK MARKS represent the ailerons neutral position when the flaps are retracted
  • the WHITE SQUARE represents the ailerons neutral position when the flaps are extended. This is referred to as AILERON DROOP and provides additional aerodynamic lift when the flaps are extended
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63
Q

Describe the indication on the E/WD memo section of Speed Brake deployment.

A
  • appear in GREEN when the speed brakes are deployed, and the engines are at IDLE
  • appears in AMBER when the speed brakes are deployed, and the engines are ABOVE IDLE
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64
Q

Explain speed brake deployment limits with Autopilot engagement.

A

 With an autopilot engaged, the range of speed brake deployment is limited to half the maximum possible deployment
range. Placing the speed brake lever beyond the ½ position will yield no further deployment.
 Should autopilot failure occur with the speed brake lever beyond the ½ position, the speed brakes will immediately
deploy further to meet the lever’s commanded position.

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65
Q

Recall the method/s of monitoring Speed Brake and Ground Spoiler deployment.

A

 Vertical pointing arrows (green) appear on both ECAM F/CTL and WHEEL pages.
 On landing, the ground spoilers are monitored on the WHEEL page, which is automatically displayed
with landing gear extension

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66
Q

Recall the conditions that will cause Speed Brakes to automatically retract if deployed in-flight.

A

 FLAPS FULL selected.
 Airspeed decreases to Alpha Prot.
 Thrust Levers placed in TOGA.

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67
Q

Recall the requirements for automatic Ground Spoilers deployment during landing or rejected takeoff.

A
  • both main gear struts must be compressed
  • main gear wheel speed must be at 72 knots or greater
  • if the spoilers are ARMED: spoilers deploy when BOTH THRUST LEVERS are placed at idle stop.
  • if the spoilers are NOT ARMED: spoilers deploy when AT LEAST ONE THRUST LEVER is in the REV range and the other is at the IDLE stop
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68
Q

Recall the function of each position of the X BLEED selector.

A

o SHUT:
 Commands cross bleed valve closed, overriding auto logic.

o AUTO:
 Auto logic controls opening and closing of the cross bleed valve
• cross bleed valve commanded open when the APU bleed valve is open.
• cross bleed valve commanded closed when APU bleed valve is closed.
• cross bleed valve commanded closed when a bleed leak is detected.
o OPEN:
 Commands the cross bleed valve open, overriding the auto logic.

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69
Q

Recall the indications of external high-pressure air being applied to the pneumatic system.

A

-With NO internal air source being provided (ie APU or engine bleed air) a PSI value is displayed on the left side of the ECAM BLEED page. By default the air source must be an external high-pressure air cart

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70
Q

Recall the indications of the engine bleed valves and HP valves on the ECAM bleed page

A

Engine bleed vales are depicted next to the respective engine’s number 1 and 2 on lower portion on the page

HP valves are depicted on the lower portion of the page to the white HP designator

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71
Q

Recall the indications when APU bleed air is in use

A

APU bleed valve indicates open on the ECAM bleed page

APU bleed is displayed in green on the memo section of the E/WD

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72
Q

Recall the areas of the aircraft where a bleed air leak can be detected

A

Wings: each wing’s bleed air duct
Engine pylons: area from the engine to the respective wing bleed duct
Aft fuselage: area surrounding the APU bleed air duct

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73
Q

Recall the indications and effects of Zone controller channel failures: Primary channel failure:

A

ALTN MODE appears at the top of the ECAM COND page.

-secondary channel operates as backup

  • flow setting function and optimized temp function are not available
  • HOT AIR and TRIM AIR valves close
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74
Q

Recall the indications and effects of Zone controller channel failures: Secondary channel failure

A

Has no effect on zone temperature regulation

-backup mode is lost. Temperature indications are lost.

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75
Q

Recall the indications and effects of Zone controller channel failures: Primary and secondary channel failure:

A

PACK REG appears at the top of the ECAM COND page.

  • Removes all information from the ECAM COND page.
  • optimized and backup temperature regulation lost.
  • Packs deliver a fixed temperature
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76
Q

Recall the effect of air condition Pack Controller channel failure: primary channel failure

A
  • secondary channel operates as backup

- pack flow is fixed at previous setting

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77
Q

Recall the effect of air condition Pack Controller channel failure: secondary channel failure

A
  • has no effect on pack flow regulation
  • backup mode is lost
  • ECAM indications related to corresponding pack are lost
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78
Q

Recall the effect of air condition Pack Controller channel failure: primary and secondary failure

A
  • pack outlet temperature is controlled by the anti-ice valve
  • outlet temperature is stabilized
  • ECAM indications related to the pack are lost
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79
Q

Recall which cargo compartment is heated and ventilated

A
  • only the aft cargo compartment is temperature controlled, using the controls located on the overhead CARGO HEAT panel.
  • Temperature of the aft cargo compartment can be monitored by referencing the ECAM COND or CRUISE pages.
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80
Q

How many cabin pressure controllers are installed and where the active system is displayed on the ECAM?

A
  • two

- designated as SYS1 and SYS2, the current active system can be viewed on the ECAM CAB Press page.

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81
Q

Describe how to active and standby CPC’s switch roles:

A

Auto: shortly after each landing
-in the event the active failed

Manual: placing the MODE SEL pb to Man for 10 seconds, the returning it back to AUTO (lights out) mode

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82
Q

Recall the Avionics Compartment’s venting and cooling configuration which is not automatic and requires pilot action.

A

 The AVIONICS SMOKE configuration requires pilot action in order to vent smoke within the avionics
compartment overboard.
 Placing the BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs to OVRD (white):
• allows additional air from the air conditioning system to enter the compartment
• forces all air within the compartment overboard
NOTE: FAULT appears on the BLOWER and EXTRACT pb as the result of smoke being detected in the avionics compartment

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83
Q

Describe the function of the manual pressurization controls.

A

MODE SEL pb:

▪ selecting MAN (light on) enables the use of the
MAN V/S CTL toggle switch to manually control the outflow valve.
▪ Deactivates the AUTO pressurization mode.
o MAN V/S CTL toggle switch:
▪ UP commands the outflow valve open, reducing cabin pressure – increasing cabin’s altitude- “taking the cabin
up”.
▪ DN commands the outflow valve close, increasing cabin pressure – decreasing cabin’s altitude- “taking the cabin
down”.
NOTE: Pressurization system performance can be monitored on either the ECAM CAB PRESS or Cruise page.

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84
Q

Recall, in the event the flight must return to the departure airport immediately after takeoff, what pressurization system
action must be taken by the pilot.

A

No pilot action is required. The pressurization system will automatically return the cabin to match the takeoff altitude.
This is referred to as the system’s Abort Mode.

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85
Q

Describe the function of the DITCHING pb.

A

Placing the DITCHING pb to ON commands the following openings to close:
▪ Outflow valve (if the MODE SEL pb is AUTO)
▪ Emergency Ram Air Inlet
▪ Avionics ventilation inlet and outlet valves
▪ Pack flow control valves
NOTE: Each valve listed above is located below the aircraft’s flotation line

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86
Q

Recall the Avionics Compartment’s venting and cooling configuration which is not automatic and requires pilot action.

A

▪ The AVIONICS SMOKE configuration requires pilot action in order to vent smoke within the avionics
compartment overboard.
▪ Placing the BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs to OVRD (white):
• allows additional air from the air conditioning system to enter the compartment
• forces all air within the compartment overboard

NOTE: FAULT appears on the BLOWER and EXTRACT pb as the result of smoke being detected in the avionics compartment.

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87
Q

Recall the indications for an APU fire.

A

▪ Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC)sounds.
▪ Red MASTER WARN lights flash.
▪ Red guarded APU FIRE light illuminates on the overhead FIRE panel.
▪ APU FIRE message and associated action steps appear in the E/WD memo section.
▪ APU page appears on the SD.

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88
Q

Recall the number of halon fire bottles available for each engine, the APU, and the cargo compartments.

A

▪ Each engine has 2 bottles.
▪ APU has 1 bottle.
▪ The Forward and Aft cargo compartments share 1 bottle.

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89
Q

Describe the APU’s automatic fire protection function.

A

▪ The APU master computer automatically performs an APU EMER SHUTDOWN and discharges the APU fire
extinguisher.
NOTE: APU automatic shutdown due to a fire and Fire Bottle discharge is only available when the aircraft is on the ground.

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90
Q

Recall the type of smoke detection system available in the avionics compartment.

A

▪ Smoke detectors which only sense particulates.

▪ Heat sensing is not available.

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91
Q

Recall the location where the Aft Cargo compartment’s temperature is displayed and can be monitored.

A

▪ Aft Cargo compartment temperature is displayed and can be monitored from either:

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92
Q

Recall the exterior aircraft indications of an APU fire.

A

▪ External warning horn sounds.

▪ Red APU FIRE light illuminates on the External Power Panel.

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93
Q

Explain the meaning of the FLAP OPEN and LOW OIL LEVEL indications on the ECAM APU page.

A

FLAP OPEN:
▪ APU air intake flap is fully open.
▪ Flap is commanded open when APU MASTER SW pb is selected to ON.
▪ APU starter motor is inhibited until flap is fully open.
LOW OIL LEVEL:
▪ APU’s oil tank quantity is sensed to be low.
▪ Indication would appear immediately when the APU MASTER SW pb is selected to ON and the aircraft is on the
ground.
NOTE: With LOW OIL LEVEL indicated, the APU START pb should not be selected to ON. Contact maintenance for assistance.

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94
Q

Recall the indications when the APU is “On-Speed”.

A

AVAIL appears on the:
▪ APU START pb
▪ ECAM APU page
APU AVAIL appears on ECAM Memo Section

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95
Q

Recall the function of the APU MASTER SW pb.

A

ON :
▪ APU computer is enabled and performs a self-test.
▪ Air intake flap is commanded open.
Light out – the APU computer is deactivated, and the APU shuts down.
FAULT– an automatic shutdown or failed start has occurred.
NOTE: Selecting the APU MASTER SW to OFF (light out) will accomplish a normal shutdown sequence.

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96
Q

Explain why the aircraft batteries must be on for all APU starts and when the APU generator is the sole source of
electrical power.

A
  1. Turning the batteries ON permits the APU starter motor to connectto the aircraft Battery Buses, which are the only power
    source available to the starter motor.
  2. On the ground, in the event of an APU fire while the APU generator is the sole source of power, the batteries being on
    ensure a power source for proper APU shutdown and extinguisher discharge.
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97
Q

Recall the function of the APU BLEED pb and APU GEN pb.

A
o APU BLEED pb:
▪ ON - commands the APU bleed valve open
o APU GEN pb:
▪ Light out – APU generator will automatically energize once the APU is on speed
▪ OFF - APU generator is de-energized
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98
Q

Recall the uses of APU bleed air.

A
APU bleed air CAN be used for:
▪ Engine starts.
▪ Air conditioning pack operation.
APU bleed air MAY NOT be used for:
▪ Wing anti-icing.
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99
Q

Recall which start malfunction a FADEC cannot sense and therefore cannot automatically abort.

A

▪ Tailpipe fire
NOTE: This start malfunction requires the pilot to manually abort the start by placing the respective ENG MASTER
switch to OFF.

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100
Q

Recall how Continuous Ignition can be manually activated.

A

Following an engine start, cycle the ENG MODE selector from NORM back to IGN/START .
NOTE: appears in the memo section of the E/WD whenever continuous ignition is active. This is the only
indication that the system is active.

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101
Q

Recall the engine igniter displays on the ECAM ENGINE page.

A

▪ Engine igniters are displayed as A and B.
▪ During engine start, A or B, appears at the lower portion of the ECAM ENGINE page, indicating an active igniter.
▪ AB indicates that both igniters are being used for that engine’s start or continuous ignition is active.
NOTE: FADECs independently alternate which igniter is used with each start. For example, if igniter A was used for the first
start, then igniter B would be used for the next start. FADECs do not match each other’s igniter selection.

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102
Q

Recall the E/WD N1 gauge’s indications.

A

▪ Green digital numeric N1 speed and analog green line N1 speed.
▪ Amber tick mark – FADEC computed maximum N1 for current ambient conditions.
▪ Red arc – maximum permissible.
▪ Circle – current position of the associated thrust lever.
▪ Blue arc – indicates the difference between actual N1 and the thrust commanded by the auto thrust system.
▪ Boxed amber REV – one or more of the reverser blocker doors is not stowed or not locked.
▪ Boxed green REV – all four reverser blocker doors are fully deployed.

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103
Q

Recall the meaning of the grey background of an N2 display on E/WD.

A

An engine start sequence is in progress. When the start sequence is complete or aborted, the grey background is removed.

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104
Q

Recall the functions of the controls and indicators on the ENG panel.

A

o ENG MASTER 1(2)switches:
▪ ON – initiates the automatic start sequence when ENG MODE selector is set to IGN/START
▪ OFF – shuts down the engine or aborts the start sequence
o ENG MODE selector:
▪ NORM – normal operations following engine start
▪ IGN/START – selected prior to all engine starts:
• Displays the ECAM ENGINE page on the SD
• Activates both FADECs
• Commands both pack valves to close for 30 seconds
• Increases APU speed (If being used)
• Following an engine start, continuous ignition is activated when cycled from the NORM position
▪ CRANK – selected to Dry Crank / Ventilate the engine.
• No fuel or ignition will be supplied
• Displays the ECAM ENGINE page on the SD
• Activates both FADECs
o FIRE – illuminates when an engine fire has been detected.
o FAULT – illuminates when
• Automatic start has been aborted (FADEC start fault)
• There is a disagreement between the actual position of the HP fuel valve and its commanded
position.
NOTE: There is no relationship between the FIRE and FAULT indications. They are separate indications

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105
Q

Explain what occurs when an ENG MAN START pb is selected ON.

A

▪ The respective engine start valve opens provided:
- ENG MODE selector is in IGN/START or CRANK
- Bleed air pressure is available
▪ The respective start valve automatically closes at approx. 50% N2 but the
ON remains illuminated until reselected.

106
Q

Describe igniter behavior during automatic versus manual starts.

A

▪ Automatic starts – engine igniters alternate between starts (A or B).
▪ Manual starts – both igniters are automatically activated (AB)

107
Q

Describe the position of the EGT Limit tick mark (amber) on the EGT display during and after engine start.

A

▪ During engine start, the tick mark moves to the start EGT limit.
▪ When the start is complete, the tick mark returns to the Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) EGT limit.

108
Q

Recall the power sources for the AC Buses during normal operating conditions.

A

o AC Buses 1 & 2:
▪ Respective Engine Generator (IDG 1 or 2).
▪ External power
▪ APU generator
o AC ESS Bus:
▪ Normally by AC Bus 1
▪ AC Bus 2 manually, when AC ESS FEED pb is selected to ALTN
▪ AC Bus 2 automatically, via the auto switching logic

109
Q

Describe the electrical system’s power priority.

A
  1. Respective engine generator
    External power (If selected ON)
    APU generator
    Opposite engine generator
110
Q

Recall the functions of the BUS TIE pb.

A

AUTO (light out) – Power priority order logic is active.
OFF – Power priority order logic is deactivated.
- AC Bus 1 and 2 can only be powered by their respective engine generator.
- External or APU generator power cannot be applied to the aircraft.

111
Q

Recall the purpose of the AC ESS FEED pb.

A

The AC ESS FEED pb is used to manually command AC Bus 2 to power the AC ESS Bus.
When in the “light out” configuration:
▪ AC Bus 1 powers AC ESS Bus. This the normal configuration.
▪ Should AC Bus 1 fail, AC Bus 2 automatically powers AC ESS BUS.
When selected to ALTN:
▪ AC Bus 2 is commanded to power AC ESS Bus regardless of the status of AC Bus 1.
▪ ALTN appears only when the pb is selected.

112
Q

Explain the information provided by the electrical power legends on the ECAM ELEC page.

A
o GEN 1 & GEN 2 and APU GEN:
▪ Percentage of output
▪ Voltage
▪ Frequency
o EXT PWR:
▪ Voltage
▪ Frequency
NOTE: The EXT PWR legend appears whenever the external power cord is connected to the aircraft and
Volts and Freqs meet requirements.
113
Q

Recall the display on the ECAM ELEC page of an unpowered AC or DC ESS SHED Bus.

A

The word SHED (amber) appears under AC ESS or DC ESS buses only when the respective SHED Bus has automatically shed.
(Shed meaning unpowered).

114
Q

Explain the meaning of GALLEY SHED display on the ECAM ELEC page.

A

o In-flight – When on single generator power, GALLEY SHED indicates that the galley’s main bus
has been automatically depowered. However, its secondary bus remains powered.
o On the Ground – With either external or APU generator power in use, both main and secondary galley buses
remain powered.
o When the GALLEY pb is selected OFF, GALLEY SHED indicates that the galley’s main and secondary buses are depowered.

115
Q

Recall the cautions associated with selecting the guarded IDG 1 and IDG 2 pbs.

A

To avoid damage to the IDG disconnect mechanism DO NOT:
▪ Disconnect unless the engine is operating or is wind-milling.
▪ Hold the pb(s) for more than three (3) seconds.

116
Q

Explain the color coding convention of the circuit breakers.

A

o Green:
▪ Circuit breaker is monitored by the Flight Warning Computers (FWCs).
▪ C/B TRIPPED message appears ECAM when CB is open for more than 1 minute.
o Black:
▪ Circuit breaker is not monitored by the FWCs therefore,
no “C/B TRIPPED” message is generated.
▪ The system which the circuit breaker supports may be
monitored by the FWCs
o Yellow:
▪ Pulled when flying on batteries only.
o Red:
▪ The red cap around the circuit breaker prevents it from being reset.
▪ Provide circuit protection to the Wing Tip Brakes (WTB).

117
Q

Recall how Generator 1 is affected when the GEN 1 LINE pb is selected OFF.

A

o Opens generator 1’s line contactor, in affect isolating it from the remainder
of the aircraft’s electrical system.
o Generator 1 is limited to only powering one fuel pump in each wing tank.

118
Q

Describe the two methods of activating the emergency generator.

A

o Automatically:
▪ Loss of power to AC Bus 1 and 2 in flight will automatically deploy the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) and activate the
emergency generator.
o Manually:
▪ Selecting the red guarded MAN ON pb on the EMER ELEC PWR panel will manually deploy the Ram Air Turbine
(RAT) and activate the emergency generator.
NOTE: Selecting the RAT MAN ON pb on the HYD panel will deploy the RAT but
will not activate the emergency generator.

119
Q

Explain the configuration called “Emergency Generation After Loss of All Main Generators”.

A

It means that AC Buses 1 and 2 are unpowered and the Emergency generator
is powering:
- AC ESS Bus
- DC ESS Bus, through the ESS TR
- AC and DC ESS SHED buses through their ESS Buses
NOTE: The ECAM message for this configuration appears as: ELEC EMER CONFIG
“Emergency Electrical Configuration”.

120
Q

Explain what occurs to the emergency generator when the landing gear is lowered.

A

The emergency generator is automatically deactivated, and the aircraft batteries become the sole source of electrical power.
NOTE: A red FAULT light illuminates on the EMER ELEC PWR panel when AC Buses 1 and 2 are unpowered and the RAT
is deployed but the emergency generator is not supplying power

121
Q

Recall the location and use of the MAINT BUS switch.

A

▪ Located on the electrical panel on the ceiling of the forward galley.
▪ When selected ON, allows external power for ground servicing without energizing the entire aircraft’s electrical
system.
▪ Only requires external power to be connected and have good Volts and Freqs.

122
Q

Recall what would be powering the aircraft in this scenario:

A
  • both engines are shut down
  • the APU START pb indicates AVAIL
  • the EXT PWR pb indicates ON
    The aircraft is being powered by External Power because it has priority over the APU generator.
    ▪ The AVAIL light indicates that the APU is “On Speed”
    ▪ The ON light in the EXT PWR pb indicates that external power has been selected
123
Q

Recall the power source when;

  • both engines are shut down
  • the APU START pb indicates AVAIL (green)
  • the EXT PWR pb indicates AVAIL (green)
A

In this scenario, the aircraft is being electrically powered by the APU generator.
▪ The AVAIL light in the APU START pb indicates that the APU is running.
▪ The AVAIL light in the EXT PWR pb only indicates that external power has been
connected to the aircraft and it meets power requirements (good Volts and Freqs).
Therefore, since external power has not been selected ON and the APU is running, the APU generator is powering the aircraft.
(The APU generator’s pb is normally left in the ON (light out) position.
NOTE: External power must always be manually selected ON, using the EXT PWR pb, in order for it to be able to be applied to
the electrical system.

124
Q

Describe the Flight, Cabin, and Service Interphone systems.

A

o Flight Interphone System
▪ Permits communication between:
• Captain
• First Officer
• 3rd Occupant
• Ground personnel connected at the External Power Panel
▪ Requires use of the INT (Transmission keys & Reception knobs) controls on the Audio Control Panels (ACP).
o Cabin Interphone System
▪ Permits communication between the flightdeck and cabin.
▪ Requires the use of the CAB (Transmission key & Reception knob) controls on the Audio Control Panels
(ACP).
o Service Interphone System
▪ Permits communication between the flight deck and the numerous exterior maintenance receptacles.
▪ Requires the use of the CAB (Transmission key & Reception knob) controls on the Audio Control Panels
(ACP).

125
Q

Recall the purpose of the Radio Management Panels(RMPs).

A

Used to select and tune all communication radios, SELCAL and standby navigation radios.

126
Q

Recall the purpose of the Audio Control Panels(ACPs).

A

▪ Selection of radios and interphone system for transmission and reception
▪ Control of reception volume
▪ Transmission on the Public Address (PA)system
▪ Filtering of Morse code signals from NAVAID reception.

127
Q

Recall the function of each position of the INT/RAD switch.

A

o INT – allows hands-free (“hot mic”) transmission on the Flight Interphone system
through a headset boom or oxygen mask microphone.
o Neutral – requires the use of a sidestick trigger for transmission.
o RAD (Spring-Loaded) – allows transmission for the selected transmission key .

128
Q

Recall the function of the AUDIO SWITCHING selector.

A

o Permits selection of ACP 3 by either pilot in the event their respect ACP has
failed.
o When CAPT 3 or F/O 3 has been selected, “AUDIO 3 XFRD” appears on the
memo section of the E/WD.
NOTE: Use of ACP 3 does not affect either RMP’s operation

129
Q

Recall the indications when receiving a transmission from SELCAL, Mechanic, or Cabin Crew.

A

o SELCAL:
▪ CALL flashes in amber within the respective communication radio
transmission keys (VHF 1/2/3 or HF 1/2).
▪ Buzzersounds on flightdeck.
o Mechanic: Ground call from the External Power Panel
▪ MECH flashes in amber within the INT transmission keys.
▪ Buzzersounds on flightdeck.
▪ Light goes off after 60 seconds if it is not reset.
o Cabin Crew:
▪ ATT flashes in amber within the CAB transmission keys.
▪ Buzzer sound on the flight deck.
▪ Light goes off after 60 seconds if it is not reset.
NOTE: Pressing the RESET key on the ACP will extinguish a
flashing CALL, MECH, or ATT light.

130
Q

Recall how flight deck oxygen mask microphones are activated and de-activated.

A

o Activation:
▪ Occurs by opening the mask’s storage compartment’s left-hand door.
▪ A white OXY ON flag indicates that the microphone is enabled.
o De-activation:
▪ Occurs by closing the respective compartment’s left-hand door, and then
pressing the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET button.
NOTE: Oxygen mask microphones are available for the Captain’s, First Officer’s, and 3rd occupant’s oxygen masks. The 4th

occupant’s oxygen mask microphone is not operational.

131
Q

Describe the two methods of making a Public Announcement (PA).

A

▪ Using the handset mounted at rear of the center pedestal.
▪ Pressing and holding the PA transmission key on the ACP, and speaking
into a headset boom or oxygen mask microphone.

132
Q

Explain the controls on the overhead CALLS panel.

A

o ATTND ADV pb – NOT used by DAL
o MECH pb:
▪ COCKPIT CALL light illuminates on the external power panel.
▪ External horn sounds at the nose of the aircraft.
o FWD pb:
▪ High/low chime sounds at the forward section of the cabin and CAPTAIN CALL appears at the forward Flight
Attendant panel.
o AFT pb:
▪ High/low chime sounds at the aft section of the cabin and CAPTAIN CALL appears at the aft Flight Attendant
panel.
o EMER pb:
▪ ON in white and CALL in amber flash within the pb.
▪ High/Low chime sounds three times throughout the cabin.
▪ EMERGENCY CALL appears on all Flight Attendant panels.

133
Q

Explain the function of the controls on the RCDR panel.

A

o GND CTL pb:
▪ ON (blue) - Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) are actively recording.
▪ AUTO (lights out) - the CVR & DFDR automatically start recording with first engine start.
o CVR ERASE button - Erases the CVR tape if the button is pressed for a brief time provided:
• Aircraft is on the ground
• Parking brake is on.
o CVR TEST button - Tests the CVR provided:
• GND CTL pb is selected ON
• Parking brake is set.
• Low frequency tone is heard through the flight deck loudspeaker which indicates a successful test.

134
Q

Explain the system configuration of Flight Management Guidance Computers(FMGCs) 1 and 2.

A

o FMGC 1 generates commands for:
▪ Autopilot 1.
▪ Captain’s Flight Director.
▪ Autothrust
o FMGC2 generates commands for:
▪ Autopilot 2.
▪ First Officer’s Flight Director.
▪ Autothrust
o With autopilots off, FMGC 1 is the master and FMGC 2 the backup
o With autopilot 1 engaged, FMGC 1 is the master and FMGC 2 is the backup
o With autopilot 2 engaged, FMGC 2 is the master and FMGC 1 is the backup.

135
Q

Recall the function of the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA).

A

The FMA is the primary tool used to monitor the status and performance of the autoflight systems.

136
Q

Recall the organization of the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA).

A
▪ Column 1: autothrustsystem
▪ Column 2: autoflight vertical mode
▪ Column 3: autoflight lateral mode
▪ Column 4: approach capabilities and minimums
▪ Column 5: auto flight status
137
Q

Explain the color convention of FMA annunciations.

A

▪ Green – engaged mode
▪ Blue – armed mode
▪ Magenta – altitude constraints (if vertical path includes a level segment).
▪ White – approach capabilities, certain autothrust modes, and auto flight system status.
▪ Amber – thrust and/or flight control system caution messages.
▪ Red – significant flight control system degradation.

138
Q

Recall how to engage and disengage the autopilot.

A

▪ To engage – select either the AP1 or AP2 pbs on the Flight Control Unit (FCU).
▪ To disengage:
• Pressing the autopilot disconnect pb on either sidestick (preferred method).
• Selecting the illuminated AP1or AP2 pb on the FCU.
• Displacing either side sticks or rudder pedals

139
Q

Recall the various autopilot related indications displayed on the top line of column 5 of the FMA.

A

▪ With autopilot disengaged: line 1 will be blank.
▪ Autopilot 1 engaged: AP1
▪ Autopilot 2 engaged: AP2
▪ Both Autopilots engaged: AP1+2

140
Q

Recall how to engage and disengage the flight directors.

A

▪ The Flight Director system is automatically engaged (powered) when electrical power is established on the aircraft.
▪ A respective FD pb, located on each Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
control panel can be used to manually engage or disengage its respective FD.
▪ A green light within the pb indicates that the respective FD is engaged.

141
Q

Recall the various Flight Director related indications on the second line of column 5 of the FMA.

A

▪ Both Flight Directors OFF: the second line will be blank.
▪ Both Flight Directors ON: 1FD2 will be displayed.
▪ CA’s Flight Director selected OFF; FO’s is ON: -FD2 will be displayed.
▪ FO’s Flight Director selected OFF; CA’s is ON: 1FD- will be displayed.
▪ If FMGC 1 has failed: 2FD2 is displayed.
▪ If FMGC 2 has failed: 1FD1 is displayed.

142
Q

Explain how the Autothrust System is normally activated and disconnected.

A

▪ Activated (Turned On):
o The system is normally activated at takeoff when the thrust levers are placed in either the FLX or TOGA position
when both engines are running.
▪ Disconnected (Turned Off):
o The system is normally disconnected by bringing the thrust levers to the idle stop at touch down.
o Pressing the Instinctive Disconnect pb on either thrust lever.
o Pressing the illuminated A/THR pb on the FCU panel.

143
Q

Explain the difference between the Thrust mode and Speed/Mach mode.

A

o Thrust Mode:
▪ A specific thrust level is maintained, and the target airspeed is achieved through pitch changes.
▪ Used during climbs and descents when no specific rate is required.
o Speed/Mach Mode:
▪ Thrust output varies to maintain the target airspeed or mach.
▪ Used during level flight, or during climbs/descents when a specific rate must be maintained.

144
Q

Recall the FMA column 1 indications of Thrust mode and Speed/Mach mode.

A

o Thrust Mode:
▪ MAN TOGA, MAN FLX, MCT, THR CLB, THR IDLE
o Speed/Mach Mode:
▪ SPEED or MACH

145
Q

Recall the Autothrust system’s default operating mode with Autopilots and Flight Directors off.

A

Defaults to Speed/Mach mode.

146
Q

Explain the Autothrust System’s Alpha Floor feature.

A

o Commands TOGA thrust when the aircraft reaches a very high angle of attack.
o Is available from lift-off down to 100ft RA.
o Functions regardless of thrust lever position or autothruststatus.
• If off, autothrust will self-activate.
• Aircraft must be in Normal Law with a functional autothrust system.
Once the condition causing Alpha Floor is resolved, thrust remains at TOGA (TOGA LK) until pilot intervention.

147
Q

Recall the indications associated with Alpha Floor.

A

o A. FLOOR (green) surrounded by an amber box in column 1 of the FMA.
o A. FLOOR (amber) above the N1 displays on the E/WD.
o Engine thrust automatically accelerates to TOGA.
▪ Once the condition which caused Alpha Floor no longer exists
• TOGA Lock engages.
• TOGA LK (green) replaces the A. FLOOR indications on FMA.

148
Q

Explain VLS.

A

▪ VLS is defined as the “Lowest Selectable Speed”. It is an airspeed calculated by the FACs based on aircraft gross
weight and configuration.
▪ It is intended to advise the pilot of the lowest airspeed that should be selected in the current configuration.
NOTE: The pilot can select an airspeed below VLS.

149
Q

Describe where VLS is displayed.

A

VLS is displayed on the airspeed indicator in the form of an amber hook. It is displayed regardless of Flight Control Law or
the status of autothrust.
NOTE: The position of the amber hook is not fixed and will adjust as the result of changes to aircraft’s configuration
(Flaps, Spoilers, Landing Gear).

150
Q

Explain the relationship between VLS and the Autothrust System.

A

▪ When autothrust is active and the aircraft is in Normal Law, thrust will automatically
increase to prevent the airspeed from decreasing below VLS.
▪ The pilot selected airspeed, if lower than VLS, will be ignored.
NOTE: Unlike ALPHA Floor protection, autothrust will not self-activate, if OFF, to
provide lowest safe speed protection.

151
Q

Describe SELECTED guidance of the Autoflight system.

A

• Pulling the SPD/MACH knob selects specific target airspeed.
• Pulling the HDG/TRK knob selects a specific heading.
• Pulling the altitude knob engages an open climb or open descent.
• Pulling the V/S / FPA knob selects a specific vertical speed or flight path angle climb or descent.
NOTE: SELECTED guidance always takes priority over MANAGED guidance.

152
Q

Describe MANAGED guidance of the Autoflight system.

A

o Allows the autoflight system to follow commands generated by the FMS.
▪ Autoflight system complies with the lateral, vertical and target airspeed profiles defined by
the FMGCs’ entered flight plan and constraints entered by the pilot.
o MANAGED guidance is engaged or armed by momentarily pushing the respective knob on the FCU:
NOTE: Pushing the V/S / FPA knob does not result in activating a MANAGED mode. This action would result in the aircraft
immediately leveling off (V/S 0).

153
Q

Explain what a momentary flashing white box indicates within an FMA column.

A

It indicates a new annunciation/display in the respective column.
NOTE: In addition to a white box, a triple click aural warning is provided whenever there is an automatic disengagement
of a managed Lateral or Vertical mode of the FMGS. This is referred to as a “Mode Reversion”

154
Q

Recall when SRS (Speed Reference System) becomes active.

A

▪ At takeoff when thrust levers are placed in either FLX or TOGA.
▪ During a go-around when the thrust levers are placed in TOGA and Flaps 1 or greater has been selected.

155
Q

Recall the required pavement width for a 180-degree turn.

A

▪ The theoretical minimum pavement width required is 75 feet.

156
Q

Describe the minimum obstruction path during a turn.

A

The wingtip swings the largest arc, followed by the tail, then the nose. Therefore, the wingtip determines the
minimum obstruction clearance path during a turn.

157
Q

Recall the location of Cabin Doors, Over wing Emergency Exits and Flight Deck emergency exits.

A

▪ There are 4 cabin doors (2 on each side of the cabin), identified as 1L, 1R, 2L, and 2R.
▪ Cabin doors are each equipped with an interior and exterior control handle which allow for opening and closing
from either the exterior or interior of the aircraft.
▪ There are 4 overwing exits (2 on each side of the aircraft) which can be opened from either the interior or
exterior of the aircraft.
Two (2) Flight deck sliding windows can be used for emergency egress but cannot be opened from the exterior of the
aircraft

158
Q

Describe the ECAM DOOR/OXY page indications.

A

▪ Cabin Entrance Doors:
o Green box – the door is closed and locked.
o Solid amber box with amber CABIN – door is unlocked.
▪ Cargo Doors:
o Green box – door is closed and locked.
o Solid amber box with amber CARGO – door is unlocked.
▪ Avionics Doors:
o Green box – door is closed and locked.
o Solid amber box with amber AVIONIC – door is unlocked.
▪ Overwing Exits:
o Green box – exit is closed and locked.
o Solid amber box with amber EMER EXIT – exit is open, or the cover of the exit control handle has been
removed.

159
Q

Recall the ECAM DOOR/OXY page indications of emergency escape slides being armed.

A

The word SLIDE (white) appears next to the respective cabin door or overwing exit.
NOTE: Only one emergency escape slide is installed per wing.

160
Q

Recall the emergency equipment stored on the flight deck.

A
  • 4 crew life vests (orange)
  • 1 halon fire extinguisher
  • 1 crash ax
  • 4 crew oxygen masks
  • 2 escape ropes
  • 1 Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE)
161
Q

Explain the controls and indicators on the overhead

OXYGEN panel.

A

▪ MASK MAN ON pb:
o When pressed, sends a manual electrical signal to deploy the passenger oxygen masks.
▪ PASSENGER SYS ON light:
o Illuminates (SYS ON) when either an automatic or manual electrical signal has been sent to deploy the
passenger masks.
o An automatic electrical signal is generated whenever cabin altitude exceeds 14,000ft.
▪ CREW SUPPLY pb: controls the crew oxygen low pressure supply valve:
o ON (light out) – supply valve is open; oxygen is supplied to the crew masks.
o OFF (white) – supply valve is closed.

162
Q

Recall the crew oxygen system indications on the ECAM DOOR/OXY page.

A

o OXY (amber) indicates: Low oxygen pressure is detected.

o REGUL LO PR (amber) indicates: Pressure on the low-pressure circuit is low.
(Low pressure at the crew mask regulators)
o OXY and REGUL LO PR (amber) appearing together – indicates the OXYGEN CREW SUPPLY pb is OFF.

163
Q

Recall the function of each position of the EMER EXIT LT switch.

A

o ON – Turns on all cabin emergency lights, which include:
- Overhead emergency lights
- EXIT signs
- Proximity emergency escape path marking system
o OFF – Turns off all cabin emergency lights.
o ARM – All cabin emergency lights come when their normal electrical power is lost:

164
Q

Recall the results of the NO SMOKING switch placed in the AUTO position:

A

o NO SMOKING signs illuminate
o Cabin EXIT signs:
▪ Illuminates when the landing gear is extended.
▪ Extinguishes when the landing gear is retracted.

165
Q

Recall the indications of the Engine Bleed Valves and HP (High Pressure) valves on the ECAM BLEED page.

A

Engine bleed valves are depicted next to the respective engine’s number (1 and 2) on lower portion on the page.
o HP valves are depicted on the lower portion of the page next to the white HP designator.
NOTE: IP (Intermediate Pressure) check valves are not specifically depicted but are represented by a white IP designator.

166
Q

Recall the indications when APU bleed air is in use.

A

o APU bleed valve indicates open on the ECAM BLEED page.

o APU BLEED is displayed in green on the memo section of the E/WD.

167
Q

Recall the areas of the aircraft where a bleed air leak can be detected.

A

o Wings: each wing’s bleed air duct
o Engine pylons: area from the engine to the respective wing bleed duct
o Aft fuselage: area surrounding the APU bleed air duct

168
Q

Recall the indications and effects of Zone Controller channel failures.

A

o Primary channel failure:
 ALTN MODE appears at the top of the ECAM COND page.
- Secondary channel operates as backup.
- Flow setting function and optimized temp function are not available.
- HOT AIR and TRIM AIR valves close.
o Secondary channel failure:
 Has no effect on zone temperature regulation.
- Backup mode is lost. Temperature indications are lost.
o Primary and Secondary channel failure:
 PACK REG appears at the top of the ECAM COND page.
- Removes all information from ECAM COND page.
- Optimized and backup temperature regulation lost
- Packs deliver a fixed temperature

169
Q

Recall the effect of Air Condition Pack Controller channel failures.

A

o Primary channel failure:
 Secondary channel operates as backup.
- Pack flow is fixed at previous setting.
o Secondary channel failure:
 Has no effect on pack flow regulation.
- Backup mode is lost.
- ECAM indications related to corresponding pack are lost
o Primary and Secondary channel failure:
 Pack outlet temperature is controlled by the anti-ice valve.
- Outlet temperature is stabilized
- ECAM indications related to the pack are lost

170
Q

Recall which cargo compartment is heated and ventilated.

A

 Only the aft cargo compartment is temperature controlled, using the controls located on the overhead CARGO HEAT panel.
 Temperature of the aft cargo compartment can be monitored by referencing the ECAM COND or CRUISE pages.

171
Q

Recall how many Cabin Pressure Controllers are installed and where the active system is displayed on ECAM.

A

 There are two Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC) installed.

 Designated as SYS 1 and SYS 2, the current active system can be viewed on the ECAM CAB PRESS page.

172
Q

Describe how the active and standby pressurization controllers (CPCs) switch roles.

A

o Automatically:
 Shortly after each landing.
 In the event the active controller fails.
o Manually:
 Placing the MODE SEL pb to MAN for 10 seconds, and then returning it back to the AUTO (lights out) mode.

173
Q

Describe the function of the LDG ELEV selector.

A

o In AUTO (detent) position:
 FMGCs provide the pressurization system with the landing field elevation.
o Outside of AUTO (turning clockwise):
 Landing field elevation is set manually.
 Used when both FMCGs have failed or when landing airport is not in the FMS data base.
NOTE: Selector is calibrated in thousands, not hundreds of feet.

174
Q

Describe the function of the manual pressurization controls.

A

o MODE SEL pb:
 selecting MAN (light on) enables the use of the
MAN V/S CTL toggle switch to manually control the outflow valve.
 Deactivates the AUTO pressurization mode.
o MAN V/S CTL toggle switch:
 UP commands the outflow valve open, reducing cabin pressure – increasing cabin’s altitude- “taking the cabin
up”.
 DN commands the outflow valve closed, increasing cabin pressure – decreasing cabin’s altitude- “taking the cabin
down”.
NOTE: Pressurization system performance can be monitored on either the ECAM CAB PRESS or Cruise page.

175
Q

In the event the flight must return to the departure airport immediately after takeoff, recall what pressurization system
action must be taken by the pilot.

A

No pilot action is required. The pressurization system will automatically return the cabin to match the takeoff altitude.
This is referred to as the system’s Abort Mode

176
Q

Explain the location and function of the STATUS page.

A

▪ Located on the SD (Systems Display).
• Provides an operational summary of the state of the aircraft.
▪ Displayed by:
• Pressing the STS pb on the ECAM control panel.
• Automatically as part of the ECAM Non-Normal Procedure.
• Automatically when CONF 1 (FLAPS 1) has been selected in the approach phase and the Status page is not
empty.
NOTE: The STS REMINDER (A white boxed STS) appears at the lower portion of the E/WD whenever information exists
on the STATUS page

177
Q

Recall the Avionics Compartment’s venting and cooling configuration which is not automatic and requires pilot action.

A

 The AVIONICS SMOKE configuration requires pilot action in order to vent smoke within the avionics
compartment overboard.
 Placing the BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs to OVRD (white):
• allows additional air from the air conditioning system to enter the compartment
• forces all air within the compartment overboard
NOTE: FAULT appears on the BLOWER and EXTRACT pb as the result of smoke being detected in the avionics compartment

178
Q

Describe the organization of the Electronic Instrument System (EIS).

A

▪ Six identical cathode ray tube Display Units (DUs) in two parts:
▪ Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS):
• Two Primary Flight Displays (PFDs) – normally displayed on the outboard DU.
• Two Navigation Displays (NDs) – normally displayed on the inboard DU.
▪ Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor (ECAM):
• Engine/Warning Display (E/WD) – normally displayed on the Upper ECAM.
• Systems Display (SD) – normally displayed on the Lower ECAM

179
Q

Describe the components of the Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS).

A

▪ Three Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs), each divided into two units:
• Air Data Reference (ADR) Unit – processes pitot-static information.
• Inertial Reference (IR) Unit – processes attitude, positional, and wind data.
• ADIRU 1 supplies information to the CA’s PFD and ND.
• ADIRU 2 supplies information to the FO’s PFD and ND.
• ADIRU 3 serves as a backup.

180
Q

Describe the general displays of the E/WD.

A
▪ Primary engine operating parameters - N1, N2, EGT and Fuel Flow
▪ Supplemental operating information:
• Thrust limit mode
• Fuel on Board (FOB)
• Slat/Flap position
▪ Memo section:
• Normal and non-normal operations, including checklists.
• Class 1 ECAM messages.
181
Q

Explain the color-coding convention on the E/WD.

A
  • Green – normal, long-term operation.
  • White – remarks and labeling guidance for procedures.
  • Blue – units of measure and ECAM action steps.
  • Amber - failure or configuration needing crew awareness, but not necessarily immediate action.
  • Red – a failure or configuration requiring immediate crew action.
  • Magenta - informational messaging.
  • Amber Xs – information not available.
182
Q

Recall the EFIS Display Unit (DU) priority.

A

▪ The PFD takes priority over the ND.

▪ If the outer DU is turned off or fails, the PFD automatically transfers to the inner DU.

183
Q

Recall the ECAM Display Unit (DU) priority.

A

▪ The E/WD (upper ECAM) takes priority over the SD (Lower ECAM).
▪ If the upper ECAM DU is turned off or fails, the E/WD automatically transfers to the lower ECAM DU.

184
Q

Recall the functions of the ND Brightness Control Knob.

A

▪ The Inner knob is used to control the general brightness of the ND symbols. Rotating this knob all the way
counterclockwise turns off the ND.
▪ The Outer knob controls the brightness of both:
• Weather Radar displays
and
• GPWS Terrain displays

185
Q

Explain the functions of the three Display Management Computers(DMCs).

A

The DMCs process signals received from the sensors and computers within the aircraft for display on the DUs.
▪ DMC 1 provides information to the CA’s PFD, ND, and the E/WD.
▪ DMC 2 provides information to the FO’s PFD, ND, and the SD.
▪ DMC 3 serves as a backup to either DMC 1 or DMC 2.

186
Q

Recall the types of failure messages.

A

▪ Independent – A failure that affects an isolated system or item without degrading the performance of other
systems or components:
• Presented in the left column of the E/WD memo section.
• Affected system is underlined. Example: – F/CTL, HYD, ELEC.
• Specific failure follows the affected system. Example: F/CTL ELAC 1 FAULT.
▪ Primary – A failure that affects the use of othersystems or components:
• Presented in the left column of the E/WD memo section as a “Boxed Item”.
▪ Secondary – Systems or components affected as the result of a Primary failure:
• Presented in the right column of the E/WD memo section in amber.

187
Q

Recall the indications of a Display Unit (DU) failure.

A

▪ A failed DU will flash, go blank or be distorted.

▪ DUs are not monitored by the FWCs, so there will be no ECAM messages.

188
Q

Describe the indications of pumps and valves on the Systems Display (SD).

A

▪ Pumps – presented as a square:
▪ Inline green – green vertical line indicates the pump is on and pump pressure is normal.
▪ Crossline green – green horizontal line indicates the pump is off in accordance with
automatic logic.
▪ Crossline amber – amber horizontal line indicates the pump has been manually selected OFF.
▪ LO amber – indicates the pump is on, but pump pressure is low.
▪ Valves – presented as a circle:
▪ Inline green – green line connecting to system indicates the valve is open.
▪ Crossline green – green line NOT connecting to the system line indicates the valve is closed.
▪ Crossline amber – the valve is stuck closed when it is being commanded to open.
▪ Inline amber – the valve is stuck open when it has been commanded to close.
▪ Diagonal amber – diagonal line indicates that the valve is in-transit.

189
Q

Explain the location and function of the STATUS page.

A

▪ Located on the SD (Systems Display).
• Provides an operational summary of the state of the aircraft.
▪ Displayed by:
• Pressing the STS pb on the ECAM control panel.
• Automatically as part of the ECAM Non-Normal Procedure.
• Automatically when CONF 1 (FLAPS 1) has been selected in the approach phase and the Status page is not
empty.
NOTE: The STS REMINDER (A white boxed STS) appears at the lower portion of the E/WD whenever information exists
on the STATUS page

190
Q

Describe the functions of the SWITCHING panel.

A

▪ ATT HDG – selects IRU 3 for attitude and heading information when IRU 1 or 2 fail.
▪ AIR DATA – selects ADR 3 for pitot-static information when ADR 1 or 2 fail.
▪ EIS DMC – selects DMC 3 when DMC 1 or 2 fail.
▪ ECAM/ND XFR – transfers the SD (lower ECAM) information to the CA’s or FO’s ND screen.
NOTE: ND screen information cannot be transferred to the SD (lower ECAM)

191
Q

Describe the function of the CLR, RCL, and T.O. CONFIG pbs on the ECAM control panel.

A

▪ CLR pbs
▪ Used to clear failure messages and sequence through the SD pages during an ECAM non-normal procedure.
▪ With multiple failure messages displayed, pressing the CLR pb will remove (clear) the first message and all its
associated action steps.
o RCL pb
▪ Used to recall failure messages previously cleared by the CLR pbs that are still active.
▪ If there are no cleared messages, “NORMAL” appears on the E/WD memo section.
▪ If held for more than 3 seconds, the E/WD displays any CAUTION messages that were canceled by the EMER CANC
pb.
o TO CONFIG pb
▪ Used to test the Takeoff Warning system.
▪ Simulates the application of takeoff power.
▪ Generates all warnings associated with the aircraft not correctly configured for takeoff

192
Q

Describe the effects of using the EMER CANC pb in response to ECAM WARNINGS versus CAUTIONS.

A

▪ Warnings:
• Cancels (stops) the aural warning (CRC) for as long as the failure condition continues.
• Extinguishes the MASTER WARNING lights.
• Does not affect the ECAM message display (MASTER WARNING message remains in view).
▪ Cautions:
• Extinguishes the MASTER CAUTION lights.
• Cancels (stops) the aural warning (Single chime ) for as long as the failure condition continues.
• Cancels ECAM message display for the remainder the flight (MASTER CAUTION message is removed).
• Canceled MASTER CAUTION messages may be recalled (restored) by pressing the RCL pb for 3 seconds.
NOTE 1: The EMER CANC pb should only be used to suppress spurious MASTER CAUTIONS.
NOTE 2: The EMER CANC pb is not to be used in place of a CLR pb when performing an ECAM Non-Normal
Procedure. Used for cancelling nuisance cautions and warnings (i.e. intermittent or random
messages previously addressed or MEL’d.)

193
Q

Describe the organization of the Electronic Instrument System (EIS).

A

▪ Six identical cathode ray tube Display Units (DUs) in two parts:
▪ Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS):
• Two Primary Flight Displays (PFDs) – normally displayed on the outboard DU.
• Two Navigation Displays (NDs) – normally displayed on the inboard DU.
▪ Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor (ECAM):
• Engine/Warning Display (E/WD) – normally displayed on the Upper ECAM.
• Systems Display (SD) – normally displayed on the Lower ECAM

194
Q

Describe the components of the Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS).

A

▪ Three Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs), each divided into two units:
• Air Data Reference (ADR) Unit – processes pitot-static information.
• Inertial Reference (IR) Unit – processes attitude, positional, and wind data.
• ADIRU 1 supplies information to the CA’s PFD and ND.
• ADIRU 2 supplies information to the FO’s PFD and ND.
• ADIRU 3 serves as a backup.

195
Q

Describe the operating modes of the Flight Management Guidance Computers(FMGCs).

A

Dual:
 Normal mode of operation
 Both FMGCs are synchronized, meaning data entered into one Multi-Function Control and Display Unit
(MDCU) is also transferred to the other FMGC (crosstalk).
o Single:
 FMGC operating mode when it is the sole operating FMGC. The other FMGC has failed.
 Provides all related functions, with some limitations.
 Indications of a failed FMGC include:
• 1FD1 or 2FD2 in Column 5 of the FMAs, indicating that the flight directors are using the same FMGC
as a source of guidance.
• OPP FMGC IN PROCESS message in MCDU scratchpad.
• MAP NOT AVAIL or SET OFFSIDE RNG/MODE messages on the failed side’s ND, depending on EFIS
control panel settings.
o Independent:
 Mode of operation is caused by a significant difference between the two FMGCs (Database validity).
 There is no synchronization of data between the FMGCs.
 Each FMGC is controlled by its respective MCDU.
 Indications include the INDEPENDENT OPERATION message in the scratchpad of both MCDUs and an
illuminated amber IND light on the top of the MCDU cases.

196
Q

Describe the FMGCs navigation auto-tuning feature.

A

 Provides localizer guidance during takeoff roll for runways served by an ILS.
 Automatically tunes VOR and DME stations enroute for position and orientation updating.
 Automatically tunes the ILS frequency for final approach guidance, when an ILS approach has been loaded into the
flight plan.

197
Q

Recall how VOR information is displayed on the ND, and how ILS information is displayed on the PFD.

A

VOR information is displayed on the NDs:
 When respective EFIS VOR 1 or 2 selector switches placed in the VOR 1 or 2 position
 When identified by the FMS, the station’s three letter identifier will be displayed
o ILS information is displayed on the PFDs:
 When respective EFIS (I)LS pb is selected
 When identified by the FMS, the station’s four-letter identifier is displayed.

198
Q

Explain the function of the STBY NAV key on the RMP.

A

When selected:
• Activates the STBY NAV (ILS, VOR and ADF) selector keys of
the respective RMP.
• De-actives the auto-tuning capability of both FMGCs.
• The MCDU RAD NAV page is unusable.
• A green light illuminates next to the key indicating activation.
• An R appears next to the tuned VOR frequency.

199
Q

Explain the indications of a tuned VOR on the NDs.

A

o If a station has been auto tuned by the FMGCs, it will only contain the station’s three letter identifier.
o If a station has been manually tuned via the MCDU’s RAD NAV page, an underlined M appears next to the station’s
three letter identifier.
• Referred to as being “Hard Tuned”
o If a station has been manually tuned via an RMP’s Standby NAV keys, an underlined R appears next to the station’s
three letter identifier.
• Referred to as being “Remotely Tuned”

200
Q

Explain the function of the ADIRS CDU Mode Selectors.

A

o The ADIRU mode selector switch is used to control the function of its respective ADIRU.
 OFF – Depowered. Both ADR and IR data unavailable.
 NAV – Normal operation, initiates IR alignment, provides IR data.
 ATT – Provides only Attitude and Heading information, if the system loses ability to navigate.

201
Q

Recall the time required for a FAST ADIRS alignment.

A

 A FAST alignment takes 30 seconds to 3 minutes.

202
Q

Explain the operational difference between steady versus flashing IR ALIGN lights.

A

 Steady light/s – Indicates the respective ADIRU is operating normally in the alignment mode.
 Flashing light/s – Indicates an alignment fault has occurred, caused by one of the following:
• Excessive motion
• A present position has not been entered into the MCDU.
• The position stored atshutdown by the IRU(s) differs from the present position entered in the
MCDU.

203
Q

Recall the meaning of the ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel.

A

Illuminates continuously when one or more ADIRU is operating on aircraft battery power.
 Appears for a few seconds at the beginning of a NORMAL alignment process, when an ADIRU Mode Selector is
placed from OFF to NAV. This indicates that the respective ADIRU is capable of operating on battery power when
required.
NOTE: The ON BAT light will not illuminate during the FAST alignment process.

204
Q

Recall the radar’s functionality during the automatic self-test.

A

 When first turned on, the radar is fully operational and is radiating energy while performing a 45 second selftest.
 A warm-up period is not required.
 Quick self-tests are performed at the end of each radar antenna sweep.
 Radar system fault/malfunction indications are only displayed on the NDs

205
Q

Recall the functions of each of the radar’s MODE selector knob.

A

o WX – Displays precipitation returns:
 Black – minimum/no intensity.
 Green – low intensity.
 Amber – moderate intensity.
 Red – higher intensity (saturation).

o WX+T – Displays both precipitation returns and turbulence:
 Magenta represents turbulence.
o TURB – Displays only areas of turbulence in magenta.
NOTE: ND range must be set to 40 miles or less for the display of turbulence.
o MAP – Ground mapping mode:
 Black – water or radar shadows.
 Green – ground returns.
 Amber – man-made structures or high terrain.

206
Q

Recall the functions of the radar GAIN selector knob.

A

Allows for the control of the radar’s energy beam strength:
o CAL (Calibrated) – provides a predetermined beam power level.
Note: The CAL position may not always provide the optimum beam
power setting for a given weather condition.
o MIN to MAX - allows for manual control of the beam’s strength.
 MIN - greater beam strength than the CAL level.
 MAX -most powerful beam strength.
 When out of CAL and in manual mode, MAN appears on the ND
NOTE: A manual GAIN setting is recommended above FL250.

207
Q

Recall the function of the GND CLTR SPRS switch.

A

 When placed to ON, eliminates the majority of ground clutter targets.
 Ground targets are displayed in magenta.
NOTE: The switch is spring-loaded to the OFF position and must be held in the ON position for ground clutter suppression.

208
Q

Recall the meaning of the radar’s Path Attenuation Compensation (PAC) indication.

A

Radar attenuation has been detected (A yellow alert bar appears at the top of the NDs).
o The radar system is advising that additional weather targets beyond what is currently being displayed may be
present but cannot be viewed.
 In order for a PAC alert to display:
• GAIN selector knob must be in CAL
• Intervening weather (storm cell) must be within 80 NM of the aircraft.
o Pilot actions would be to increase GAIN selection

209
Q

Recall the aircraft’s fuel tank configuration.

A

 One tank in each wing, divided into an Outer and Inner cell.
 A Center tank located in the center of the fuselage.
NOTE: Surge tanks, located outboard of each outer cell, are not displayed on the ECAM Fuel page

210
Q

Explain normal fuel loading sequence.

A

 Wing Tank outer cells are filled to capacity, followed by the inner cells.
 Total Wing Tank capacity is 27,500lbs. (13,750lbs per wing).
 Center Tank filled as required once Wing Tanks are full.
Note: The Center Tank is normally not filled without first having the wing tanks filled.

211
Q

Recall the maximum fuel imbalance between the wing tank inner cells.

A

 Approximately 3,300 lbs.

212
Q

Recall the number and location of aircraft fuel pumps.

A

A total of 6 electrically powered fuel pumps.
• 2 in each wing tank inner cell
• 2 in the center tank

213
Q

With fuel in the Center Tank, explain the normal (automatic) fuel feed priority.

A

With flaps fully retracted: center tank fuel is consumed first followed by wing tank fuel:
 Only the wing tank pumps are equipped with pressure reducers.
 Pressure reducers allow center tank pump pressure to preferentially supply the respective engine.
With flaps extended: center tank pu

214
Q

Recall the function of the L & R TK PUMPS pbs.

A

TK PUMPS pbs are used to manually control their respective Wing Tank pumps:
 ON (light out) – pump runs continuously until pb is selected OFF.
 OFF (white) – pump is deactivated and remains off until pb is selected.
NOTE: Wing tank pumps are not equipped with automated logic. Pump operation is commanded by its
respective pb’s and must always be manually controlled.

215
Q

Recall the function of the MODE SEL pb.

A

 AUTO (light out) – provided CTR TK PUMP pbs are selected ON (lights out), the center
tank pumps will be automatically activated and deactivated as
required by automated computer logic.
 MAN (white) – automatic pump activation/deactivation logic is off.
Center tank pumps must be manually controlled.

216
Q

Recall the ECAM indications when Center Tank fuel is being consumed.

A

o CTR TK FEEDG appears on the E/WD memo section.
o On the ECAM FUEL page, the center tank pump indications will be inline green.

NOTE: When the center pumps are commanded off, per computer logic, pump indications
will be crossline green.

217
Q

Recall when the transfer valves will automatically open, allowing outer cell fuel to gravity feed into the respective
inner cell.

A

Both transfer valves automatically open when either wing tank inner cell fuel level reaches approximately 1,650lbs.

218
Q

Recall the ECAM indications when transfer valves are open.

A

 Transfer valve indications on the ECAM FUEL page appear in the horizontal position.
 OUTR TK FUEL XFRD (green) appears on the E/WD memo section.

NOTE: While the valves are in-transit, they appear as amber diagonal lines

219
Q

Recall when will the F. USED indications reset to zero.

A

 Automatically during engine start.

220
Q

Recall the location of valve indications on the ECAM FUEL page.

A

o Crossfeed valve appears directly above the CTR text.
o APU fuel valve appears under the white APU.
o Engine Low Pressure fuel valves appear directly below
the engine’s fuel used quantity number.

221
Q

Recall the location of fuel temperature indications

on the ECAM FUEL page.

A

Outer and Inner compartment fuel temperatures
are displayed directly below the respective compartment on the ECAM FUEL page.
NOTE: Fuel temperature readings are not provided for the center tank.

222
Q

Recall the controls and indications of the fuel Crossfeed Valve.

A

o The fuel Crossfeed Valve is controlled with the X-FEED pb:
 Closed (light out) – Valve is closed
 ON (white) – Valve has been commanded open
 OPEN (green) Valve is in the open position
o When the Crossfeed is open:
 FUEL X FEED (green) appears on E/WD memo section.
 On ECAM FUEL page, the crossfeed valve appears as in-line green.

NOTE: While in-transit, the valve indication appears as an amber circle with a diagonal line.

223
Q

Recall the indications of a degraded Fuel Quantity Indication (FQI) system.

A

Amber hash marks cover the last two digits of fuel quantity displays of the:
 FOB indication on the E/WD.
and
 The individual fuel tank quantities on the ECAM FUEL page

224
Q

Recall the meaning of an amber half box surrounding the FOB indication on the E/WD.

A

There are three probable causes, all as the result of trapped fuel:
 Both center tank pumps have failed (with usable fuel in tank).
 Both center tank pumps have been turned off (with usable fuel in tank).
 A wing tank transfer valve has failed to open.

225
Q

Recall the meaning of the triangle indications on the ECAM WHEEL page.

A

 Indicates the position and condition of the landing gear as
independently detected by each LGCIU.
 The forward set represents the status of the gear as detected by
the active LGCIU.
 The rear set represents the status of the gear as detected by the
standby LGCIU.

226
Q

Recall indications of landing gear detected down and locked.

A

 Forward set of triangles on the ECAM WHEEL page appear in green.
 Three green triangles appear on the landing gear indicator panel.
 LDG GEAR DN appears in green on the E/WD.

227
Q

Recall the meaning of a red UNLK lights on the LDG GEAR panel.

A

Indicates that a specific gear is not being detected as being locked in the
selected position.

228
Q

Recall what is indicated by the illumination of the red arrow on the Landing Gear Selector Lever panel.

A

 The aircraft is in the landing configuration. (Below 750ft RA)
and
 The landing gear is not down and locked.

229
Q

Recall the operation of GRAVITY GEAR EXTN hand crank.

A

 Lift into position, breaking the securing safety wire.

 Rotate clockwise three (3) turns to the mechanical stop

230
Q

Recall how the Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU) is activated.

A

The BSCU is activated by placing the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch to the ON position.

231
Q

Recall what is indicated by the NW STRG DISC display on the E/WD memo section.

A

 Nose wheel steering from the flight deck is inhibited because the tow control lever on the nose gear strut has
been placed in the TOW position and:
- Appears in green when both engines are shutdown.
- Appears in amber when at least one engine is running.
NOTE: NW STRG DISC is not displayed when the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is placed to OFF

232
Q

Recall the controls for Nose Wheel Steering.

A

Tillers (steering hand wheels) on the CA’s and FO’s side consoles
 Rudder pedals
 Autopilot during auto landings

233
Q

Recall the possible Anti-Skid braking configurations.

A

 Normal brakes with antiskid (Green hydraulic pressure).
 Alternate brakes with antiskid (Yellow hydraulic pressure).
NOTE: In the event of total BSCU failure or failure of both Green and Yellow hydraulic systems, Alternate brakes
without antiskid is available, powered by Yellow system accumulator

234
Q

Recall what is indicated on ACCU-PRESS and BRAKES indicator.

A

ACCU-PRESS -Displays Yellow system brake accumulator pressure.
The Green Band represents a full charge.
BRAKES - Displays Yellow system pressure being applied to the respective brake.
Green Arcs - Represent the safe application pressure range when brakes are
being manually applied without anti-skid protection.
NOTE: Indications are not associated with the Normal Braking or Green hydraulic system.

235
Q

Recall the location and meaning of brake temperature indications.

A

o Appears on the ECAM WHEEL page
o Green arc appears over the wheel with hottest brake temperature over
100ºC.
o Arc turns amber if a brake temperature exceeds 300ºC.

236
Q

Recall the meaning of the Release indicators on the ECAM WHEEL page.

A

Horizontal green lines appear:
 Temporarily when the landing gear is lowered to indicate that
the individual wheel brake is released and antiskid is armed.
 Reappear after touchdown along with the REL display when anti-skid is active.

237
Q

Recall the minimum ground speed required for Autobrake activation.

A

 Minimum ground speed of 72kts is required.

238
Q

Recall the function of each Autobrake pb selection.

A

 LO – Commands progressive brake pressure application 4 seconds after
ground spoiler deployment signal has been generated.
 MED – Commands progressive brake pressure application 2 seconds after
ground spoiler deploymentsignal has been generated.
 MAX – Commands progressive brake pressure to be immediately applied
when ground the ground spoiler deployment signal is generated.
NOTE: MAX selection is only authorized for takeoff.

239
Q

Recall the meaning of the DECEL (green) indication on an AUTO BRK pb.

A

 Indicates the actual deceleration rate is 80% of the selected rate.

240
Q

Recall the indications of the Parking Brake being applied.

A

 PARK BRK appears in the E/WD memo section.
 The ACCU-PRESS/BRAKES indicator displays approximately 2,000lbs psi
application pressure on the left and right brakes.
NOTE: The source of the application pressure can only be from either the active
Yellow system or the Yellow system’s accumulator.

241
Q

Recall which areas of the wings and engines are provided ice protection.

A

o Wings – outboard three slats (Slats 3, 4, and 5).

o Engines – engine nacelle leading edge.

242
Q

Recall whether an engine’s bleed valve must be open to use its engine anti-ice system.

A

No. Engine anti-ice is plumbed independently from the high-pressure compressor therefore, the engine’s bleed valve does not
have to be open to use engine anti-ice.

243
Q

Describe the indications when engine anti-ice isselected on.

A

ON (blue) illuminates on the respective ENG 1(2) pb.

 ENG A.ICE and IGNITION (green) appears on the E/WD memo section.

244
Q

Describe the indications of wing anti-ice being selected on.

A

 ON (blue) illuminates on the WING pb.
 WING A. ICE (green) appears on the E/WD memo section.
 ANTI ICE (white) appears on each side of the BLEED page

245
Q

Recall the meaning of the FAULT (amber) light in the WING and ENG 1(2) ANTI ICE pbs.

A

 Appears momentarily during valve transition.
 Represents disagreement between the selected position and actual respective valve’s position.
 The FAULT light on the WING pb also indicates low bleed air pressure is being detected.

246
Q

Recall the operation of the Probe and Window heating system with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb in AUTO (light out).

A

 On the ground, with at least one engine running:
o all flight deck windows/windshields, pitot probes, static ports, and AOA probes
are automatically heated at a low heat level. TAT probes are not heated.
 Once airborne, heat levels are increased, and the TAT probes are heated.

247
Q

Recall the operation of the Probe and Window heating system with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb selected ON.

A

 On the ground, with engines not running:
o all flight deck windows/windshields, pitot probes, static ports, and AOA probes
are heated at a low heat level. TAT probes are not heated.

248
Q

Recall the function of the GPWS TERR pb and SYS pb, when selected OFF.

A

 TERR pb selected OFF :
• Inhibits only the terrain warning feature of the GPWS system.
 SYS pb selected OFF:
•Inhibits each

249
Q

Describe the function of the G/S MODE, FLAP MODE, and LDG FLAP 3 pbs on the GPWSpanel.

A

 G/S MODE:
• Inhibits the excessive deviation below glideslope warning “GLIDESLOPE”
• Used for approaches with glideslope out ofservice, or LDA/LOC approaches.
 FLAP MODE:
• Inhibits the unsafe terrain clearance warnings “TOO LOW FLAPS”.
• Used in conjunction with a flap malfunction.
 LDG FLAP 3:
• Configures the GPWS to expect FLAPS 3 as the final flap setting for landing.
• Inhibits the “TOO LOW FLAPS” aural warning.
• Landing memo displays FLAPS CONF 3 instead of FLAPS FULL.

250
Q

Explain the manual and automatic operation of the of GPWS Terrain feature.

A

 Manual operation:
• A TERR ON ND pb has been selected ON (green)
• Terrain is continuously displayed on the respective ND.
 Automatic operation:
• Respective TERR ON ND pb is deselected (light out).
• Terrain is automatically displayed on both NDs asthe result of a caution or warning.
• Both TERR ON ND pbs illuminate ON (green).
• To remove the terrain display, the pb must be deselected (lights out).
NOTE: Terrain displays take priority over weather radar return displays.

251
Q

Recall how to control the brightness of EGPWS Terrain displays.

A

The Outer Knob of the ND Brightness Control Knob controls the brightness of both the weather radar and EGPWS
Terrain displays.

252
Q

Recall the details of the Terrain and Weather indications on the NDs.

A

 When terrain is being displayed, TERR (blue) appears in the lower right corner of the ND.
 When weather radar is on, TILT (blue) with the corresponding tilt angle appears in the lower right corner of the ND.

253
Q

Recall the meaning of the number value displayed with the Terrain display.

A

 Appears only when the respective ND is set in the ARC mode.
 Represents the highest elevation of an obstacle that is within the respected ND’s range setting.
Example: 081 is read as 8,100ft.

254
Q

Recall the indications associated with a Terrain Caution and a Terrain Warning.

A

o Terrain Caution
 Both GPWS lights (amber) illuminate on the forward instrument panel.
 Aural “TERRAIN AHEAD!” warning sounds.
 Terrain displays automatically appear on both NDs.
 Amber TERRAIN AHEAD message appears on the NDs.
o Terrain Warning
 Both PULL UP lights (red) illuminate on the forward instrument panel.
 Aural “TERRAIN AHEAD, PULL UP!” warning sounds.
 Terrain displays automatically appear on both NDs.
 Red TERRAIN AHEAD message appears on the NDs.

255
Q

Describe each position of the TCAS mode selector.

A

o SBY:
 Transponder does not reply to interrogations.
 TCAS functionsinhibited.
 TCAS STBY appears in green in the right column of the E/WD memo section.
o ON:
 Transponder replies to ATC radar interrogations.
 TCAS functions inhibited.
 TCAS STBY appears in green in the right column of the E/WD memo section.
o TA:
 Transponder replies to ATC radar interrogations.
 TCAS provides Traffic Advisory (TAs) displays on the NDs and aural warnings.
 TA ONLY appears in white in the lower left corner of the NDs.
o RA/TA:
 Transponder replies to ATC radar interrogations.
 All TCAS capabilities are operational, including:
• Both Resolution (RAs) and Traffic Advisories (TAs) on the NDs.
• Aural warnings.
• Preventative and corrective guidance within the PFD’s vertical speed indicator.

256
Q

Describe the meaning of the indications given for a TCAS Preventative or Corrective

A

Preventative Advisory – Keep the aircraft’s vertical speed out of the red
area of the PFD’s verticalspeed indicator.
 Corrective Advisory – Keep the aircraft’s vertical speed within the green-shaded
area of the PFD’s vertical speed indicator.

257
Q

Recall the functions of the TRAFFIC switch on the ATC/TCAS panel.

A

 AUTO – Other and Proximate traffic is only displayed if TA or RA intruder aircraft
are present.
 ON – Other and Proximate traffic, if present, are continuously displayed.

258
Q

Recall which ND mode cannot display GPWS, TCAS, or Weather Radar returns.

A

 PLAN mode.

259
Q

Recall the indications of Windshear warnings.

A

 WINDSHEAR (red) message appears on the PFDs.
 Aural “WINDSHEAR!” “WINDSHEAR!” warning sounds.
 Depending on condition, the airspeed trend arrow may either
stagnate or show an excessive accelerating trend.
NOTE 1: The Windshear system is a reactive system only.
NOTE 2: Warnings will only function:
• When aircraft is configured at FLAPS 1 or greater.
• At low altitudes during takeoff and landing.
• Will not occur at higher altitudes or while in a clean configuration

260
Q

Describe the Altitude Alerting system indications.

A

o Designed to alert the pilot of altitude deviations when an Autopilot is not engaged.
 During a climb or descent, when within 750ft of the FCU altitude:
• A short duration aural C-chord sound.
• PFD altitude window border pulses until within 250ft of the FCU altitude.
 In level flight, if aircraft deviates more than 250ft off of the FCU altitude:
• Short duration aural C-chord sounds.
• PFD altitude window border pulses.