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NSBR Neurophysiology > dek pesawat dan kabin > Flashcards

dek pesawat dan kabin Flashcards

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1
Q 
Which of the following is the correct representation of the subunits of the acetylcholine (ACh) receptor at neuromuscular junction?
A. Alpha Beta Gamma Delta 
B. Alpha2 Beta Gamma Delta 
C. Alpha Beta2 Gamma Delta
D. Alpha Beta Gamma2 Delta
E. Alpha Beta Gamma Delta2
A

B

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2
Q

Which of the following is true of the alphasubunit of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor?
A. it contains four hydrophobic transmembrane portions
B. The binding site is not located on the alpha subunit
C. The cytoplasmic loop is themost highly conserved portion of the subunit
D. The N-Terminal is extracellular and the C-terminal is intracellular
E. The transmembrane portion is the least conserved segment

A

A

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3
Q 
The number of binding sites on the nicotinic acethylcholine receptor is 
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.5
A

B

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4
Q 
Binds GABA
A. Alpha subunit of GABA a receptor
B. Beta subunit of GABA a receptor
C. Both
D. Neither
A

C

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5
Q 
Binds Benzodiazepines
A. Alpha subunit of GABA a receptor
B. Beta subunit of GABA a receptor
C. Both
D. Neither
A

A

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6
Q 
Most closely linked with synaptic plasticity and cell death
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor
A

B

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7
Q 
GABA and this receptor are permeable to chlorid ions 
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor
A

C

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8
Q 
Binds strychine
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor
A

C

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9
Q 
Binds benzodiazepine
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor
A

A

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10
Q 
One type of this receptor is both ligand and voltage regulated
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor
A

B

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11
Q 
One type of this receptor is blocked by magnesium ions
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor
A

B

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12
Q 
Significantly permeable to calcium ions 
A. Kainate receptor only
B. NMDA receptor only
C. Quisqualate / AMPA receptor only
D. A and B
E. A, B, C
A

B

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13
Q 
Permeable to monovalent cations
A. Kainate receptor only
B. NMDA receptor only
C. Quisqualate / AMPA receptor only
D. A and B
E. A, B, C
A

E

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14
Q 
Ligand gated
A. Kainate receptor only
B. NMDA receptor only
C. Quisqualate / AMPA receptor only
D. A and B
E. A, B, C
A

E

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15
Q 
Voltage gated
A. Kainate receptor only
B. NMDA receptor only
C. Quisqualate / AMPA receptor only
D. A and B
E. A, B, C
A

B

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16
Q 
Blocked by magnesium ions
A. Kainate receptor only
B. NMDA receptor only
C. Quisqualate / AMPA receptor only
D. A and B
E. A, B, C
A

B

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17
Q

Which of the following is true of acetylcholine (ACh) release from the neuromuscular junction?
A. One molecule of ACh equals 10000 quanta
B. One quanta contains 10000 moleculs of ACh
C. One quanta equals one molecule of ACh.
D. One vesicle contains 10000 quanta
E. One vesicle contains 10 molecules

A

B

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18
Q 
Pro-opionimelanocortin is a precursor of 
1. ACTh
2. Alpha-MSH
3. Beta-Endorphin
4. Beta-lipotropin
(A.123; B13; C24; D4; EAll of the above)
A

E

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19
Q

Removal of calcium ions from the cytosol in a presynaptic nerve terminal following an action potential is thought to occur by
1. Active transport
2. Binding to cytosolic proteins
3. Transport into intracellular calcium-storage vesicles
4. Reversal of flow through voltage-gated ion channels
(A.123; B13; C24; D4; EAll of the above)

A

A

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20
Q

Each of the following occurs in phototransduction EXCEPT
A. Activated rhodopsin activates a G-protein
B. Activation of cGMP phosphodiesterase increases hydrolisis of cGMP to 5’GMP
C. Current through a cGMP activated sodium channel decreases
D. Rhodopsin is activated when light converts bound 11-cis-retinal to all-trans-retinal
E. The decreased concentration of cGMP results in depolarization of the plasma membrane

A

E

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21
Q

Each of the following is true of G-proteins EXCEPT
A. Each G-protein is regulated by only one type of receptor
B. Each G-protein may regulate multiple effectors
C. The alpha subunit binds GTP
D. The Beta and gamma subunits help anchor the alpha subunit to the plasma membrane
E. The Beta and Gamma subunits modulate GDP/GTP exchange

A

A

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22
Q 
D1 receptors act by this second messenger
A. Calcium
B. DAG
C. cAMP
D. cGMP
E. IP3
A

C

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23
Q 
Increased by nitric oxide
A. Calcium
B. DAG
C. cAMP
D. cGMP
E. IP3
A

D

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24
Q 
Hydrolyzed by phospholipase C
A. Calcium
B. DAG
C. cAMP
D. cGMP
E. IP3
A

E

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25
Q 
Synergistically activates protein kinase C with calcium
A. Calcium
B. DAG
C. cAMP
D. cGMP
E. IP3
A

B

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26
Q 
Binds to calmodulin
A. Calcium
B. DAG
C. cAMP
D. cGMP
E. IP3
A

A

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27
Q 
Photoreception utilizes this second messenger
A. Calcium
B. DAG
C. cAMP
D. cGMP
E. IP3
A

D

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28
Q 
Opens a calcium channel in the endoplasmic reticulum releasing free calciuminto the cytosol
A. Calcium
B. DAG
C. cAMP
D. cGMP
E. IP3
A

E

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29
Q

Each of the following is true of the Na/K pump EXCEPT that it
A. Contributes to the resting potential of the cell
B. Hyperpolarizes the membrane
C. Is electrogenic
D. Transports three Na ions out for two K ions in
E. Utilizes two molecules of ATP for every three Na ions transported

A

E

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30
Q

Each of the following is true of events occurring during the action potential EXCEPT:
A. A sudden increase in conductance of Na results in depolarization
B. Chloride permeability increases during depolarization
C. During hyperpolarization the conductance of Na is lower than normal and the conductance of K is higher than normal
D. The decrease in NA permeability occuring as the action potential reaches a peak, results from inactivation of Na channels
E. The presence of voltage dependent K channels is to allow faster repolarization

A

B

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31
Q

The velocity of action potential increases with a
A. High transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and high membrane capacitance
B. High transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and low membrane capacitance
C. Low transmembrane resistance, high internal resistance, and high membrane capacitance
D. Low transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and high membrane capacitance
E. Low transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and low membrane capacitance

A

B

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32
Q

Which of the following is true of myelination?
A. It has no effect on transmembrane resistance, but increases membrane capacitance.
B. It decreases both transmembrane resistance and membrane capacitance.
C. It decreases transmembrane resistance, and increases membrane capacitance.
D. It increases transmembrane resistance and decreases membrane capacitance.
E. It increases both transmembrane resistance and membrane capacitance.

A

D

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33
Q 
Usually depolarizes muscle cells past threshold
A. End plate potential
B. Miniature end-plate potential 
C. Both
D. Neither
A

A

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34
Q 
occurs in unstimulated cells
A. End plate potential
B. Miniature end-plate potential 
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

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35
Q 
Produces a miniature end plate potential 
A. End plate potential
B. Miniature end-plate potential 
C. Both
D. Neither
A

D

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36
Q 
Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials are produced when a transmitter opens channels permeable to 
A. Cl only
B. Cl or K
C. Na only
D. Na or Cl
E. Na or K
A

B

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37
Q

Which of the following is true of axonal transport?
A. Dynamin does not use ATP
B. Dynnein is the motor for anterograde fast axonal transport
C. Fast axonal transport occurs primarily along neurofilaments
D. Kinesin is the motor for retrograde fast axonal transport
E. Slow axonal transport occurs at 200-400 mm/day

A

A

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38
Q 
Discharge increases with passive stretch
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither
A

C

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39
Q 
Discharge increases with active contraction
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither
A

A

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40
Q 
In series with extrafusal fibers
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither
A

A

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41
Q 
In parallel with extrafusal fibers 
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

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42
Q 
Sensitive to muscle tension
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

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43
Q 
Sensitive to muscle length and velocity of length change
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

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44
Q 
Innervated by group I (large myelinated) fibers
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither
A

C

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45
Q 
Innervated by group II (small myelinated) fibers
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

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46
Q 
Conduction velocity of afferent fibers is >120 m/sec
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither
A

D

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47
Q 
Contains dynamic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain fibers
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

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48
Q

Each of the following is true of decerebrate rigidty except
A. It results from tonic activity in the vestibulospinal and pontine reticulospinal neurons
B. It is reduced by cutting dorsal roots
C. It is reduced by destructionof the anterior lobe of the cerebellum
D. it occurs with transection between the colliculi
E. There is increased gamma motor neuron activity

A

C

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49
Q 
An antidromic wave in motor fibers travelling to anterior horn cells
A. Clasp knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex
A

C

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50
Q 
Has phasic and tonic components
A. Clasp knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex
A

F

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51
Q 
A protective reflex involving polysynaptic reflex pathways
A. Clasp knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex
A

B

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52
Q 
The electrical equivalent of the tendon reflex 
A. Clasp knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex
A

D

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53
Q 
The direct motor response obtained by stimulating a mixed motor-sensory nerve
A. Clasp knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex
A

E

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54
Q 
A length-dependent change in muscle force when the limb is passively moved
A. Clasp knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex
A

A

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55
Q 
Contraction of the detrusor muscle of the bladder is achieved through activation of 
A. Parasympathetic fibers from T9 to L1
B. Parasympathetic fibers from S2 to S4
C. Sympathetic fibers from T9 to L1
D. Sympathetic fibers from S2 to S4
E. Pudendal nerves
A

B

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56
Q

Which is true of events that occur after a typical axon is severed?
A. Chromatolysis is always associated with decreased protein synthesis
B. Retraction bulbs form only at the proximal end of the cut nerve
C. Terminal degenration leads to the loss of presynaptic terminals
D. Wallerian degeneration occurs before terminal degeneration
E. Wallerian degeneration leads to loss of the proximal axon segment

A

C

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57
Q 
Agents that increase the formation of CSF include
1. Carbon dioxide 
2. Norepinephrine
3. Volatile anesthetic agents
4. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
(A.123;B13;C24;D4;EAll of the above)
A

B

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58
Q 
The main neurotransmitter of the Renshaw cell is thought to be
A. Acetylcholine
B. GABA
C. Glutamate
D. Glycine
E. Histamine
A

D

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59
Q 
Auditory Nerve
A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V
A

A

60
Q 
Cochlear nuclei
A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V
A

B

61
Q 
Inferior colliculus
A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V
A

E

62
Q 
Lateral lemniscus
A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V
A

D

63
Q 
Superior olivary nucleus
A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V
A

C

64
Q 
Absence or delay implies cervical cord disease
A. Erb's point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22
A

B

65
Q 
Absence or delay implies peripheral nerve disease
A. Erb's point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22
A

A

66
Q 
Absence or delay implies a lesion in the lower medulla 
A. Erb's point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22
A

C

67
Q 
Is found at the shoulder 
A. Erb's point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22
A

A

68
Q 
Critical threshold below which functional impairment occurs
A. 75 ml100g/min
B. 55 ml100g/min
C. 23 ml100g/min
D. 17 ml100g/min
E. 8 ml100g/min
A

C

69
Q 
Irreversible infarction occurs below this flow rate
A. 75 ml100g/min
B. 55 ml100g/min
C. 23 ml100g/min
D. 17 ml100g/min
E. 8 ml100g/min
A

E

70
Q 
Normal cerebral blood flow 
A. 75 ml100g/min
B. 55 ml100g/min
C. 23 ml100g/min
D. 17 ml100g/min
E. 8 ml100g/min
A

B

71
Q 
Axons of these cells mainly comprise of the molecular layer
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells
A

C

72
Q 
Reside in the granular layer together with granule cells
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells
A

B

73
Q 
Excitatory
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells
A

C

74
Q 
Mossy fibers synape here
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells
A

C

75
Q 
Climbing fibers synapse here
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells
A

D

76
Q 
The only cerebellar cortical output
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells
A

D

77
Q 
Directly inhibits Purkinje cells together with stellate cells
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells
A

A

78
Q 
Utilize glutamate
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells
A

C

79
Q

Which is true of the macule of the utricule and saccule when the head is held erect?
A. The utricular macule is oriented horizontally and the saccular macule oriented vertically
B. The utricular macule is oriented vertically and the saccular macule oriented horizontally
C They are both oriented horizontally
D. They are both oriented vertically
E. Non of the above is true

A

A

80
Q 
The sensation of sharp pricking pain is mediated by
A. Aalpha fibers
B. Abeta fibers
C. Agamma fibers
D. Adelta fibers
E. C fibers
A

D

81
Q

Which is true of synaptic transmission in automatic ganglia?
A. Neuronal ACh receptors contain four types of subunits
B. The slow excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is produced by muscarinic receptors closing NA and Ca channels while opening K channels
C. The slow inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is mediated by activation of muscarinic receptors which close K channels
D. The fast EPSP is mediated by nicotinic ACh receptors
E. Peptides are never co-released with ACh

A

D

82
Q

Each of the following is true of the neural innervation of the bladder EXCEPT
A. Increased postganglionic sympathetic activity results in bladder wall contraction
B. Increased postganglionic sympathetic activity results in alpha adrenergic inhibition of parasympathetics in the pelvic ganglion
C. Motor neurons in the ventral horn of the sacral spinal cord innervate the external sphincter
D. Parasympathetic activity promotes bladder emptying
E. The internal sphincter is innervated by symphatetic fibers

A

A

83
Q 
Fibers from the superior salivatory nucleus synapse in the
1. Pterygopalatine ganglion
2. Geniculate ganglion
3. Submandibular ganglion
4. Trigeminal ganglion
(A.123; B13; C24; D4; EAll of the above
A

B

84
Q 
Ipsilateral corticocortical association fibers arise from cells in cortical layers
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. IV and V
E. V and VI
A

B

85
Q

As the membrane of a motor neuron becomes increasingly depolarized
A. Both EPSP and IPSP decrease
B. Both EPSP and IPSP increase
C. EPSP decreases and IPSP increases
D. EPSP increases and IPSP decreases
E. There is no change in IPSP but EPSP increases

A

C

86
Q

EAch of the following is true of Renshaw cells EXCEPT that
A. They are a part of a negative feedback loop to the motor neuron
B. They facilitate Ia inhibitory interneurons that act on antagonist motor neurons
C. They inhibit motor neurons that innervate synergist muscles
D. They make divergent connections to motor neurons
E. They receive input from descending pathways

A

B

87
Q 
Involved in the control of posture
A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. LAteral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above
A

B

88
Q 
This nucleus and the medial vestibular nucleus are involved in mediating vestibulo-ocular reflexes
A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. LAteral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above
A

D

89
Q 
Also known as Deiter's nucleus
A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. LAteral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above
A

B

90
Q 
Integrates input from the vestibular labyrinth and the cerebellum
A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. LAteral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above
A

A

91
Q 
Decerebrate rigidity is due to the unopposed excitatory effect of the reticulospinal tract and the tract originating from this nucleus
A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. LAteral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above
A

B

92
Q 
Which of the following modification of proteins does not occur in the Golgi complex
A. Attachment of fatty acids
B. Formation of O linked sugars
C. Initiation of N linked glycosilation
D. Sugar phosphorylation
E. Sulfation of tyrosine residues
A

C

93
Q 
Alpha Bungarotoxin
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Block to reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gate K channels
D. Blocks voltage gated Na channels
E. Depletes NE from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. PRevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh
A

A

94
Q 
Botulinum
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Block to reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gate K channels
D. Blocks voltage gated Na channels
E. Depletes NE from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. PRevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh
A

G

95
Q 
Cholera
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Block to reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gate K channels
D. Blocks voltage gated Na channels
E. Depletes NE from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. PRevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh
A

F

96
Q 
Cocaine
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Block to reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gate K channels
D. Blocks voltage gated Na channels
E. Depletes NE from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. PRevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh
A

B

97
Q 
Reserpine
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Block to reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gate K channels
D. Blocks voltage gated Na channels
E. Depletes NE from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. PRevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh
A

E

98
Q 
Tetra-ethylammonium (TEA)
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Block to reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gate K channels
D. Blocks voltage gated Na channels
E. Depletes NE from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. PRevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh
A

C

99
Q 
Tetradotoxin
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Block to reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gate K channels
D. Blocks voltage gated Na channels
E. Depletes NE from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. PRevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh
A

D

100
Q

At the equilibrium potential of potassium
A. The electrical force equals the chemical force
B. The net electrical force is zero
C. The net chemical force is zero
D. There is no movement of K ions across the membrane
E. None of the above

A

A

101
Q

Each of the following is true of G protein activation and deactivation EXCEPT
A. Activation of any G protein will inhibit the activation of other G proteins in the membrane
B. Hydrolysis of bound GTP to GDP inactivates a G protein
C. The Betagamma subunit stabilizes the binding of GDP
D. The betagamma subunit stabilizes the binding of GTP
E. When activated, the alpha subunit’s affinity for the betagamma subunit decreases

A

D

102
Q

The effect of succinylcholine at the neuromuscular junction is
A. Amplified by increased muscle temperature
B. Hyperpolarization
C. Not reversed by anticholinesterase agents
D. Not similar to that of decamethonium
E. Similar to that of d-tubocurarine

A

C

103
Q 
Muscle stretch receptors in deep tissue 
A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b
A

C

104
Q 
Pressure and joint position in deep tissue 
A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b
A

B

105
Q 
Slowly and rapidly adapting receptors in the skin  
A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b
A

D

106
Q 
rapidly adapting receptors in the skin  
A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b
A

A

107
Q

Each of the following is true of the dorsal-coloumn medial lemniscal system EXCEPT
A. Proprioception from the leg is relayed in the dorsal columns
B. Second order neurons cross the midline in the medial lemniscus
C. Thalamic neurons project to the primary somatic sensory cortex (SI)
D. Thalamic neurons project to the secondary somatic sensory cortex (SII)
E. Touch and vibration sense from the arm is relayed in the dorsal columns

A

A

108
Q

Truncal ataxia
A, Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

D

109
Q

Appendicular ataxia
A, Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

A

110
Q

Terminal tremor
A, Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

B

111
Q

Nystagmus
A, Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

C

112
Q

Scanning speech
A, Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

D

113
Q

Hypertonia
A, Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

E

114
Q

Hypotonia is seen in lesions of the interposed nuclei or of this portion
A, Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

D

115
Q

Decomposition of multijoint movements
A, Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

B

116
Q

Delay initiating movements
A, Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

B

117
Q 
In the formation of nitric oxide, nitric oxide synthetase acts on the substrate
A. Arginine
B. citruline
C. Lysine
D. Ornithine
E. Tyrosine
A

A

118
Q 
The pineal gland synthesizes melatonin from
A. Acethylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Histidine
D. Norepinephrine
E. Serotonin
A

E

119
Q 
Binds ACh
A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither
A

C

120
Q 
Found in skeletal muscle
A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

121
Q 
Found in sympathetic neurons
A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither
A

C

122
Q 
Blocked by hexamethonium
A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

123
Q 
Activates a second messenger system that closes a K channel
A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither
A

A

124
Q 
The EPSP in spinal motor neurons results from the opening of 
A. Cl channels only
B. Cl and Na channels
C. K channels only
D. Na and K channels
E. Na channels only
A

D

125
Q 
The response of the carotid sinus to an increase in blood pressure is a 
1. Decrease in peripheral resistance
2. Decrease in heart rate
3. Decrease in force of contraction
4. Decrease in blood pressure
(A123; B13; C24; D4; EAll of the above)
A

E

126
Q 
Contains actin
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

127
Q 
Contains myosin
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither
A

A

128
Q 
Contains tropomyosin
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

129
Q 
Contains troponin
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

130
Q 
Comprise the H band
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither
A

A

131
Q 
Comprise the A band
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither
A

C

132
Q 
Comprise the I band
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither
A

B

133
Q

Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle contraction?
A. Calcium binds to tropomyosin
B. Rotation of myosin heads pulls thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere
C. The detachment of cross bridges does not require ATP
D. The dissociation of actin from myosin uses energy fromthe hydrolysis of GTP
E. When muscle relaes, calcium diffuses into the sarcoplasmic reticulum from the intracellular space

A

B

134
Q 
Th resting potential of a neuron is approximately 
A. -90mv
B. -65mv
C. -50mv
D. +50mv
E. +65mv
A

B

135
Q 
Each of the following agents promote ADH release except
A. Alcohol
B. Angiotensin II
C. Decreased blood volume
D. Vomiting
E. Warmth of skin
A

A

136
Q

EAch of the following is a criterion that a chemical messenger shoul fulfill to be considered a transmitter EXCEPT
A. A specific mechanism exists for removing it from its site of action
B. It is present in the presynaptic terminal and is released in amounts sufficient to exert its action on the postsynaptic neuron or effector organ
C. It is synthesized in the neuron
D. the enzymes that catalyzes the steps in its synthesis are cytoplasmic
E. The exogenously applied substance should mimic the action of the endogenously released transmitter

A

D

137
Q 
Each of the following is considered  neurotransmitter EXCEPT
A. Epinephrine
B. Glycine
C. Histamine
D. Serotinin
E. VIP
A

E

138
Q 
EAch of the following organs in innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems EXCEPT the 
A. GI tract
B. Heart
C. Lungs and bronchi
D. Salivary glands
E. Sweat glands
A

E

139
Q

Each of the following is true of gamma motor neurons EXCEPT
A. Their activation during active muscle contraction allows muscle spindles to sense changes in length
B. Their activity in increased after lesions of the spinocerebellum
C. They innervate intrafusal fibers
D. Dynamic gamma motor neurons innervate dynamic nuclear bag fibers only
E. Static gamma motor neurons innervate nuclear chain fibers and static nuclear bag fibers

A

B

140
Q 
Neurotransmitters that are found in major descending pain pathways from the pons and medulla are
1. Dopamine
2. Norepinephrine
3. Acetylcholine
4. Serotonin
(A123, B13, C24, D4, EAlloftheabove)
A

C

141
Q

Cell groups that have concentric receptive fields include
1. Retinal ganglion cells
2. Simple cells of the primary visual cortex
3. Lateral geniculate cells
4. Complex cells of the primary visual cortex
(A123, B13, C24, D4, EAlloftheabove)

A

B

142
Q 
A subcutanous slowly adapting receptor
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner's corpuscles
C. Merkel's receptors
D. PAcinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini's corpuscles
A

E

143
Q 
A rapidly adapting receptor found in the dermal papillae
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner's corpuscles
C. Merkel's receptors
D. PAcinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini's corpuscles
A

B

144
Q 
a receptor subserving pressure and with a small receptive field
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner's corpuscles
C. Merkel's receptors
D. PAcinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini's corpuscles
A

C

145
Q 
A rapidly adapting receptor more sensitive to high frequency simulation than low frequency stimulation
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner's corpuscles
C. Merkel's receptors
D. PAcinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini's corpuscles
A

D

146
Q 
a nociceptor
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner's corpuscles
C. Merkel's receptors
D. PAcinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini's corpuscles
A

A

NSBR Neurophysiology (1 decks)

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