Definitions P-Z Flashcards

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1
Q

Define: par

A

The dollar amount the issuer assigns to a security. For an equity security, par is usually a small dollar amount that bears no relationship to the security’s market price. For a debt security, par is the amount repaid to the investor when the bond matures, usually $1,000. Syn. face value; principal; stated value. See capital surplus; maturity date.

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2
Q

Define: parity price of common

A

The dollar amount at which a common stock is equal in value to its corresponding convertible security. It is calculated by dividing the convertible security’s market value by its conversion ratio.

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3
Q

Define: parity price of convertible

A

The dollar amount at which a convertible security is equal in value to its corresponding common stock. It is calculated by multiplying the market price of the common stock by its conversion ratio.

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4
Q

Define: participation

A

The provision of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 197 4 requiring that all employees in a qualified retirement plan be covered within a reasonable time of their dates of hire.

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5
Q

Define: partnership

A

A form of business organization in which two or more individuals manage the business and are equally and personally liable for its debts.

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6
Q

Define: partnership account

A

An account that empowers the individual members of a partnership to act on the behalf of the partnership as a whole.

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7
Q

Define: partnership management fee

A

The amount payable to the general partners of a limited partnership, or to other persons, for managing the day-to-day partnership operations. Syn. program management fee; property management fee.

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8
Q

Define: par value

A

The dollar amount assigned to a security by the issuer. For an equity security, par value is usually a small dollar amount that bears no relationship to the security’s market price. For a debt security, par value is the amount repaid to the investor when the bond matures, usually $1,000. Syn. face value; principal; stated value. See capital surplus; discount bond; premium bond.

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9
Q

Define: passive income

A

Earnings derived from a rental property, limited partnership, or other enterprise in which the individual is not actively involved. Passive income therefore does not include earnings from wages or active business participation, nor does it include income from dividends, interest, and capital gains. See passive loss; unearned income.

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10
Q

Define: passive loss

A

A loss incurred through a rental property, limited partnership, or other enterprise in which the individual is not activity involved. Passive losses can be used to offset passive income only, not wage or portfolio income. See passive income.

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11
Q

Define: passive management style

A

In a perfectly efficient market, investors should use a passive investment strategy (i.e., buying a broad market index of stocks and holding it) because active investment strategies will underperform due to transactions costs and management fees. However, to the extent that market prices are inefficient, active investment strategies can generate positive risk-adjusted returns. See active management style.

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12
Q

Define: pass-through certificate

A

A security representing an interest in a pool of conventional, Veterans Administration, Farmers Home Administration, or other agency mortgages. The pool receives the principal and interest payments, which it passes through to each certificate holder. Payments may or may not be guaranteed. See Federal National Mortgage Association; Government National Mortgage Association.

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13
Q

Define: pattern

A

A repetitive series of price movements on a chart used by a technical analyst to predict future movements of the market.

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14
Q

Define: payment date

A

The day on which a declared dividend is paid to all stockholders owning shares on the record date.

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15
Q

Define: PE

A

See price-earnings ratio.

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16
Q

Define: peak

A

The end of a period of increasing business activity throughout the economy, one of the four stages of the business cycle. Syn. prosperity. See business cycle.

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17
Q

Define: pecuniary

A

Of or relating to money, such as operating for pecuniary profit.

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18
Q

Define: pegging

A

An illegal form of market manipulation that attempts to keep the price of a subject security from falling. It is used by those with a long position. See capping.

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19
Q

Define: pension plan

A

A contract between an individual and an employer, a labor union, a government entity, or another institution that provides for the distribution of pension benefits at retirement.

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20
Q

Define: Pension Reform Act

A

See Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.

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21
Q

Define: PE ratio

A

See price-earnings ratio.

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22
Q

Define: performance-based fee

A

An investment advisory fee based on a share of capital gains on, or capital appreciation of, client assets. A fee that is based upon a percentage of assets that the IA manages is not a performance-based fee. this fee may only be charged to certain high net worth clients.

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23
Q

Define: person

A

As defined in securities law, an individual, corporation, partnership, association, fund, joint stock company, unincorporated organization, trust, government, or political subdivision of a government.

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24
Q

Define: personal income (Pl)

A

An individual’s total earnings derived from wages, passive business enterprises, and investments. See disposable income.

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25
Q

Define: Pink Sheets

A

See OTC Link.

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26
Q

Define: point

A

A measure of a bond’s price; $10 or 1 % of the par value of $1,000. See basis point.

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27
Q

Define: political risk

A

The risk that an investment’s returns could suffer as a result of political changes or instability in a country such as from a change in government, orderly or not, nationalization of industries, or military control.

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28
Q

Define: portfolio income

A

Earnings from interest, dividends, and all nonbusiness investments. See earned income; passive income; unearned income.

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29
Q

Define: portfolio manager

A

The entity responsible for investing a mutual fund’s assets, implementing its investment strategy, and managing day-to-day portfolio trading. Syn. fund manager.

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30
Q

Define: position

A

The amount of a security either owned (a long position) or owed (a short position) by an individual or a dealer. Dealers take long positions in specific securities to maintain inventories and thereby facilitate trading.

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31
Q

Define: preferred stock

A

An equity security that represents ownership in a corporation. It is issued with a stated dividend, which must be paid before dividends are paid to common stockholders. It generally carries no voting rights. See callable preferred stock; cumulative preferred stock.

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32
Q

Define: preferred stock fund

A

A mutual fund whose investment objective is to provide stable income with minimal capital risk. It invests in income-producing instruments such as preferred stock. See bond fund.

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33
Q

Define: preliminary prospectus

A

An abbreviated prospectus that is distributed while the SEC is reviewing an issuer’s registration statement. It contains all of the essential facts about the forthcoming offering except the underwriting spread, final public offering price, and date on which the shares will be delivered. Syn. red herring.

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34
Q

Define: premium

A

(1) The amount of cash chat an option buyer pays to an option seller. (2) The difference between the higher price paid for a security and the security’s face amount at issue. See discount.

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35
Q

Define: premium bond

A

A bond chat sells at a higher price than its face value. See discount bond; par value.

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36
Q

Define: premium mode

A

Insurance companies give policyowners the choice to pay premiums annually, semiannually, quarterly or monthly.

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37
Q

Define: present value

A

The sum of money needed to invest now at a given rate of compound interest to reach a specified amount at a specified future date.

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38
Q

Define: price-earnings ratio (PE)

A

A tool for comparing the prices of different common stocks by assessing how much the market is willing to pay for a share of each corporation’s earnings. It is calculated by dividing the current market price of a stock by the earnings per share. Syn. earnings multiplier.

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39
Q

Define: primary offering

A

An offering in which the proceeds of the underwriting go to the issuing corporation, agency, or municipality. The issuer seeks to increase its capitalization either by selling shares of stock, representing ownership, or by selling bonds, representing loans to the issuer. Syn. primary distribution.

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40
Q

Define: prime rate

A

The interest rate chat commercial banks charge their prime or most creditworthy customers, generally large corporations.

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41
Q

Define: principal

A

(1) Every business transaction has two principals-the buyer and the seller. When a broker-dealer trades for its own account, it is acting in the capacity of a principal. (2) See dealer. (3) See par.

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42
Q

Define: principal office and place of business

A

The firm’s executive office from which the firm’s officers, partners, or managers direct, control, and coordinate the activities of the firm.

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43
Q

Define: principal transaction

A

A transaction in which a broker-dealer either buys securities from customers and takes chem into its own inventory or sells securities to customers from its inventory. See agency transaction; agent; broker; dealer; principal.

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44
Q

Define: private placement

A

An offering of new issue securities chat complies with Regulation D of the Securities Act of 1933. According to Regulation D, a security generally is not required to be registered with the SEC if it is offered to no more than 35 nonaccredited investors or to an unlimited number of accredited investors. See Regulation D.

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45
Q

Define: profitability

A

The ability to generate a level of income and gain in excess of expenses.

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46
Q

Define: profitability ratio

A

One of several measures of a corporation’s relative profit or income in relation to its sales. See margin of profit ratio; return on equity.

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47
Q

Define: profit-sharing plan

A

An employee benefit plan established and maintained by an employer whereby the employees receive a share of the business’s profits. The money may be paid directly to the employees or deferred until retirement. A combination of both approaches is also possible.

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48
Q

Define: progressive tax

A

A tax chat takes a larger percentage of the income of high-income earners than chat of low-income earners. An example is the graduated income tax. See regressive tax.

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49
Q

Define: proscribed

A

A term commonly used in legal situations to describe a prohibited action.

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50
Q

Define: prospectus

A

Any notice, circular, advertisement, letter, or communication, in written form or by radio or television, which offers any security for sale.

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51
Q

Define: proxy

A

A limited power of attorney from a stockholder authorizing another person to vote on stockholder issues according to the first stockholder’s instructions. To vote on corporate matters, a stockholder must either attend the annual meeting or vote by proxy.

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52
Q

Define: prudent expert rule

A

A modern application of the prudent man rule to those with a fiduciary responsibility over qualified plans coming under the jurisdiction of ERJSA.

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53
Q

Define: prudent investor rule

A

Legally known as the Uniform Prudent Investors Act (UPIA). A modern adaptation of the prudent man rule, which, as a result of the development of modern portfolio theory, applies the standard of prudence to the entire portfolio rather than to individual investments. It requires the fiduciary to measure risk with respect to return.

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54
Q

Define: publicly traded fund

A

See closed-end investment company.

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55
Q

Define: public offering

A

The sale of an issue of common stock, either by a corporation going public or by an offering of additional shares. See initial public offering.

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56
Q

Define: public offering price (POP)

A

(1) The price of new shares that is established in the issuing corporation’s prospectus. (2) The price to investors for mutual fund shares, equal to the net asset value plus the sales charge. See ask; bid; mutual fund; net asset value.

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57
Q

Define: purchasing power risk

A

The potential chat, because of inflation, a certain amount of money will not purchase as much in the future as it does today. Syn. inflation risk.

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58
Q

Define: put

A

(1) An option contract giving the owner the right to sell a certain amount of an underlying security at a specified price within a specified time. (2) The act of exercising a put option. See call.

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59
Q

Define: QLAC

A

A qualified longevity annuity contract. If certain limits prescribed by the IRS are met, RMDs do not have to include the value of these contracts until age 85.

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60
Q

Define: QTIP trust

A

A trust that is funded with qualified terminable interest property, meaning that the spouse’s interest in the property terminates upon his death; also known as a Q trust, C trust, or current income trust.

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61
Q

Define: Qualified Domestic Relations Orders (QDROs)

A

Premature distributions that are taken pursuant to a qualified domestic relations order, or QDRO, are exempt from the 10% penalty. A QDRO is a court-issued order that gives someone the right to an individual’s qualified plan assets, typically an ex- (or soon-to-be-ex-) spouse, and the QDRO is usually issued in the course of divorce proceedings or to satisfy child support obligations. A QDRO applies only to assets in a qualified employer plan; it would not be applicable to an IRA or a SEP.

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62
Q

Define: qualified person

A

Under both state and federal law, a client for whom an investment adviser may charge performance-based fees. Currently, the requirements are a minimum net worth of $2.1 million or at least $1 million in AUM with that adviser.

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63
Q

Define: qualified retirement plan

A

A corporate retirement plan that meets the standards set by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974. Contributions to a qualified plan are tax deductible. Syn. approved plan. See also individual retirement account; Keogh plan; nonqualified retirement plan.

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64
Q

Define: qualified tuition program

A

The technical name for Section 529 Plans. Syn. QTP.

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65
Q

Define: quick asset ratio

A

A more stringent test of liquidity than the current ratio. It is computed by taking the current assets, less the inventory, and dividing by the current liabilities. Syn. acid test ratio, quick ratio

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66
Q

Define: quotation

A

The price or bid a market maker or broker-dealer offers for a particular security. Syn. quote. See ask; bid; bond quote; stock quote

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67
Q

Define: quote machine

A

A computer that provides representatives and market makers with the information that appears on the Consolidated Tape. The information on the screen is condensed into symbols and numbers.

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68
Q

Define: rating

A

An evaluation of a corporate or municipal bond’s relative safety, according to the issuer’s ability to repay principal and make interest payments. Bonds are rated by various organizations, such as Standard & Poor’s and Moody’s. Ratings range from AAA or Aaa (the highest) to C or D, which represents a company in default.

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69
Q

Define: rating service

A

A company, such as Moody’s or Standard & Poor’s, that rates various debt and preferred stock issues for safety of payment of principal, interest, or dividends. The issuing company or municipality pays a fee for the rating. See bond rating; rating.

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70
Q

Define: real estate investment trust (REIT)

A

A corporation or trust that uses the pooled capital of many investors to invest in direct ownership of either income property or mortgage loans. These investments offer tax benefits in addition to interest and capital gains distributions. However, unlike DPPs, these are not “flow-through” vehicles.

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71
Q

Define: realized gain

A

The amount a taxpayer earns when he sells an asset. See unrealized gain.

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72
Q

Define: recession

A

A general economic decline lasting from six to 18 months (at least two consecutive quarters of declining or negative DGP growth).

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73
Q

Define: record date

A

The date a corporation’s board of directors establishes that determines which of its stockholders are entitled to receive dividend distributions or be eligible to vote.

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74
Q

Define: redeemable security

A

A security that the issuer redeems upon the holder’s request. Examples include shares in an open-end investment company and Treasury notes.

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75
Q

Define: redemption

A

The return of an investor’s principal in a security, such as a bond, preferred stock, or mutual fund shares. By law, redemption of mutual fund shares must occur within seven days of receiving the investor’s request for redemption.

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76
Q

Define: refunding

A

Retiring an outstanding bond issue before maturity by using money from the sale of a new debt offering.

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77
Q

Define: regional exchange

A

A stock exchange that serves the financial community in a particular region of the country. These exchanges tend to focus on securities issued within their regions, but also offer trading in NYSE and Nasdaq-listed securities.

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78
Q

Define: registration by coordination

A

A process that allows a security to be sold in a state. It is available to an issuer that @es for the security’s registration under the Securities Act of 1933 and files duplicates of the registration documents with the state Administrator. The state registration becomes effective at the same time the federal registration statement becomes effective as long as paperwork is on file with the Administrator for the required period, which ranges from 10 to 20 days depending on the state.

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79
Q

Define: registration by qualification

A

A process that allows a security to be sold in a state. It is available to an issuer who files for the security’s registration with the state Administrator, meets minimum net worth, disclosure, and other requirements, and files appropriate registration fees. The state registration becomes effective when the Administrator so orders.

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80
Q

Define: registration statement

A

The legal document that discloses all pertinent information concerning an offering of a security and its issuer. It is submitted to the SEC (and/ or the Administrator) in accordance with the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 and/or the Uniform Securities Act, and it forms the basis of the final prospectus distributed to investors.

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81
Q

Define: regnant

A

Considered to be the ruling or general position, such as the regnant view on registration requirements.

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82
Q

Define: regressive tax

A

A tax that takes a larger percentage of the income of low-income earners than that of high-income earners. Examples include gasoline tax and cigarette tax. See progressive tax.

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83
Q

Define: regulated investment company

A

An investment company to which Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code grants special status that allows the flow-through of tax consequences on a distribution to shareholders. If 90% of its income is passed through to the shareholders, the company is not subject to tax on this income.

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84
Q

Define: Regulation D

A

The provision of the Securities Act of 1933 that exempts from registration offerings sold in private placements. Rule 506(6) limits the sale to a maximum of 35 nonaccredited investors during a 12 -month period with no advertising permitted, while Rule 506(c) permits advertising but requires that all purchasers be accredited investors. See private placement.

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85
Q

Define: Regulation T

A

The Federal Reserve Board regulation that governs customer cash accounts and the amount of credit that brokerage firms and dealers may extend to customers for the purchase of securities. Regulation T currently sets the loan value of marginable securities at 50% and the payment deadline at two days beyond regular way settlement. Syn. Reg. T.

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86
Q

Define: regulatory risk

A

The risk that changes in regulations may negatively affect the operations of a company.

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87
Q

Define: reinstatement privilege

A

A benefit offered by some mutual funds, allowing an investor to withdraw money from a fund account and then redeposit the money without paying a second sales charge.

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88
Q

Define: remainderman

A

A remainderman is the person who inherits or is entitled under the law to inherit property upon termination of the estate of the former owner. Usually, this occurs due to the death or termination of the former owner’s life estate.

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89
Q

Define: remuneration

A

Money paid for work performed or a service provided.

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90
Q

Define: repurchase agreement

A

Sometimes just referred to as a REPO, this is widely used in the money market where the seller of a security agrees to buy it back (repurchase it) at a higher price (the imputed interest rate).

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91
Q

Define: required minimum distribution (RMD)

A

The amount that traditional and SEP IRA owners and qualified plan participants must begin withdrawing from their retirement accounts by April 1 following the year they reach age70½. Exceptions apply to those covered under a qualified plan who are still employed. RMD amounts must then be distributed by December 31 that year and each subsequent year.

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92
Q

Define: reserve requirement

A

The percentage of depositors ‘money that the Federal Reserve Board requires a commercial bank to keep on deposit in the form of cash or in its vault. Syn. reserves.

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93
Q

Define: residual claim

A

The right of a common stockholder to corporate assets in the event that the corporation ceases to exist. A common stockholder may claim assets only after the claims of all creditors and other security holders have been satisfied.

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94
Q

Define: resistance level

A

A technical analysis term describing the top of a stock’s historical trading range. See support level. Top of a stock’s historical trading range. See support level.

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95
Q

Define: restricted security

A

An unregistered, nonexempt security acquired either directly or indirectly from the issuer, or an affiliate of the issuer, in a transaction that does not involve a public offering. See holding period; Rule 144 .

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96
Q

Define: retained earnings

A

The amount of a corporation’s net income that remains after all dividends have been paid to preferred and common stockholders. Syn. earned surplus; reinvested earnings.

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97
Q

Define: retiring bonds

A

Ending an issuer’s debt obligation by calling the outstanding bonds, by purchasing bonds in the open market, or by repaying bondholders the principal amount at maturity.

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98
Q

Define: return on common equity

A

A measure of a corporation’s profitability, calculated by dividing after-tax income by common shareholders’ equity.

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99
Q

Define: return on equity

A

A measure of a corporation’s profitability, specifically its return on assets, calculated by dividing after-tax income by tangible assets.

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100
Q

Define: return on investment (ROI)

A

The profit or loss resulting from a security transaction, often expressed as an annual percentage rate.

101
Q

Define: revenue bond

A

A municipal debt issue whose interest and principal are payable only from the specific earnings of an income-producing public project.

102
Q

Define: reverse churning

A

The prohibited practice of parking assets that will only be traded infrequently in a fee-based advisory account.

103
Q

Define: reverse split

A

A reduction in the number of a corporation’s shares outstanding that increases the par value of its stock or its earnings per share. The market value of the total number of shares remains the same. See stock split.

104
Q

Define: revocable trust

A

A trust that can be altered or canceled by the grantor. During the life of the trust, income earned is distributed to the grantor, and only after death does property transfer to the beneficiaries.

105
Q

Define: right

A

A security representing a stockholder’s entitlement to the first opportunity to purchase new shares issued by the corporation at a predetermined price (normally less than the current market price) in proportion to the number of shares already owned. Rights are issued for a short time only, after which they expire. Syn. subscription right; subscription right certificate.

106
Q

Define: right of accumulation

A

A benefit offered by a mutual fund that allows the investor to qualify for reduced sales loads on additional purchases according to the fund account’s total dollar value.

107
Q

Define: risk premium

A

The amount in excess of the risk-free rate demanded by investors to compensate for the additional risks inherent in the specific security being described.

108
Q

Define: risk tolerance

A

Risk tolerance is an investor’s ability and willingness to lose some or all of the original investment in exchange for greater potential returns. An aggressive investor, or one with a high risk tolerance, is more likely to risk losing money in order to get better results. A conservative investor, or one with a low-risk tolerance, tends to favor investments that will preserve the original investment.

109
Q

Define: risk-adjusted return

A

Return from a security adjusted for the market risk associated with it. Usually measured by the Sharpe ratio.

110
Q

Define: risk-free rate

A

Generally refers to the interest rate of 13 week (91-day) U.S. Treasury bills.

111
Q

Define: Roth 401(k)

A

As with a Roth IRA, contributions are not tax deductible, but qualified withdrawals are free from income tax. There are no earnings limits in order to participate, but it is required that distributions begin no later than age 70½.

112
Q

Define: Roth IRA

A

Funded with after-tax contributions, but, if qualified, withdrawals are tax-free. There are earnings limits but no required distributions at age 70½.

113
Q

Define: Rule 144

A

SEC rule requiring that persons who hold control or restricted securities may sell them only in limited quantities, and that all sales of restricted stock by control persons must be reported to the SEC by filing a Form 144, Notice of Proposed Sale of Securities. See control security; restricted security.

114
Q

Define: Rule 147

A

SEC rule that provides exemption from the registration statement and prospectus requirements of the 1933 Act for securities offered and sold exclusively intrastate.

115
Q

Define: safe harbor

A

A provision in a regulatory scheme that provides protection against legal action if stated procedures are followed. In this exam, it may apply in three different cases: (1) Section 28(e) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 describes those research and brokerage activities that may be received by an investment adviser in exchange for directed brokerage transactions; (2) Section 404c of ERISA describes what a fiduciary of a qualified plan must do to minimize personal responsibility; and (3) top-heavy 401 (k) concerns are minimized if the employer covers all employees with immediate vesting. See soft dollar compensation; top heavy.

116
Q

Define: sales load

A

The amount added to a mutual fund share’s net asset value to arrive at the offering price. See mutual fund; net asset value; no-load fund.

117
Q

Define: Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees

A

A form of employer sponsored IRA for businesses that have 100 or fewer employees who earned $5,000 or more during the preceding calendar year. In addition, the employer cannot currently have another retirement plan.

118
Q

Define: S corporation

A

A small business corporation chat meets certain requirements and is taxed as a partnership while retaining limited liability. Syn. Subchapter S corporation.

119
Q

Define: Schedule K-1

A

The form supplied by a partnership, LLC, or S corporation to owners indicating their proportionate share of income/loss co be reported on their Form 1040 tax returns.

120
Q

Define: secondary distribution

A

A distribution, with a prospectus, chat involves securities owned by major stockholders (typically founders or principal owners of a corporation). The sale proceeds go to the sellers of the stock, not to the issuer.

121
Q

Define: secondary market

A

The market in which securities are bought and sold subsequent to their being sold to the public for the first time. See new issue market.

122
Q

Define: secondary offering

A

A sale of securities in which one or more major stockholders in a company sell all or a large portion of their holdings; the underwriting proceeds are paid to the stockholders rather than co the corporation. Typically, such an offering occurs when the founder of a business (and perhaps some of the original financial backers) determine chat there is more to be gained by going public than by staying private. The offering does not increase the number of shares of stock outstanding. See secondary distribution.

123
Q

Define: Section 457 Plan

A

A deferred compensation plan set up under Section 457 of the tax code that may be used by employees of a state, political subdivision of a state, and any agency or instrumentality of a state. this plan may also be offered to employees of certain tax-exempt organizations (hospitals, charitable organizations, unions, and so forth), but not churches. Even independent contractors may be covered under these plans.

124
Q

Define: Section 28(e)

A

A code section of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 hat deals with soft dollar compensation. See soft dollar compensation; state harbor.

125
Q

Define: sector fund

A

A mutual fund whose investment objective is to capitalize on the return potential provided by investing primarily in a particular industry or sector of the economy. Syn. industry fund; specialized fund.

126
Q

Define: sector rotation

A

An active portfolio management technique that attempts to take advantage of the fact that different sectors of the economy rise and fall in the business cycle at different times. Rotating from one to the other at the right times can lead to investment success. Syn. Sector rotating. See active management style.

127
Q

Define: secured bond

A

A debt security backed by identifiable assets set aside as collateral. In the event that the issuer defaults on payment, the bondholders may lay claim to the collateral. See debenture.

128
Q

Define: Securities Act of 1933

A

Federal legislation requiring the full and fair disclosure of all material information about the issuance of new securities. Syn. Act of 1933; Full Disclosure Act; New Issues Act; Prospectus Act; Trust in Securities Act; Truth in Securities Act.

129
Q

Define: Securities Amendments Act of 1975

A

Federal legislation chat established the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.

130
Q

Define: Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

A

Commission created by Congress to regulate the securities markets and protect investors. It is composed of five commissioners appointed by the President of the United States with the advice and consent of the Senate. The SEC enforces, among other acts, the Securities Act of 1933, the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, the Trust Indenture Act of 1939, the Investment Company Act of 1940, and the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.

131
Q

Define: Securities Exchange Act of 1934

A

Federal legislation that established the Securities and Exchange Commission. The act aims to protect investors by regulating the exchanges, the OTC market, the extension of credit by the Federal Reserve Board, broker-dealers, insider transactions, trading activities, client accounts, and net capital. Syn. Act of 1934; Exchange Act.

132
Q

Define: Securities Information Processor (SIP)

A

A system chat consolidates quote and trade data for U.S. stocks.

133
Q

Define: Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC)

A

A nonprofit membership corporation created by an act of Congress to protect clients of brokerage firms chat are forced into bankruptcy. Membership is composed of all brokers and dealers registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, all members of national securities exchanges, and most FINRA members. SIPC provides brokerage firm customers up to $500,000 coverage for cash and securities held by the firms (although cash coverage is limited to$250,000).

134
Q

Define: security

A

Other than an insurance policy or a fixed annuity, any piece of securitized paper chat can be traded for value. Under the Uniform Securities Act, this includes any note; stock; treasury stock; bond; debenture; evidence of indebtedness; certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement; collateral-crust certificate; preorganization certificate or subscription; transferable share; investment contract; voting-trust certificate; certificate of deposit for a security; certificate of interest or participation in an oil, gas, or mining title or lease or in payments out of production under such a title or lease; or, in general, any interest or instrument commonly known as a security, or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, guarantee of, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing.

135
Q

Define: security market index

A

A security market index is used to represent the performance of an asset class, security market, or segment of a market. They are usually created as portfolios of individual securities, which are referred to as the constituent securities of the index. An index has a numerical value that is calculated from the market prices (actual when available, or estimated) of its constituent securities at a point in time. An index return is the percentage change in the index’s value over a period of time. Popular examples are the S&P 500 and the Russell 2000.

136
Q

Define: self-regulatory organization (SRO)

A

One of eight organizations accountable to the SEC for the enforcement of federal securities laws and the supervision of securities practices within an assigned field of jurisdiction. For example, the National Association of Securities Dealers regulates the over-the-counter market; the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board supervises state and municipal securities; and certain stock exchanges, such as the New York Stock Exchange and the Chicago Board Options Exchange, act as self-regulatory bodies to promote ethical conduct and standard trading practices.

137
Q

Define: sell

A

To convey ownership of a security or another asset for money or value. This includes giving or delivering a security with or as a bonus for a purchase of securities, a gift of assessable stock, and selling or offering a warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to another security. Not included in the definition is a bona fide pledge or loan or a stock dividend if nothing of value is given by the stockholders for the dividend. Syn. sale.

138
Q

Define: selling away

A

An associated person engaging in private securities transactions without the employing broker-dealer’s knowledge and consent. This violates the NASAA Policy on prohibited practices.

139
Q

Define: selling dividends

A

Inducing customers co buy mutual fund shares by implying that an upcoming distribution will benefit them. This practice is illegal.

140
Q

Define: sell stop order

A

An order to sell a security that is entered at a price below the current market price and that is triggered when the market price touches or goes through the sell stop price.

141
Q

Define: senior security

A

A security that grants its holder a prior claim to the issuer’s assets over the claims of another security’s holders. For example, a bond is a senior security over common stock.

142
Q

Define: separate account

A

The account that holds funds paid by variable annuity contract holders. The funds are kept separate from the insurer’s general account and are invested in a portfolio of securities that match the contract holders’ objectives. See accumulation unit; annuity.

143
Q

Define: settlor

A

An individual or organization that gifts assets to a beneficiary by transferring fiduciary duty to a third-party trustee that will maintain the assets for the benefit of the beneficiaries. Syn. granter, trustor.

144
Q

Define: Sharpe ratio

A

The Sharpe ratio measures the risk adjusted return of an investment. It is calculated by dividing the excess return of an asset over the 91-day Treasury bill rate by its standard deviation. It measures the reward per unit of risk so the higher the ratio, the better.

145
Q

Define: short

A

The term used to describe the selling of a security, contract, or commodity that the seller does not own. For example, an investor who borrows shares of stock from a broker-dealer and sells them on the open market is said to have a short position in the stock. See long.

146
Q

Define: short sale

A

The sale of a security that the seller does not own, or any sale consummated by the delivery of a security borrowed by or for the account of the seller.

147
Q

Define: short-term capital gain

A

The profit realized on the sale of an asset that has been owned for 12 months or less. See capital gain; capital loss; short-term capital loss.

148
Q

Define: short-term capital loss

A

The loss incurred on the sale of a capital asset that has been owned for 12 months or less. See capital gain; capital loss; short-term capital gain.

149
Q

Define: side-by-side management

A

The practice of managing accounts that are charged performance-based fees while at the same time managing accounts that are not charged performance-based fees.

150
Q

Define: SIMPLE Plan

A

See Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees.

151
Q

Define: simple trust

A

A trust that accumulates income and distributes it to its beneficiaries on an annual basis.

152
Q

Define: small-cap

A

Stocks with a market capitalization of $300 million to $2 billion.

153
Q

Define: socially responsible investing (SRI)

A

Also known as sustainable, socially conscious, “green” or ethical investing-is an impact investment strategy which seeks co consider both financial return and social good. In general, socially responsible investors encourage corporate practices chat promote environmental stewardship, consumer protection, human rights, and diversity.

154
Q

Define: soft dollar compensation

A

Noncash compensation received by an investment adviser from a broker-dealer, generally in exchange for directed brokerage transactions. Muse always be disclosed and should come under the safe harbor provisions of Section 28(e). See safe harbor.

155
Q

Define: solicitor

A

A person either contracted or employed by an investment adviser for the purpose of bringing in advisory business. If an employee, registration as an IAR is required. If contracted, the person muse not be statutorily disqualified from registration and is subject to the terms of a written agreement between the IA and the solicitor.

156
Q

Define: solvency

A

The ability of a corporation both to meet its long-term fixed expenses and co have adequate money for long-term expansion and growth.

157
Q

Define: specialist

A

Stock exchange member who stands ready to quote and trade certain securities either for his own account or for customer accounts. The specialist’s role is co maintain a fair and orderly market in the stocks for which he is responsible. Syn. designated market maker, DMM.

158
Q

Define: special situation fund

A

A mutual fund whose objective is to capitalize on the profit potential of corporations in nonrecurring circumstances, such as chose undergoing reorganizations or being considered as takeover candidates.

159
Q

Define: speculation

A

Trading a security with a higher than average risk in return for a higher than average profit potential. The trade is effected solely for the purpose of profiting from it and not as a means of hedging or protecting ocher positions.

160
Q

Define: spousal IRA

A

A separate individual retirement account established for a spouse with little or no earned income. Contributions co the account made by the working spouse grow tax deferred until withdrawal.

161
Q

Define: spread

A

In a quotation, the difference between a security’s bid and ask prices.

162
Q

Define: Standard & Poor’s Composite Index of 500 Stocks (S&P 500)

A

A value-weighted index chat offers broad coverage of the securities market. It is composed of 400 industrial stocks, 40 financial stocks, 40 public utility stocks, and 20 transportation stocks. The index is owned and compiled by Standard & Poor’s Corporation. See index; Standard & Poor’s Corporation; Standard & Poor’s 100 Stock Index.

163
Q

Define: Standard & Poor’s Corporation (S&P)

A

A company that rates stocks and corporate and municipal bonds according to risk profiles and that produces and tracks the S&P indexes. The company also publishes a variety of financial and investment reports. See bond rating; Moody’s Investors Service; rating; Standard & Poor’s 100 Stock Index; Standard & Poor’s Composite Index of 500 Stocks.

164
Q

Define: standard deviation

A

A measurement of a security’s or a portfolio’s total risk. The greater the standard deviation, the more the security’s returns deviate from its average return, hence indicating greater volatility. See total risk.

165
Q

Define: standardized contract

A

A futures contract in which all the contract terms are sec by the exchange except for price.

166
Q

Define: standardized options

A

Options contracts trading on a national securities exchange, or an automated quotation system of a registered securities association, which relate co options classes the terms of which are limited to specific expiration dates and exercise prices.

167
Q

Define: static content

A

Social media content that rarely changes and can only be changed by the author of the content. Examples would be an investment adviser’s website.

168
Q

Define: stock certificate

A

Printed evidence of ownership in a corporation.

169
Q

Define: stock dividend

A

A dividend paid in additional shares of the issuer’s stock rather than in cash. Unlike cash dividends, stock dividends are not taxable when received. They lower the cost basis of the current shareholdings and are only subject to capital gains tax when sold.

170
Q

Define: stock exchange

A

Any organization, association, or group of persons that maintains or provides a marketplace in which securities can be bought and sold. Examples include the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE), the London Stock Exchange (LSE), and the Tokyo Stock Exchange (TSE).

171
Q

Define: stock split

A

An increase in the number of a corporation’s outstanding shares, which decreases its stock’s par value. The market value of the total number of shares remains the same. The proportional reductions in orders held on the books for a split stock are calculated by dividing the stock’s market price by the fraction chat represents the split.

172
Q

Define: stop limit order

A

A customer order that becomes a limit order when the market price of the security reaches or passes a specific price. See limit order; stop order.

173
Q

Define: stop order

A

(1) A directive from the SEC or the Administrator chat suspends the sale of new issue securities to the public when fraud is suspected or filing materials are deficient. (2) A customer order that becomes a market order when the market price of the security reaches or passes a specific price. See limit order; market order; stop limit order.

174
Q

Define: street name

A

Term used in the industry to refer to customer securities held in the name of the broker-dealer as nominee.

175
Q

Define: subordinated debenture

A

A debt obligation, backed by the general credit of the issuing corporation, that has claims to interest and principal subordinated to ordinary debentures and all other liabilities. See debenture.

176
Q

Define: successor firm

A

A new entity which takes over (succeeds) an existing one and continues the business, generally under a new name.

177
Q

Define: suitability

A

A determination made by an agent as to whether a particular security matches a customer’s objectives and financial capability. The agent must have enough information about the customer to make this judgment.

178
Q

Define: supply

A

The total amount of a good or service available for purchase by consumers. See demand.

179
Q

Define: supply-side theory

A

An economic theory holding that bolstering an economy’s ability to supply more goods is the most effective way to stimulate economic growth. Supply-side theorists advocate income tax reduction insofar as this increases private investment in corporations, facilities, and equipment.

180
Q

Define: support level

A

A technical analysis term describing the bottom of a stock’s historical trading range. See resistance level.

181
Q

Define: systematic risk

A

The potential for a security to decrease in value owing to its inherent tendency to move together with all securities of the same type. Neither diversification nor any other investment strategy can eliminate this risk. Systematic risks are sometimes referred to as external risk factors because they take place outside of the company being analyzed. See market risk, unsystematic risk .

182
Q

Define: taxable gain

A

The portion of a sale or distribution of mutual fund shares subject to taxation.

183
Q

Define: tax credit

A

An amount that can be subtracted from a tax liability, often in connection with real estate development, energy conservation, and research and development programs. Every dollar of tax credit reduces the amount of tax due, dollar for dollar. See deduction.

184
Q

Define: tax-equivalent yield

A

The rate of return a taxable bond must earn before taxes in order to equal the tax-exempt earnings on a municipal bond. This number varies with the investor’s tax bracket.

185
Q

Define: tax-exempt bond fund

A

A mutual fund whose investment objective is to provide maximum tax-free income. It invests primarily in municipal bonds and short-term debt. Syn. tax-free bond fund.

186
Q

Define: tax liability

A

The amount of tax payable on earnings, usually calculated by subtracting standard and itemized deductions and personal exemptions from adjusted gross income, then multiplying by the tax rate. See adjusted gross income.

187
Q

Define: tax preference item

A

An element of income that receives favorable tax treatment. The item must be added to taxable income when computing alternative minimum tax. Tax preference items include accelerated depreciation on property, research and development costs, intangible drilling costs, tax-exempt interest on municipal private purpose bonds, and certain incentive stock options. See alternative minimum tax.

188
Q

Define: tax-sheltered annuity (TSA)

A

An annuity contract that entitles the holder to exclude all contributions from gross income in the year they are made. Taxes payable on the earnings are deferred until the holder withdraws funds at retirement. TSAs are available primarily through a 403(b) plan to employees of public schools, church organizations, and other tax-exempt organizations. Syn. tax-deferred annuity.

189
Q

Define: technical analysis

A

A method of evaluating securities by analyzing statistics generated by market activity, such as past prices and volume. Technical analysts do not attempt to measure a security’s intrinsic value. See chartist; fundamental analysis.

190
Q

Define: Telephone Consumer Protection Act of 1991 (TCPA)

A

Federal legislation restricting the use of telephone lines for solicitation purposes. A company soliciting sales via telephone, facsimile, or email must disclose its name and address to the called party and must not call any person who has requested not to be called.

191
Q

Define: tenants in common (TIC)

A

A form of joint ownership of an account whereby a deceased tenant’s fractional interest in the account is retained by his estate. See joint tenants with right of survivorship.

192
Q

Define: tenants by the entirety

A

A form of joint ownership only available to married couples. Unlike other forms, it requires consent of both parties in order to effect transactions.

193
Q

Define: tergiversation

A

The practice of continually changing one’s mind, attitude, or opinion.

194
Q

Define: testamentary trust

A

A trust created as a result of instructions from a deceased’s last will and testament.

195
Q

Define: testator

A

The legal term for a person who makes a will.

196
Q

Define: testimonial

A

An endorsement of an investment or service by a celebrity or public opinion influencer. The use of testimonials by investment advisers is prohibited.

197
Q

Define: theta

A

One of the four Greeks used by options analysts. An option’s theta is a measurement of the option’s time decay. The theta measures the rate at which options lose their value, specifically the time value, as the expiration dace draws nearer. Genera1ly expressed as a negative number, the theta of an option reflects the amount by which the option’s value will decrease every day.

198
Q

Define: time horizon

A

Time horizon is the expected number of months, years, or decades over which the investments will be made to achieve a particular financial goal. An investor with a longer time horizon may feel more comfortable taking on a riskier, or more volatile, investment because that investor can wait out slow economic cycles and the inevitable ups and downs of our markets. By contrast, an investor saving up for a teenager’s college education would likely cake on less risk because of the shorter time horizon.

199
Q

Define: time value

A

Tue amount an investor pays for an option above its intrinsic value; it reflects the amount of time left until expiration. The amount is calculated by subtracting the intrinsic value from the premium paid. See intrinsic value.

200
Q

Define: tombstone advertisement

A

A printed advertisement that is used to generate interest in a securities offering. the text is limited to basic information about the offering, such as the name of the issuer, type of security, names of the underwriters, and where a prospectus is available. A tombstone ad is not considered to be an offering of the subject security.

201
Q

Define: top heavy

A

The term used to describe a 401 (k) plan that offers a disproportionate benefit to key employees. Top-heavy testing must be done on an annual basis unless the plan qualifies as a safe harbor 401 (k). See safe harbor.

202
Q

Define: total capitalization

A

The sum of a corporation’s long-term debt, stock accounts, and capital in excess of par.

203
Q

Define: total risk

A

(As measured by standard deviation) can be broken down into its component parts: unsystematic risk and systematic risk. That is, total risk = systematic risk + unsystematic risk.

204
Q

Define: toxic debt

A

Debt whose quality has dropped and is now indicating a high likelihood of default. This can be toxic for the investor’s portfolio.

205
Q

Define: trading authorization

A

See full trading authorization; limited trading authorization.

206
Q

Define: tranche

A

A class of bonds. Collateralized mortgage obligations are structured with several tranches of bonds that have various maturities. It comes from the French word for slice.

207
Q

Define: transfer agent

A

A person or corporation responsible for recording the names and holdings of registered security owners, seeing that certificates are signed by the appropriate corporate officers, affixing the corporate seal, and delivering securities co the new owners.

208
Q

Define: treasury bill

A

A marketable U.S. government debt security with a maturity of less than one year. Treasury bills are issued through a competitive bidding process at a discount from par; they have no fixed interest rate. Syn. T-bill.

209
Q

Define: Treasury bond

A

A marketable, fixed-interest U.S. government debt security with a maturity of more than 10 years. Syn. T-bond.

210
Q

Define: Treasury note

A

A marketable, fixed-interest U.S. government debt security with a maturity of between 2 and 10 years. Syn. T-note.

211
Q

Define: trend line

A

A tool used by technical analysts to trace a security’s movement by connecting the reaction lows in an upward trend or the rally highs in a downward trend.

212
Q

Define: trough

A

The end of a period of declining business activity throughout the economy, one of the four stages of the business cycle. See business cycle.

213
Q

Define: trustee

A

A person legally appointed to act on a beneficiary’s behalf.

214
Q

Define: trustor

A

An individual or organization chat gifts assets to a beneficiary by transferring fiduciary duty to a third-party trustee that will maintain the assets for the benefit of the beneficiaries. Syn. settlor, grantor.

215
Q

Define: 12b-1 asset-based fees

A

Investment Company Ace of 1940 provision that a1lows a mutual fund to collect a fee for the promotion or sale of or another activity connected with the distribution of its shares. This fee will not exceed 0.75%.

216
Q

Define: underlying securities

A

The securities that are bought or sold when an option, right, or warrant is exercised.

217
Q

Define: underwriter

A

An investment banker that works with an issuer to help bring a security to the market and sell it to the public.

218
Q

Define: underwriting

A

The procedure by which investment bankers channel investment capital from investors to corporations and municipalities that are issuing securities.

219
Q

Define: unearned income

A

Income derived from investments and other sources not related to employment services. Examples of unearned income include interest from a savings account, bond interest, and dividends from stock. See earned income; passive income; portfolio income.

220
Q

Define: Uniform Gift to Minors Act (UGMA)

A

Legislation that permits a gift of money or securities to be given to a minor and held in a custodial account that an adult manages for the minor’s benefit. Income and capital gains transferred to a minor’s name are usually taxed at the minor’s rate. However, if the child is under a specified age and has unearned income above a certain level, those earnings are taxed at trust rates. See Uniform Transfers to Minors Act.

221
Q

Define: Uniform Securities Act (USA)

A

Model legislation for securities industry regulation at the state level. Each state may adopt the legislation in its entirety or it may adapt it (within limits) to suit its needs.

222
Q

Define: Uniform Transfers to Minors Act (UTMA)

A

Legislation adopted in most states that permits a gift of money or securities to be given to a minor and held in a custodial account that an adult manages for the minor’s benefit until the minor reaches a certain age (not necessarily the age of majority). Income and capital gains transferred to a minor’s name are usually taxed at the minor’s rate. However, just as with UGMA, if the child is under a specified age and has unearned income above a certain level, those earnings are taxed at trust rates. See Uniform Gift to Minors Act.

223
Q

Define: unit

A

A share in the ownership of a direct participation program that entitles the investor to an interest in the program’s net income, net loss, and distributions.

224
Q

Define: unit investment trust (UIT)

A

An investment company that sells redeemable shares in a professionally selected portfolio of securities. It is organized under a trust indenture, not a corporate charter.

225
Q

Define: unit of beneficial interest

A

A redeemable share in a unit investment trust, representing ownership of an undivided interest in the underlying portfolio. Syn. share of beneficial interest. See unit investment trust.

226
Q

Define: unrealized gain

A

The amount by which a security appreciates in value before it is sold. Until it is sold, the investor does not actually possess the sale proceeds. See realized gain.

227
Q

Define: unsystematic risk

A

The potential for an unforeseen event to affect the value of a specific investment. Examples of such events include strikes, natural disasters, poor management decisions, introductions of new product lines, and attempted takeovers. This risk is diversifiable. Unsystematic risks are sometimes referred to as internal risk factors because they deal with risk arising from the events taking place within the company Syn. nonsystematic risk. See systematic risk

228
Q

Define: U.S. government and agency bond fund

A

A mutual fund whose investment objective is to provide current income while preserving safety of capital through investing in securities backed by the U.S. Treasury or issued by a government agency.

229
Q

Define: value style investing

A

A management style that looks for stocks currently selling at distressed prices that have solid underlying fundamentals. These stocks typically sell at the lower end of their 52-week price range and have low P/E ratios and higher than average dividend payout ratios. See growth style investing.

230
Q

Define: vega

A

One of the four Greeks used by options analysts. An option’s vega is a measure of the impact of changes in the underlying volatility on the option price. Specifically, the vega of an option expresses the change in the price of the option for every 1 % change in underlying volatility.

231
Q

Define: vesting

A

(1) An ERISA guideline stipulating that employees must be entitled to their entire retirement benefits within a certain period of time even if no longer employed. (2) The amount of time that an employee must work before retirement or before benefit plan contributions made by the employer become the employee’s property without penalty. The IRS and the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 set minimum requirements for vesting in a qualified plan.

232
Q

Define: volatility

A

The magnitude and frequency of changes in the price of a security or commodity within a given period.

233
Q

Define: volume of trading theory

A

A technical analysis theory holding that the ratio of the number of shares traded to total outstanding shares indicates whether a market is strong or weak.

234
Q

Define: voting trust certificate

A

A certificate issued by a voting trustee to the beneficial holders of shares held by the voting trust. It is readily transferable and is considered a security.

235
Q

Define: warrant

A

A security that gives the holder the right to purchase securities from the warrant issuer at a stipulated subscription price. Warrants are usually long-term instruments, with expiration dates years in the future.

236
Q

Define: wash sale

A

Selling a security at a loss for tax purposes and, within 30 days before or after, purchasing the same or a substantially identical security. The IRS disallows the claimed loss.

237
Q

Define: wash trade

A

A wash trade occurs when a customer enters a purchase order and a sale order for the same security at the same time. It is done to create a false appearance of activity in a security. This is a prohibited practice.

238
Q

Define: Wells notice

A

A Wells notice indicates that the regulator intends to bring an enforcement action against an individual or a business. If the notice is against a publicly traded company, it usually has the effect of depressing the current market price.

239
Q

Define: Wilshire 5000

A

The Wilshire 5000 Total Market Index represents the broadest index for the U.S. equity market, measuring the performance of all U.S. equity securities with readily available price data. As of the dace of printing, it includes some 3,700 issues.

240
Q

Define: withdrawal plan

A

A benefit offered by a mutual fund whereby a customer receives the proceeds of periodic systematic liquidation of shares in the account. The amounts received may be based on a fixed dollar amount, a fixed number of shares, a fixed percentage, or a fixed period.

241
Q

Define: working capital

A

A measure of a corporation’s liquidity-that is, its ability to transfer assets into cash to meet current short-term obligations. It is calculated by subtracting total current liabilities from total current assets.

242
Q

Define: wrap fee program

A

Any advisory program under which a specified fee or fees not based directly upon transactions in a client’s account is charged for investment advisory services (which may include portfolio management or advice concerning the selection of other investment advisers) and the execution of client transactions. The exclusion from the definition of investment adviser available under both state and federal law to broker-dealers is not in effect for those offering wrap fee programs.

243
Q

Define: yield

A

The rate of return on an investment, usually expressed as an annual percentage rate. See current yield; dividend yield; nominal yield.

244
Q

Define: yield curve

A

A graphic representation of the actual or projected yields of fixed-income securities in relation to their maturities. In most cases, the securities of a single issuer are plotted over varying maturities. See Bat yield curve; inverted yield curve.

245
Q

Define: yield spread

A

The difference in yield between two debt securities, usually with similar quality and different maturities or similar maturities and different quality. Syn. credit spread.

246
Q

Define: yield to call (VTC)

A

The rate of return on a bond that accounts for the difference between the bond’s acquisition cost and its proceeds, including interest income, calculated to the earliest date that the bond may be called by the issuing corporation. See bond yield.

247
Q

Define: yield to maturity (VTM)

A

The rate of return on a
bond that accounts for the difference between the bond’s acquisition cost and its maturity proceeds, including interest income. See bond yield.

248
Q

Define: zero-coupon bond

A

A debt security usually issued at a deep discount from face value. The bond pays no interest; rather, it may be surrendered at maturity for its full face value. The duration of a zero-coupon bond is equal to its maturity