Definitions Flashcards

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1
Q

Criminal conduct

A

Under the law, conduct that falls outside of an accepted norm.

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2
Q

subjective phenomenon

A

can be directly known, if at all, only by persons themselves, although a person’s intimate associates or a skilled observer may be able to surmise from indirect evidence what is going on ‘inside.

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3
Q

motive

A

the reason a person may have committed a crime.

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4
Q

felony

A

major crimes such as; homicide, arson, treason.

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5
Q

misdemeanor

A

petty transgressions such as; trespassing, nuisance.

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6
Q

indictable offense

A

serious offenses historically called felonies.

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7
Q

summary conviction offense

A

Less serious offenses

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8
Q

hybrid offense

A

(aka crown electable or dual procedure.) offenses are stated to be punishable on either indictment or summary conviction.

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9
Q

crime

A

any act or omission the doing of which is an offense under federal legislation.

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10
Q

omissions

A

a failure to act. ex) not paying taxes

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11
Q

federal statutes

A

the criminal code, the youth criminal justice act, the narcotic control act, the food and drug act, the income tax act

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12
Q

provincial statutes

A

regulate certain offenses but not true criminal offenses. they are called quasi criminal or regulatory offenses. ex) highway traffic act, liquor license act

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13
Q

actus reus

A

‘the guilty act’ An act by which a crime is committed. It is the physical component of criminal conduct.

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14
Q

mens rea

A

“Where a person intentionally does the forbidden act with the knowledge of all the wrongful circumstances which the statute seeks to prohibit.”
‘the guilty mind’ it is not sufficient for someone to merely do the prohibited act, he or she must also have the necessary mental element to make the act punishable. The mental component of criminal conduct is the mens rea.

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15
Q

willful blindness

A

A conscious closing of one’s mind to the consequences of one’s act.This in no way negates criminal intent. It does not take away the mens rea.

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16
Q

negligence

A

the failure to act with reasonable care

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17
Q

strict liability

A

unnecessary to prove mens rea. Doing the prohibited act is sufficient for guilt. However, the accused is open to demonstrate that they took all reasonable care to avoid committing the offense. (done for public welfare offenses such as regulating health and environment).

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18
Q

absolute liability

A

No possibility for the accused to exonerate themselves by showing they are free from fault. These are offenses in which its clear that guilt would follow the mere doing of the prohibited act. ex) treason

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19
Q

criminal attempt

A

an act related to carrying out a crime performed with a guilty intention whether or not the crime was completed

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20
Q

truth

A

arriving at an accurate picture of what actually happened in a situation given the natural limitations on human ability to perceive reality.

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21
Q

adversarial system

A

an attempt to determine truth by the confrontation of the accused and prosecution, both represented by attorneys. This system is based on the assumption that the search for truth is best served by the parties themselves and not through a judge

22
Q

arrest

A

To restrain someone’s liberty indicating they are not free so that they may answer a charge against them.

23
Q

warrant

A

authority to arrest a person or produce evidence

24
Q

writ of habeas corpus

A

Compelling the person to be brought before the court allowing their detention to be adjudicated upon on a timely basis. (allows you to test the legality of the arrest right away and exercise your right to freedom if you are not deemed a danger).

25
Q

search warrant

A

a document issued form the court empowering the police to search places

26
Q

information

A

when a police officer swears an oath before the court that the search is on reasonable grounds to gather evidence.

27
Q

gunshot residue

A

trace substances left on surfaces including the hand of the shooter, after the discharge of a firearm.

28
Q

appearance notice

A

a legal document that informs the accused of the offense of which they are charged, the date upon which they may appear at the police station, and date of their court appearance.

29
Q

recognizance

A

an accused will pay a sum of money if they fail to appear for court.

30
Q

bail

A

the temporary release of an accused person awaiting trial on the condition that a sum of money be lodged to guarantee their appearance in court

31
Q

burden of proof

A

In criminal cases the onus of proof lies on the prosecution to prove the accused person’s guilt.
Guilt must be proven beyond reasonable doubt.
The accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty.

32
Q

charge to the jury

A

judge informs jury informs of the appropriate law and of what they must do to reach a verdict.

33
Q

evidence

A

Evidence provides a way for the Crown and the defense to reconstruct the legally relevant aspects of a criminal act.
Its Intended to tell a story so the facts of the case can be determined by the trier of fact and a judgment can be rendered

34
Q

hearsay

A

evidence consisting of matters that a witness was told. a witness cannot testify about anything that is not within their own knowledge and which they did not observe personally.

35
Q

trier of fact

A

the determin-er, whether judge or jury, of the facts on the basis of admissible evidence

36
Q

examination in chief

A

oral examination of a witness by the lawyer who summoned the witness to testify

37
Q

cross examination

A

oral examination of a witness by a lawyer who did not summons the witness to testify, designed to challenge the witness’s evidence

38
Q

voir dire

A

trial within a trial to determine whether evidence is admissible

39
Q

operating mind

A

the accused must possess a limited degree of cognitive ability to understand what he or she is saying and what is said, including the ability to understand a caution that the utterance can be used against him or her

40
Q

automatism

A

Involuntary, unconscious behavior when the mind does not go with what is being done. A state in which a person is not aware of what he or she is doing and may commit a crime unknowingly.

41
Q

mental disorder

A

One cannot understand the nature of his or her acts and is incapable of forming criminal intent.

42
Q

fit to stand trial

A

the ability of an accused person to understand the nature of the charges against them and to participate in their defense. This involves an investigation of an accused’s mental capacity at the time of trial.

43
Q

intoxication

A

similar to automatism and mental disorder because they are concerned with the accused’s state of mind. It is possible for an individual to be so intoxicated that they have no idea what their body is doing yet physically capable of harming someone. Thus, the voluntary nature of the accused’s actions come into question.

44
Q

manslaughter

A

the killing of another person without intent to cause death but with general intent to do the unlawful act and cause the victims death.

45
Q

mistake of law

A

Sec 19 of the criminal code states that mistakes of law are not an excuse for committing a criminal act.

46
Q

doctrine of the colour of right

A

a defense against the charges of theft or damage when the accused has a reasonable and honest belief that he or she has a right to the property in question. This exception occurs because the purpose of criminal law is to punish moral blameworthy conduct.

47
Q

mistake of fact

A

defense based on a lack of mens rea. The knowledge of both the consequences of one’s actions and the surrounding circumstances that makes one’s action a crime is not present.

48
Q

self defense

A

type of defense that exists out of the recognition that while there may have been a guilty act and guilty mind present in a person’s conduct, thereby technically making the conduct criminal, there may have also been an overriding purpose served by the conduct that would excuse it or justify it.

49
Q

compulsion/ duress

A

a threat that makes people commit a crime they would not have otherwise done. It is similar to self defense because it involves excusing otherwise criminal conduct on the basis of an overriding social good.

50
Q

disclosure

A

requires parties to automatically share routine evidentiary information that would otherwise be available during discovery.