Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Sgt. Exam - Definitions > Definitions > Flashcards

Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

Assistive/Prosthetic Device

Device means a device used to replace, compensate for, or improve the __________ of people with _______________ or ___________. Assistive device includes a broad range of items such as mobility and visual/hearing aids, orthotics/prosthetics, speech devices, medical supplies, environmental controls and respiratory devices. Prosthetics used to express gender identity include: breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penises and wigs.

A

functional abilities disabilities or for trans or gender diverse persons to affirm gender identity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Disability means:

any degree of _______ , infirmity, malformation or disfigurement that is caused by bodily injury, birth defect or illness and, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, includes diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, a brain injury, any
degree of paralysis, amputation, lack of physical co-ordination, blindness or visual impediment, deafness or hearing impediment, muteness or speech impediment, or __________ on a guide dog or other animal or on a wheelchair or other remedial appliance or device;
a condition of mental impairment or a developmental disability;
a learning disability, or a dysfunction in one or more of the processes involved in understanding or using symbols or spoken language;
a mental disorder, or;
an injury or disability for which benefits were claimed or received under the insurance plan established under the Workplace Safety and Insurance Act; (“handicap”).

A

physical disability physical reliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gender

The set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, people, _________ and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both or _________

A

non-binary people neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Items of religious significance

means any item, article, apparel, or clothing a person identifies as having ___________

A

religious importance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Non-binary gender

Non-binary gender _________ of the expected binary of men and women

A

identities outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Member

Prisoner Care & Control for the purposes of prisoner transportation, care and control,
includes a _________, ___________ and ____________

A

police officer, court officer, and custodial officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Service Members Perception Data
means information derived from a member making a determination with respect to the ____ of an individual by observation, solely on the basis of that member’s own ___________

A

race perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sex
the classification of people as male, female or _______ based on a specific combination of reproductive organs, chromosomes and hormones and assigned at birth based on observation of a person’s ________

A

intersex genitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Trans
Trans: is an umbrella term referring to people with diverse gender identities and expressions that differ from their assigned sex at birth. It includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at birth who knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man), non-binary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider ________. Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents that reflect their lived identity.

A

two-spirit to be a trans identity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Booking Hall System (BHS)
means a video surveillance system installed in the __________ and other areas of a police facility that is designed to record the booking and release of all prisoners as they enter and leave a police facility. The BHS is operated manually by the booking officer. (Booking video )

A

sally–port, booking hall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Court Cells
means cells used during those hours in which the _________ . A person shall be lodged in a court cell when:
 being held for a court appearance;
 awaiting transportation to a detention facility;
 ordered into custody by the court.

A

courts are sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Designated Operator
for the purposes persons in custody means any member designated as an ___________ with an understanding of how to operate the equipment.

A

audio/video operator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Detention Area Monitoring System (DAMS)

means a video surveillance system installed in the ___________ of a police facility, such as the cells and the bullpen, which is designed to monitor and record the condition of prisoners while they are in custody. The DAMS is set to automatically record each cell and bullpen when activity is detected. (Cell Video)

A

prisoner detention areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Detention Facility

means any __________ and/or booking hall

A

central lock–up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Divisional Cells
means cells that may be used for ____________ of a person in custody when:
• being processed, or waiting to be processed, or to ensure the safety of the person and/or members;
• awaiting transportation to a central lock–up;
• being held for return by an outside agency.

A

xshort term detention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lock up

means an _________ used to detain a person in custody:

A

assigned division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Police Cells

means divisional cells, central lock–ups and court cells used for the secure detention of persons in custody. An __________ is not a police cell.

A

interview room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Police Vehicle
Prisoner Transportation for the purposes of prisoner transportation, includes marked and unmarked vehicle owned or operated by the Service, that has the capacity to transport a driver and __ or more passengers.

A

two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Valuable Property

means money, jewellery and other items that may make a prisoner the target of ____________

A

theft or robbery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Abandoned Property
means a thing over which a person has surrendered any __________ or privacy right and which may or may not relate to a crime and/or crime scene and which potentially has some evidentiary value

A

possessory right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Affiant means

a police officer who swears to an __________, commonly used when requesting a search warrant before a Justice

A

affidavit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Case Manager means
a police officer assigned to prepare and manage a case for _______ . A case manager is assigned for each Confidential Crown Envelope (crown envelope) and designated in accordance with established unit policy.

A

trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Common Informant the purposes of court disclosure means
a divisional warrant officer, or an on-duty designate, or a __________ who is a sworn peace officer, during the lawful execution of their duties

A

court officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Continued Detention means

the detention of property beyond the initial ___ months from the date of seizure

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Exhibits Officer means

a police officer delegated to seize all property, commonly used when a ______ is executed.

A

search warrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Forfeiture Order means

an Order prepared and signed by a Justice to authorize the _____ of seized property by the Public Prosecution Service of Canada (PPSC) and/or the Ministry of the Attorney General (MAG).

A

disposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Found Property means

any property which was located by a member or a citizen and turned over to a member, and the item (at the time) has no apparent _______ value.

A

evidentiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Informational Material means

information obtained from a thing that is ________

A

seized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Justice means

a Justice of the Peace or a Provincial Court _______

A

Judge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Peace Officer – Report to Justice for the purposes of filing a Report to Justice means
a police officer, or a ______ who is a sworn peace officer

A

court officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Property means

any article and/or document found by, seized by, __________ to, or intended to be surrendered to a Service member

A

surrendered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Seized Property means
a thing, including informational material, seized from a person and/or place, with or without a warrant, by a peace officer without that person’s _______

A

consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Seizing Officer means

a peace officer who has seized property, either with or without a search warrant, and includes a _________ during the lawful execution of their duties

A

court officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Surrendered Property means

any article, document, informational material and/or thing whose possession has been ________ given to a member and the item (at that time) may or may not have

A

voluntarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Child means

any person under the age of ___ years.

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
Electronic Mail (email) means 
a system of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in which a computer user can compose and send a message, with or without attached files, from one terminal that can be regenerated at the recipient's terminal when the recipient logs in. The Toronto Police Service (Service) has an internal e–mail and an external e–mail database. The internal e–mail database allows authorized users to send and receive messages within the Service. The external e–mail database allows authorized users to send and receive messages over the Internet
A

world–wide electronic communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
Homicide Investigation means
an investigation led by Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) into the circumstances surrounding a sudden death where there is:
obvious or  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ foul play,
the cause of death cannot be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
found human \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_,
any other  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ circumstance.
A

suspected
explained
remains
suspicious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Intimate Partner means

a partner from a __________ intimate relationship.

A

current or former

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Intimate Relationship
includes current or former ________ between opposite sex and same sex partners and include persons who:
are legally married to one another; were previously married to one another; are not married, but are currently in a family–type relationship are not married, but were formerly in a family–type relationship; have a child in common regardless of whether such persons have been married or lived together are (or have ever been) involved in a dating relationship.

A

relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

AMBER Alert means

a co–operative effort between to provide early notification to the public where a person under __ years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstances lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive information about the _______, _______ and/or __________ to believe an immediate broadcast alert will help in locating the person. An AMBER Alert will have a duration of __ hours following activation, unless cancelled or extended

A

police, the media and the Ministry of Transportation
18
abducted person, and/or the abductor, and/or the abductor’s vehicle
5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Divisional Search Box means

a portable ________ containing the necessary items essential to the supervisory officer at the scene of a Level 2 or Level 3 search. These items shall be determined by Procedure 04–05 and established practice, and should be located where it is easily accessible by the Officer in Charge

A

storage box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Incident Commander means
the _________ who has taken charge of the incident and who is in charge at the Command Post and, in conjunction with other emergency services commanders, is responsible for coordinating and managing police response at an incident.

A

police officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Last Known Position means

the last _______________ (by ___ or ___) position that the missing person was known to be.

A

substantiated (by clues or evidence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Level 1 Missing Person Search means
the level of search implemented when a person is reported missing and there are ______________ . At this level, there are minimal concerns regarding the issue of foul play or the infirmity or limitations of the missing person.

A

no extenuating circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Level 2 Missing Person Search means
the level of search when a missing person is:
 under ___ years and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves;
 mentally challenged;
 over ___ years of age or infirm, or;
 there is evidence of foul play.

A

16, 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Level 3 Missing Person Search means

the level of search implemented when the Level 1 and Level 2 missing person searches are _______ or if the situation, due to the extenuating circumstances, necessitates that this level be initiated immediately

A

ineffective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Major Case Manager means
the investigator responsible for the effective governance and management of every ___________ and possesses the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the functions of Major Case Management. The Major Case Manager shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course or equivalent as defined by the Ontario Police College, and; shall have the resources to manage investigations through the minister–approved software, currently known as PowerCase.

A

threshold major case investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Missing Person – means
a person where both the following circumstances exist with respect to the person: The persons _______ are unknown and,
the person has not been in _______ with people who would likely be in contact with the person,
or
it is reasonable in the circumstances to _______ for the person’s safety because of the circumstances surrounding the person’s absence or because of any other prescribed considerations.
A member of a police force is unable to _________ the person after making reasonable efforts to do so.

A

whereabouts
contact
fear
locate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Missing Persons Search Page means
a _____ located on the ______ used to publish information and pictures regarding missing persons investigations that have proceeded to a Level 3 search

A

web page Service Internet site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) means
the national centre created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile _______________ . The Toronto Police Service supports the centre and officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of missing persons and unidentified remains.

A

data on missing persons and unidentified remains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

National Missing Children’s Operations (NMCO) means
the national registry created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to _______________ . The Toronto Police Service supports the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of both parental and non–parental abduction.

A

compile data on missing and abducted children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Non–Parental Abduction means
the unlawful removal of a child by a person other than a parent, guardian, or person having ______ or charge of the child.

A

lawful care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Parental Abduction means
the unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or any other person having _______ or charge of a person under the age of _____ whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person

A

lawful care

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Place Last Seen means

a point where the missing person was actually seen by a _________ .

A

witness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Primary Investigator means
the investigator assigned by the Major Case Manager in every __________ investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College

A

threshold major case .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Search Management Team means
the team from ____________, supported by the requesting division, responsible for co–ordinating a Level 3 search for a missing person.

A

Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Search Manager means

the police officer in charge of

A

Emergency Management & Public Order – Search Management Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Unit means

a section of the Service as designated by the Board, such as a _____, ________, ________ or __________

A

field headquarter, division, bureau or squad.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Controller – Regulated Interactions means

the member of the Service, designated by the _________, who assesses procedural compliance of Regulated Interaction Reports, once they have been approved or restricted by a Supervisory Officer. The Controller – Regulated Interaction Reports is also responsible for fulfilling the role of subject matter resource for Supervisory Officers;
ï‚· preparing a report to the Unit Commander of the Toronto Police College every _____ months that outlines the results of all reviews undertaken specific to Regulated Interaction Reports; and
ï‚· monitoring and reporting on any changes or amendments to legislation or Service Governance which may be relevant to training specific to Regulated Interactions

A

Chief of Police

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Historical Contact Data means
all Person Investigated Card (Form 172), Field Information Report (Form 208), Community Inquiry Report (Form 306), and Community Safety Note (Street Check) records submitted into the Service’s records management systems prior to _________ and may include any
such submitted record whether or not it would have been categorized as a Regulated Interaction Report had it been submitted on or after ________

A

January 1, 2017,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Identifying Information means
any information that, alone or in combination with other information, can be used to __________. It may include information about an individual’s , age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, marital or family status, economic circumstances, and education, medical, psychiatric, psychological, criminal or employment history

A

identify an individual race

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Regulated Interaction means
an attempt by a police officer to __________ by asking an individual, in a _______ encounter, to ____ himself or herself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual, and includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected only if that attempt is done for the purpose of,
- inquiring into offences that ____________ and/or
- inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or
- gathering information for intelligence purposes;
ï‚· but does not include an attempted collection made by a police officer for the purpose of investigating an offence the officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed; and does not include an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information from an individual if,
- the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer;
- the individual is under arrest or is being detained;
- the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;
- the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or
- the individual from whom the police officer attempts to collect information is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to the carrying out of the police officer’s duties.

A

collect identifying information face-to-face , identify , have been or might be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Restricted is a
classification which applies to Historical Contact Data and may apply to Regulated Interaction Reports for which the Service has instituted constraints that prevent access to the record unless:
ï‚· approved by the _________ or _______; and
ï‚· access is needed:
- for the purpose of an ongoing police investigation;
- in connection with legal proceedings or anticipated legal proceedings;
- for the purpose of dealing with a complaint under Part V of the PSA or for the purpose of an investigation or inquiry under clause 25 (1)(a) of the PSA;
- in order to prepare the annual report described in subsection 14 (1) or the report required under section 15 of
O. Reg. 58/16;
- for the purpose of complying with a legal requirement; or
- for the purpose of evaluating a police officers performance.

A

Chief of Police, or designate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority means
a member of the _____ of on-call Toronto Police Service _______ that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf of the .

A

cadre uniform senior officers Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Death in Custody means
the death of a person at any time during an _________ and before the person’s release or transfer to another agency’s custody.

A

arrest/detention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Special Investigations Unit (SIU) Mandate means
that the SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted into
any incident in which any of the following occurs, if the incident may have resulted from the of a _______ Service the death of a person the serious injury of a person the discharge of a firearm at a person the sexual assault of a person, as reported by the person.

A

criminal conduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted if, at the time of the incident,
ï‚· the ___ was _____ ; or
ï‚· the ___ was _____ but
engaged in the investigation, pursuit, detention or arrest of a person or otherwise exercised the powers of a police officer, special constable, peace officer or other prescribed person, as the case may be, whether or not the official intended to exercise such powers or identified him or herself as a person who may exercise such powers, or the incident involved ______ or other property issued to the official in relation to his or her duties.

A

official on duty
official off-duty
equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Community Patrol means

the performance of general policing duties in the ______ by officers assigned to a combination of ____ and _____ patrol, targeted and problem oriented policing initiatives

A

community general and directed .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Community Police Liaison Committee (CPLC)

means a divisional ____ that represents all segments of the _______ .

A

committee community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Crime Analysis means

a set of systematic, analytical processes directed at providing timely and pertinent information relative to ______ and _______ . It assists operational and administrative personnel in planning the deployment of resources for the prevention and suppression of criminal activities, aiding in the investigative process, and increasing apprehensions and the clearance of cases.

A

crime patterns and trend correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Crime Prevention means

the anticipation, recognition and appraisal of a _____ followed by the initiation of some action to remove or reduce the risk, and the _______ and evaluation of the outcome.

A

crime risk measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Debriefing means

the process by which persons in custody will be asked if they wish to provide on other crimes including, but not limited to the divisional crime problems established as priorities

A

information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Directed Patrol means

a ________ designed to address an _______ concern within the community. Directed patrols are activities detailed to officers in order to have ________ tasks carried out. This form of patrol may be enforcement–based but may also be focused on achieving a goal by other means. Directed patrol can be an effective component in the maintenance of public order and improving the quality of life for the community.

A

specific activity identified specific measurable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

General Patrol means
_______ policing activities carried out by officers within a specified area. General patrol is an important part of community policing that does not specifically focus on or target an identified concern within the community, but permits officers to accomplish their general policing duties in a non–focused manner

A

routine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Order Maintenance means
the act of upholding _________, using both informal community activities and law enforcement to ________ , and an improved quality of life.

A

community standards, create a safer environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Problem in reference to Crime and Disorder Management means
an issue dealing with public disorder or crime that has been identified by either
ï‚· the ______ (through analysis), or
ï‚· by members of the _______
Problem Oriented Policing means a technique by which public disorder and crime issues are identified, analyzed, and strategies are developed to eliminate or bring the issues under control.

A

police

community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Quality of Life means
an actual or perceived social, economic and physical environment, which is conducive to a state of _______ and _______. When applied to neighbourhoods or communities, it means that there is little disorder or anti–social activity, permitting local community members to go about their daily activities with minimal fear or disruption

A

mental and physical well–being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Self-Initiated Patrol means
patrol or enforcement action targeting a specific area or problem, that is ______ by an officer, without previous ______ from a supervisor. The area of the self–initiated patrol may be based on trends derived through crime analysis

A

undertaken direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Senior Management Team (SMT) includes

the _____, Command Officers, Staff Superintendents and Directors, and any other member as determined by the ________

A

Chief of Police,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Target Policing means

the targeting of offenders or offences within a specific _____ and/or a specific _______ area.

A

time period geographic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Agent means
a person who acts on _____ of the police and under their _____ , which may result in them becoming a material and compellable witness. The identity of the agent is subject to disclosure.

A

behalf direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Confidential Source (Source) means
a person who is registered with Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS) and voluntarily provides information of some _______ to the Toronto Police Service with respect to the _______ and _______ of crimes, with the explicit or implicit expectation of _______. This person would generally not become a witness or require protection as a result of their involvement or the information they have provided.
A confidential source is an asset of the Toronto Police Service and is not the exclusive asset of any one police officer.
A confidential source does not include a person who provides a statement to police as part of routine police inquiries into alleged offences; e.g. a witness to a crime.
There are two levels of confidential sources: Confidential Source – Level 1 and Confidential Source – Level 2

A

usefulness or interest prevention and detection confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Confidential Source – Level 1 means

a confidential source who is not a Confidential Source – ______

A

Level 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Confidential Source – Level 2 means
a source under the age of ___ (young person), or
ï‚· a source whose information could be considered:
ï‚· ____________
ï‚· may affect national ________;
ï‚· involves ______ crime;
ï‚· is beyond the resources or the source handling abilities of the officers involved;
ï‚· at the discretion of the _________
Unless otherwise approved by the Controller, a confidential source – level 2 shall be managed by a _____________

A 
multi-jurisdictional;
security
organized
Controller.
Handler – Level 2.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Controller – Source means
_____________________ who ensures the effective control, accountability and evaluation of the source, continually assessing the risks and managing all information provided by the source. The Controller – Source is responsible for the Source Management Program of the Toronto Police Service

A

the Detective Sergeant – Intelligence Services – Covert Operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Crown Letter – Source means
a document provided to the crown attorney by Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS) on behalf of a source seeking consideration for that source’s assistance to the police
All crown letters issued on behalf of a source shall only be provided by the . ______________

A

Unit Commander – Intelligence Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Handler means
a police officer who has received __________ and who has been so designated by the Controller or designate. A handler, on behalf of the Toronto Police Service, is responsible for the: development of a source
integrity of any contact
acquisition and dissemination of information received from the source.

A

information from a source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Handler – Level 1 means

any police officer from the Toronto Police Service who can handle _______ sources only.

A

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Handler – Level 2 means

any police officer from the Toronto Police Service who has been accredited and designated by the _______ or designate. A handler – level 2 can manage __________ . For the purposes of agents, a handler – level 2 is also responsible for:
the management of ____ on behalf of the Service considering the primary concerns
the acquisition and dissemination of information from that _____.

A

Controller, agents, and level 1 and level 2 sources, agents, agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Restricted Source means
a person who has been restricted by Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS). Such a person shall not be used as such by any officer unless designated by the __________

A

Controller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Child means

a person younger than __

A

18.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q 
Homicide Investigation means
an investigation led by Detective Operations – Homicide (Homicide) into the circumstances surrounding a sudden death where there is
 obvious or suspected \_\_\_\_ play
 the cause of death cannot be \_\_\_\_\_
 found human \_\_\_\_\_\_
 any other \_\_\_\_\_\_ circumstance.
A

foul
explained
remains
suspicious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Infant means

a child less than ___ year of age.

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) means
the sudden death of an infant under ___ year of age, which remains ______ after a thorough investigation which must include a complete autopsy, examination of the death scene, a police investigation and a review of the child’s clinical history.

A

one unexplained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Financial Institution means

any bank, trust and loan company, or ________

A

credit union.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Global Positioning System (GPS) Tracking Device in reference to hold–ups, means
a ________ used primarily by the pharmaceutical and financial industries to assist with the apprehension of suspects and recovery of stolen property when a hold–up has occurred.

A

tracking device

97
Q

Hold-Up (HUS) Mandate
HUS will take charge and attend all robberies that fall within their mandate including: financial institutions; armoured cars; retail business; home invasions committed with firearms or offensive weapons, money deposits, and ________ committed with ____________

A

carjacking’s firearms or offensive weapons

98
Q

Bona Fide Reasons means
ï· a victim or witness who may possibly require or may seek admission into the Provincial Witness Protection Program;
ï‚· a Crown Attorney is requesting information for disclosure purposes;
ï‚· the information is necessary to prove essential elements of an offence, or;
ï‚· investigations where the circumstances make it clear that it is essential to public or officer safety and security to ascertain ____________ of a victim or witness.

A

the immigration status

99
Q

Child in Need of Protection means
a child that can be apprehended as being in need of protection as defined in s.125 (1) of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.
 _______ as defined in subsection 222(4), Criminal Code, and attempts;
 ________ and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching);
 ________ as defined in section 279.01, 279.011 or 279.04, Criminal Code, and attempts as defined in section 24(1) Criminal Code;
 occurrences involving non-familial _______ and attempts;
 ________ occurrences, as outlined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual;
 occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains;
 _________ cases in which the offender is not known to the victim; and,
 any other types of cases designated as a major case pursuant to this Ontario Major Case Management Manual.

A 
homicides
sexual assaults
trafficking in persons
abductions
missing person 
criminal harassment -NOT KNOWN to the victim
100
Q

Domestic Incident means
any incident between persons involved in an ___________ where, although no criminal offence has occurred, police have been called to the scene

A

intimate relationship.

101
Q

Domestic Occurrence means
an occurrence report created to detail behaviour and/or a breach of any statute related to a domestic situation and includes an arrest report. (excludes a Domestic Incident Report).

A

criminal

102
Q 
Domestic Violence means
any physical, sexual or psychological harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved in an intimate relationship including:
ï‚· assault;
ï‚· murder;
ï‚· sexual assault;
ï‚· threatening;
ï‚· harassment;
ï‚· intimidation;
ï‚· unlawful interference with personal liberty;
ï‚· any other criminal offence;
ï‚· offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children's Law Reform Act, etc.;
ï‚· but does not include  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

child abuse investigations.

103
Q

Domestic Violence Investigator (DVI) means
an investigator qualified in the investigations of _________ as prescribed in Police Services Act, O.Reg. 3/99, Adequacy & Effectiveness of Police Services and the Policing Standards Manual

A

domestic violence

104
Q

Dominant Aggressor means
the individual who has been the principal ______ , and not necessarily the person who _______ the violence that resulted in the attendance of police.

A

abuser initiated

105
Q

Firearms Interest Police (FIP) means
initiated within the Canadian Police Information Centre (CPIC) system that contains information from local police agencies, which could affect an individual’s eligibility to be issued or to continue to hold a Section 5 of the Firearms Act indicates the types of offences/incidents which justify a FIP.

A

database, firearms licence.

106
Q

Victim means a person to whom harm was done or who suffered ______ or ______ loss as a result of the commission of the offence; and
 where the person described in paragraph (a) is dead, ill or otherwise incapable of making a statement referred to in subsection (1), includes the spouse or common-law partner or any relative of that person, anyone who has in law or fact the custody of that person or is responsible for the care or support of that person or any dependant of that person

A

physical or emotional

107
Q

Victim Quick Response Program means a program administered by ________ that provides quick ________ to victims of homicide, attempted murder, serious physical assault, domestic violence, sexual assault and hate crime in the immediate aftermath of a crime.

A

Victim Services Toronto financial assistance

108
Q

Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) means
the program operated by the_______ Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as domestic violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime. Families of _______ victims are also eligible. Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded.

A

Ontario Ministry of the Attorney General

traffic fatality

109
Q

Divisional Investigator means
an officer assigned to a ________ office. In reference to sexual assault investigations means an officer assigned to a divisional investigative unit who is not accredited to investigate complaints of sexual assault

A

divisional detective

110
Q

Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator means

an officer assigned to a divisional investigative unit who is accredited to investigate complaints of _________[

A

sexual assault.

111
Q

Sexual Assault Care Centre (SACC) means

a medical care centre designated for the treatment and examination of victims of ___________

A

sexual assault.

112
Q

Supervisory Officer means

a police officer assigned to _______ other members, either temporarily or permanently.

A

oversee

113
Q

Trafficking in Persons means
the offence committed by a person who recruits, transports, transfers, receives, holds, conceals or harbours a person, or exercises control, direction or influence over the movements of a person, for the purpose of exploiting them or facilitating their exploitation also known as _____________

A

(also known as Human Trafficking).

114
Q

Violent Crime Linkage Analysis System (ViCLAS) means the national database operated by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) for the purpose of ___________________ across Canada

A

linking occurrences of designated offences

115
Q

Child Abuse
no person having charge of a child shall
inflict abuse ________, _______ or ________ on the child; or‚·
by failing to care and provide for or supervise and protect the child adequately,
- permit the child to suffer abuse or
- permit the child to suffer from a mental, emotional or development condition that, if not remedied, could serioiusly impair the child’s development

A

physical, sexual or sexual exploitation

116
Q

Child Physical Abuse
where the circumstances could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or render the child in need of protection under the Child, Youth and Family Services Act, and where the alleged abuser (whether adult or child) has responsibility for the care of the child victim. Child Physical Abuse refers to an offence where a child is victimized by an abuser and includes all of the following:
ï‚· physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under __ years of age and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of __________;
ï‚· _______ when the victim is under the age of ___ years of age;
ï‚· occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended
ï‚· ____ when the victim is under the age of ___ years and the suspect is a caregiver, parent, or person in a position of trust or authority
ï‚ _______ when the victim is under the age of __ years and there are clear developmental differences between the victim and the suspect

A

18, trust or authority
abductions 16
homicides 18
physical offences 18

117
Q 
Child Sexual Abuse means
the use of a child by an adult for sexual purposes, whether or not consent is alleged to have been given, which could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or could place a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  under the Child, Youth and Family Services Act. Child sexual abuse can include:
ï‚· incest;
ï‚· acts of exposure;
ï‚· sexual touching;
ï‚· sexual intercourse;
ï‚· sexual molestation;
ï‚· inappropriate sexual language;
ï‚· sexual harassment;
ï‚· exhibitionism;
ï‚· exploitation of child for pornography or prostitution
A

child in need of protection

118
Q

Designated Child Abuse Investigator means
a specially trained police officer who is responsible for the criminal investigation of child _____ and ______ abuse cases.

A

sexual and physical

119
Q

Designated Children’s Aid Society Worker means
a trained Children’s Aid Society specialist who is responsible for the child ______ investigation and the _________ of the child.

A

protection

120
Q

Team (Child Abuse Investigation) means
a designated ________ and a ________ specialist, who shall conduct interviews together and communicate at every stage of the investigation.

A

Child Abuse Investigator Children’s Aid Society

121
Q

Hate/Bias Crime means
a criminal offence committed against a ______ or _______ that is motivated by hate, bias, or prejudice based on the victim’s ____, national or ethnic origin, language, colour, religion, sex, age, mental or physical disability, sexual orientation, or ____ identity or expression, or on any other similar factor.

A

person or property, race, gender

122
Q

Hate Propaganda means any communication that advocates or promotes _______ against any ______ group or makes statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability.
______ genocide and wilful promotion of hatred require the permission of the _______ to proceed with prosecution.
Public _____ of hatred does not require the consent of the ______
_________ will liaise with the _________ and advise the respective detective office when a decision by the _______ has been made concerning the commencement of legal proceedings in cases of hate propaganda.

A

genocide identifiable
Advocate ,Attorney General
incitement Attorney General.
Intelligence Services Hate Crime Ministry of the Attorney General

123
Q

Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) means

the part of the Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force – Firearms Enforcement Unit, responsible for the verification, _______ and tracing of all seized firearms and related components including crime scene evidence. FIAU consists of _______ who testify in all levels of court, as required. The unit can also assist with expert opinion with respect to video/image analysis and coded language investigations

A

testing firearm experts

124
Q

Firearms Enforcement Unit (FEU) means a section of Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force, responsible for investigations into incidents of firearms ______ and _______

A

trafficking and smuggling

125
Q 
Illegally Possessed Firearm means
any firearm that
ï‚· is not  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  in Canada, or
ï‚· has been reported stolen, or
ï‚· is being unlawfully possessed, or
ï‚· is used in a crime, or
ï‚· is suspected to have been used in a crime.
A

legally registered

126
Q

Elder and Vulnerable Adult Abuse means
any ____ or _____ , that harms or threatens to harm the health or well–being of an elderly person or vulnerable adult by a person in a ____________ . This includes physical/sexual abuse, psychological abuse, financial abuse, neglect or any combination thereof.

Elderly for the purposes of Procedure 05–22 means a person over the age of ___ .

A

action, or inaction

a position of trust or authority 65

127
Q

Harm means abuse ____ (includes _____ abuse), _____ abuse, _____ abuse, neglect or any combination thereof.

A

physical sexual psychological financial

128
Q

Incapable means
a person unable to _________ manage their day–to–day affairs due to _______ impairment, thus making them vulnerable to abuse

A

independently , cognitive

129
Q

Vulnerable Adult means
any adult who by nature of a physical, emotional or psychological condition is _______ on other persons for care and assistance in ______ living

A

dependent day–to–day

130
Q

Disorderly means behaviour that appears to the police to be “to some extent ______ although not _____”.

A

irrational unruly

131
Q

Divisional Mental Health Liaison Officer means
the police officer responsible for coordinating all Mental Health Act issues within the division; usually the _______________

A

Community Relations Officer.

132
Q

Emotionally Disturbed Person (EDP) includes any person who appears to be in a state of crisis or any person who is mentally disordered
Emotionally Disturbed Person (EDP) includes any person who appears to be in a _______ or any person who is ________

A

state of crisis mentally disordered

133
Q

Form 1 MHA means
an Application by ______ for Psychiatric Assessment signed by a doctor within ___ days of examining the person, giving ____ authority to take the person named on the application to a psychiatric facility. A Form 1 is valid for ___ days from and including the day it was signed.

A

Physician 7 any person 7

134
Q

Form 2 MHA means
a _______ Order for Examination directing police officers to take the person in custody to an appropriate ______ where a physician may order the person detained for examination. A Form 2 is valid for __ days from and including the day it was signed.

A

Justice of the Peace psychiatric facility 7

135
Q

Form 9 MHA means
an Order for Return of an ______ issued by a _______ which authorizes a police officer to return the person without their consent to the psychiatric facility. A Form 9 is valid for a period of _____ after the person is absent without leave.

A

elopee psychiatric facility 1 month

136
Q

Form 47 MHA means
an Order for Examination issued by the _______ who issued the person a Community Treatment Order (CTO) and
a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO
b) the CTO subject or substitute decision maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit the physician to review their condition within ___ hours and the ______ believes the subject may cause harm or suffer deterioration.
A Form 47 authorizes a police officer to take that person into custody and return them to the physician promptly and is valid for a period of ___ days.

A

physician 72 30

137
Q

Mental Disorder means
any _____ or ______ of the mind.

A person suffering from a mental disorder may have to live with a long–term breakdown of coping skills including perception, decision making and problem solving abilities

A

disease or disability

138
Q

Person in Crisis means
a person who suffers a _________ of coping skills but often reaches out for help, demonstrating that they are in touch with reality. Once a person in crisis receives the needed help, there is often a rapid return to normalcy.

A

temporary breakdown

139
Q

Physician means

a legally qualified _____ practitioner.

A

medical

140
Q

Psychiatric Facility means
a facility for the observation, care and treatment of persons suffering from a ________ and designated as such by the regulation contained in the Mental Health Act.

A

mental disorder

141
Q

Blue Card means
a motor vehicle certificate issued by the __________ to members who have a valid driver’s licence under the Highway Traffic Act and meet Service standards authorizing them to drive specific classes of Service vehicles.

A

Unit Commander – Toronto Police College

142
Q

Driving Assessment means

a practical, on–the–road driving assessment conducted by the divisional _________ or _________ , as applicable

A

Traffic sergeant, or Traffic Services sergeant

143
Q

Intentional Contact means
when a Toronto Police Service vehicle operated by a member _________ comes into contact with another vehicle, person or object thus using the vehicle as a tool to stop a threat.

A

intentionally

144
Q

Marked Vehicle means
a Service vehicle used primarily by uniformed officers that
ï‚· is clearly marked with Toronto Police Service decals along with the word police and is equipped with visible _______ from 360 degrees and has a forward-facing electronic siren
ï‚· meets the minimum requirements as set out in the Highway Traffic Act for an emergency vehicle, as well as Ontario Regulation 926 and Policing Standards Manual (Adequacy Standards)for general patrol vehicle

A

visible emergency lights

145
Q

Reportable Collision means
every person operating a motor vehicle or streetcar involved directly or indirectly in a collision that results in personal injury, death, or property damage exceeding ______ , is required to report and furnish information forthwith to the nearest police officer in accordance with the Highway Traffic Act.

A

$2000

146
Q

Service Vehicle means
any vehicle, vessel, aircraft or ________ or operated by the Service and used to perform duties on behalf of the Service. This includes vehicles leased, owned, or rented by or loaned to the Service, or a _____ which is towed by a Service vehicle.

A

bicycle owned Service trailer

147
Q

Service Vehicle Collision (SVC) means

a vehicle collision involving a Toronto Police Service vehicle where involvement is ____ or _____

A

direct or indirect

148
Q

Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Committee (SVCRC) means
a panel consisting of, but not limited to, the ________ and/or Designate from:
1. _________
2. _________
3. __________
with the mandate to monitor Toronto Police Service vehicle collisions for trend analysis, problem identification, quality assurance and training issues, and report its findings to the _______.

A

Unit Commander
 Professional Standards Support
 Traffic Services
 Toronto Police College

Chief of Police

149
Q

Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Program (SVCR Program) means
a program managed by _________ which monitors Toronto Police Service vehicle _______ for trend analysis, problem identification, quality assurance and training issues.

A

Professional Standards Support collisions

150
Q

Service Vehicle Collision Report (SVCR) means
a report consisting of:
 _________
 a copy of the traffic officer’s memorandum book notes and/or field notes
 witness statements, if applicable
 a copy of the involved member’s memorandum book notes or TPS 649
 a TPS 559

A

a SRLD401

151
Q

Unmarked Vehicle means
any vehicle owned or operated by the Toronto Police Service (Service) _______ the identifying decals of the Service or emergency lighting system. It includes motor vehicles leased, owned or rented by or loaned to the Service. Most unmarked vehicles are equipped with a hand operated identification lamp bearing the words __________

A

without “POLICE-STOP”

152
Q

Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator means
the member designated by the EFAP Committee to:
liaise with
- the _____ and its ____ ,
- the Toronto Police Operations Centre, Officer in Charge and/or unit commander, and the CIRT/Peer Support Volunteers (PSVs), and;
- work with CIRT/PSVs, the EFAP provider, and/or Psychological Services to coordinate sessions _____ and _______

A

EFAP provider CIRT

defusing and debriefing

153
Q

Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) Provider means

the ____ EFAP service provider engaged by the Service

A

external

154
Q

Family – Employee and Family Assistance Program for the purposes of using the services of the Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) provider includes:
ï‚· a spouse or partner from a same sex or opposite sex relationship;
ï‚· ___________

A

dependent children

155
Q

Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) means
the team consisting of _________ coordinated through the Service to respond to incidents where critical incident stress may occur and to assist members and their families to cope after becoming involved in a _______ . CIRT members are trained in trauma response measures and are qualified to lead ______ sessions. CIRT members are not _____ .

A

Peer Support Volunteers traumatic critical incident defusing counsellors

156
Q

Critical Incident Stress means

_______ and _______ symptoms experienced by a member as a result of being involved in a ____________ .

A

physical and psychological traumatic critical incident

157
Q

Debriefing Session means
a __________ meeting specifically set up for members directly involved in the ________ to discuss reactions to the traumatic event in confidence with a qualified mental health professional. The debriefing session takes place a ______ after the conclusion of the traumatic critical incident, in a secure location where disruptions can be eliminated and can last up to ____ hours. The Employee Family Assistance Program Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator will work with the Officer in Charge, CIRT Peer Support Volunteer and/or the qualified mental health professional to schedule the session. Attendance is _______ for the members directly involved but active participation in the discussion is _______.
Debriefing sessions may be conducted by a mental health professional assisted by members of the CIRT and are not operational debriefings

A

scheduled formal traumatic critical incident few days 2.5 mandatory voluntary

158
Q

Defusing Session means
an __________ meeting attended by an individual or a group of members involved in a traumatic critical incident to assess the need for further assistance prior to the
_____. The defusing session takes place immediately after the conclusion of the traumatic critical incident in a secure location where disruptions can be eliminated and lasts for approximately ___ to ___ minutes. ___________ normally lead these meetings with Employee Family Assistance Program support if necessary. Attendance is mandatory but active participation in the discussion is voluntary.
Defusing sessions may be conducted by a mental health professional assisted by members of the Critical Incident Response Team and are not operational debriefings.

A

immediate informal end of shift 15 to 30 Two Peer Support Volunteers

159
Q

Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) means
a ______ trained in ______ measures and available on-call to provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical incident. PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek professional treatment, if required

A

Service member trauma response

160
Q

Post Incident Firearm Exposure Session means
a session involving firearm exercises undertaken with a ________ This session does NOT consist of a _______ and is NOT an operational debriefing. Rather, a post incident firearms exposure session consists of an individual course of fire intended to be educational, to provide reassurance, and to promote officers’ _____ with their firearm after an officer-involved shooting incident. The post incident firearms exposure session will take place prior to being returned to full duties after a shooting incident.
Post incident firearms exposure sessions are mandatory for officers who discharge their firearms in the line of duty and officers determined by their ________ to be directly impacted by the incident. However, any officer involved in a shooting incident may request to participate in a post incident firearms exposure session. Post incident firearms exposure sessions do not apply to the discharge of a firearm for the purpose of dispatching an animal, unless circumstances suggest otherwise.

A

qualified firearms instructor qualification standard confidence Unit Commander

161
Q

Referral means the assistance provided by the ________ or ________ to members and their families in locating a community mental health professional or other service suitable to the presenting difficulty

A

Employee and Family Assistance Program provider or Psychological Services

162
Q

Traumatic Critical Incident means any incident during which a member experiences, witnesses, or is confronted with serious injury, death, or mass casualties; any incident in which the member’s life has been imperilled or threatened; or any situation which is recognized at the time to have the potential to significantly interfere immediately or at a later time with a member’s ability to function ________ or ________

A

professionally or personally

163
Q

Cannabis means
any part of a cannabis plant, including the phytocannabinoids produced by or found in such a plant, regardless of whether that part has been processed or not, other than a part of the plant referred to in _______ [of the Cannabis Act
 any substance or mix of substances that contains or has on it any part of a cannabis plant; or
 any substance that is identical to any phytocannabinoid produced by, or found in, such a plant, regardless of how the substance was obtained [including synthetic cannabis products].

A

Schedule 2

164
Q

Health Care Professional

means a member of a College regulated under the

A

Regulated Health Professions Act.

165
Q

Medical Accommodation means
modifying the ____________ or the functions of a position to enable a member needing medically supported accommodation to perform the essential duties of the position or the essential duties of an alternative available position for which the member is qualified.

A

workplace environment

166
Q

Medical Advisor a licenced, qualified _______ engaged by the Toronto Police Service

A

medical practitioner

167
Q 
Restricted Duties (Substance Abuse) for the purposes of a member seeking help for a substance abuse problem, means
work that is modified to permit a member with a disability to work in accordance with limitations imposed by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Medical Advisor – Wellness – Medical Advisory Services

168
Q

Sick Benefits means sick leave accrued in accordance with the relevant _______

A

Collective Agreement.

169
Q

Sickness means an illness/injury that is __work related but which prevents a member from working or completing a tour of duty.

A

not

170
Q

Domestic Violence means any ____, _____ or ______ harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved in an intimate relationship including:
 assault;
 murder;
 sexual assault;
 threatening;
 harassment;
 intimidation;
 unlawful interference with personal liberty;
 any other criminal offence;
 offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children’s Law Reform Act, etc.;
but does not include child abuse investigations

A

physical, sexual or psychological

171
Q

Access means the approach or point of _____ to the scene.

A

entrance

172
Q

Command Post means a place near the scene of an emergency incident where members report for instructions and information. The command post should be located at ________ and near other emergency services command posts.

A

a safe distance

173
Q

Egress means the ____ or way out of the scene.

A

exit

174
Q

Emergency means a situation or an impending situation that constitutes a _____ of major proportions that could result in serious harm to persons or substantial damage to property and that is caused by the forces of nature, a disease or other health risk, an accident or an act whether intentional or otherwise.

A

danger

175
Q

Emergency Operations Centre (EOC) means a facility operated by the City of Toronto specifically established to conduct the overall management of an emergency. The Toronto Police Service is one of many agencies represented. The Toronto EOC is located at ____________

A

703 Don Mills Road, 6th Floor.

176
Q

Emergency Preparedness Committee (EPC) is a committee, chaired by the ,___________ comprised of subject matter experts from every command pillar within the Toronto Police Service (Service). The EPC focus is on mitigation, preparedness planning, response and recovery; ensuring appropriate planning, investigative and response capabilities are available within the Service

A

Staff Superintendent – Public Safety Operations

177
Q

Hold and Secure means that all movement in and out of the school is ______ and external doors locked, however, movement within the school is not ______ as the external danger near the school poses no immediate threat to the students or staff unless they leave the building.

A

restricted

178
Q

Incident Commander means the ________ who has taken charge of the incident and who is in charge at the Command Post and, in conjunction with other emergency services commanders, is responsible for coordinating and managing police response at an incident.

A

police officer

179
Q

Incident Commander Cadre (ICC) means Toronto Police Service ______ who have been trained as incident commanders and are available 24/7 on an on–call basis and may be activated through the Inspector – Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO)

A

Senior Officers

180
Q

Incident Management System (IMS) means the model of police on–site response to _____ and ______ based on the Incident Command System, adopted by the Province of Ontario. The IMS provides the functional infrastructure necessary for the appropriate and efficient use of police resources.

A

emergencies and disasters

181
Q

Incident Management Team (IMT) means Service members trained in ___ whose responsibilities are to attend the command post and manage site operations for Level 2 – Major Incidents and Level 3 – Disaster Incidents. Emergency Management & Public Order maintains a list of qualified team members

A

IMS

182
Q

Level 1 – Emergency Response means
the general response activities and resources to mitigate the situation of any incident. Members respond quickly to the report of an emergency situation to gather information, assess the situation, and determine whether additional members and specialized response is required. Many emergency incidents are resolved within a short period of time, using resources available at the ____ level

A

divisional

183
Q

Level 2 – Major Incident means an emergency incident which ________ a division’s normal operational resources and requires additional support, or multiple agency co–ordination at the site and some degree of external support. Level 2 - Major Incidents may continue for an extended period of time and require a site Command Post and/or the Major Incident Command Centre (MICC).

A

exceeds

184
Q

Level 3 – _____ Incident means an incident that may affect a significant portion of the population, may continue for a long period of time and may require an extensive recovery period. Response to a disaster may require the activation of the Major Incident Command Centre (MICC), the Emergency Operations Centre (EOC), political direction and support, and the official declaration of a disaster in accordance with Municipal Code 59 and the provincial Emergency Management and CivilProtection Act.

A

Disaster

185
Q

Lockdown means that all movement in and out of the school and within the school is ______ as the danger is inside the school or is on school property and poses an immediate threat to the students or staff

A

restricted

186
Q

Major Incident Command Centre (MICC) means the facility specifically established to coordinate the Service’s operational response to a major event or emergency. Emergency Management and Public Order (EM&PO) – Public Safety is tasked by Public Safety Operations with the care, maintenance and oversight of the MICC during operational periods. The MICC is located at Toronto Police ____________. However, it may be temporarily located offsite pending the unique circumstances of the major event or emergency.

A

Headquarters, 40 College Street, 12th Floor

187
Q

Material means a member of __________ who has been authorized by the Unit Commander – Corporate Communications to release information to the media.

A

Corporate Communications

188
Q

Senior Management Team (SMT) includes the Chief of Police, Command Officers, Staff Superintendents and Directors, and any other member as determined by the _________

A

Chief of Police

189
Q

Shelter in Place requires that people enter and remain in a building with the ________ and _______ due to an ___________ threat. Fans, including heating and air conditioning units, should be turned off to prevent air from outside entering the building. Normal operations may continue within the building.

A

doors and windows closed external environmental

190
Q

Staging means a determined ________ where responding personnel and appropriate equipment initially report to await details before entering the emergency site itself

A

off–site location.

191
Q

Toronto Emergency Management Program Committee (TEMPC) means a committee comprised of the Mayor and key representatives from local boards, city agencies, and other agencies and organizations, responsible for the overall management of _______. During these emergencies, this group is collectively responsible for the direction and co–ordination of emergency response operations within the City.

A

Level 3 – Disaster Incidents

192
Q

Unified Command means a ______ of people representing involved agencies with responsibility for the incident, which jointly provide management direction to an incident through a common set of incident objectives and strategies established at the command level.

A

team

193
Q

Incident Commander means the ______ who has taken charge of the incident and who is in charge at the _______ and, in conjunction with other emergency services commanders, is responsible for coordinating and managing police response at an incident

A

police officer Command Post

194
Q

Incident Management System (IMS) means

A

the model of police on–site response to emergencies and disasters based on the Incident Command System, adopted by the Province of Ontario. The IMS provides the functional infrastructure necessary for the appropriate and efficient use of police resources.

195
Q

Level 2 – Major Incident means an emergency incident which exceeds a _______ normal operational resources and requires additional support, or multiple agency co–ordination at the site and some degree
of external support. Level 2 – Major Incidents may continue for an extended period of time and require a site ______ and/or the Major Incident Command Centre (MICC)

A

division’s Command Post

196
Q

Police Explosive Technician means
any police officer who has completed the appropriate training as approved by the ______ to maintain the appropriate knowledge, skills and abilities to perform their work.

A

Chief of Police

197
Q

ETF Tactical Commander means a member of Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force (ETF) who has completed an Incident Commanders Hostage/Barricaded Persons course at the Canadian Police College, or other recognized Police training agency.
Although the Incident Commander has control over all police response at an incident, the Supervisor – ETF will have control of all aspects of ________ In relation to a bomb threat and/or explosion, the Supervisor–Emergency Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) will have control of all aspects of EDU operation

A

ETF tactical operations.

198
Q

Parent Staging Area means a location where parents can initially report to and await details. Usually positioned _____ from the immediate emergency or threat. Ideally separate and exclusive from the emergency responders, equipment and media.

A

off-site

199
Q

45-Day Status Update Form means a form outlining the status of the investigation to the ________________.

A

Office of the Independent Police Review (OIPRD).

200
Q

Alternative Dispute Resolution means mediation, conciliation, negotiation or any other means of facilitating the resolution of issues in dispute by a third party off site meeting.

A
201
Q

Association means Toronto Police Association or the Toronto Police _____________ .

A

Senior Officers’ Organization.

202
Q

Attachments in reference to complaints administration means
___________, other than the TPS 901 or OIPRD form associated to a given complaint, which would include internal correspondence, facsimile, a letter written by the complainant, or any other relevant document

A

correspondence

203
Q

Civilian Member means
any Service employee who is not a _____ , including employees classified as:
ï‚· permanent;
ï‚· temporary;
ï‚· part time;
ï‚· summer help;
ï‚· participants in the cooperative education program

A

police officer

204
Q

Customer Service Resolution means
an Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) process to handle complaints ____ to engaging the screening process. All matters suitable for a Customer Service Resolution will be referred to Professional Standards by the OIPRD. These matters can be resolved by an agreement between all parties in lieu of a complaint being formalized by the OIPRD. No record of a customer service resolution shall be placed in a police officers personnel file.

A

prior

205
Q

External Complaint means
an allegation made by a member of the ______:
 in writing and signed on the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) form; and,
 delivered to any Toronto Police Service (Service) facility or the OIPRD personally or by an agent, by mail, facsimile or by electronic mail (e–mail); and,
 must concern the policies of, or the services provided by the Service or the conduct of a police officer; and,
 classified by the OIPRD.

A

public

206
Q 
Informal Resolution (External) in reference to external complaints means
where the conduct is deemed  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and can be resolved through agreement from all parties after an OIPRD complaint has been lodged.
A

less serious

207
Q

Investigating Supervisor in reference to complaints means a supervisor assigned to investigate a complaint and includes a _________

A

Unit Complaint Co–ordinator (UCC).

208
Q

Investigative Brief means
a brief similar in content to a ______, in that it should be bound, the pages numbered sequentially, and include all video and audio recordings, or other electronic recordings, along with a transcript of same, and should be in a format as defined by Professional Standards Support – Prosecution Services

A

crown brief

209
Q

Less Serious Complaint Allegation means

the conduct is not of a _____ nature.

A

serious

210
Q

Local Inquiry means when a local resolution process has commenced but is not ______ , (e.g., complainant refuses to complete/sign a local resolution form).

A

completed

211
Q

Local Resolution means the agreement that is reached between all parties when an external complaint is made directly to a _____ in lieu of being lodged with the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD). No record of a local resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file.

A

police officer

212
Q

Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) means
an independent civilian agency responsible for receiving, managing and overseeing all _______ about the police in Ontario in accordance with the Police Services Act.

A

public complaints

213
Q

Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) Liaison Officer means a ______ of the Toronto Police Service designated by the _____ to act as the liaison with the OIPRD relating to conduct investigations and adjudications.

A

Senior Officer Chief of Police

214
Q

Ontario Civilian Police Commission (OCPC) means

an independent oversight agency and is the _______ for decisions made at police disciplinary proceedings.

A

appeal body

215
Q

Party to a Complaint includes:
 a person making a ______ under Part V of the Police Services Act
 a police officer who is a witness officer in a complaint filed by a member of the public under Part V of the Police Services Act
 the Chief of Police of the police service to which the complaint relates
or
 in the case of a complaint against the Chief of Police, the ________ of the police service to which the complaint relates, and
 may include any person added as a party by the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD)

A

complaint, Police Services Board

216
Q

Report of Investigation (004-0309 OIPRD) in reference to complaints means a report outlining the circumstances and investigative ____ of a complaint in the prescribed format as defined by the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD).

A

results

217
Q

Respondent Officer means
a police officer who is the subject of a complaint filed by a member of the public under Part V of the Police Services Act, and may include a ______ or _______

A

Chief of Police Deputy Chief of Police

218
Q

Serious Complaint Allegation means a matter that, at the discretion of the ______, is of public interest to be dealt with as a complaint under Part V of the Police Services Act. A serious complaint, if substantiated, must go to a disciplinary hearing.

A

Chief of Police

219
Q

Side Issue in reference to complaints means an issue identified during the course of the investigation concerning the policies or the services provided by the Toronto Police Service or the conduct of a police officer or a civilian member, which is ____ part of the original complaint.

A

not

220
Q

Substantiated in reference to complaints means based on the results of the investigation, there are reasonable grounds to believe the conduct of a police officer or civilian member constitutes _____ .

A

misconduct

221
Q

Unsubstantiated in reference to complaints means
a matter where:
 ______ evidence exists to support the allegation
 evidence exists that, if believed, would not constitute misconduct
 the identification of the police officer involved cannot be established

A

insufficient

222
Q

Prohibited Grounds means the protected grounds under the _______ for which a person cannot discriminate. These include: age, ancestry, citizenship, colour, creed, disability, ethnic origin, family status, gender expression, gender identity, marital status (including single status), place of origin, race, receipt of public assistance (in housing only), record of offences (in employment only), sex (including discrimination based on pregnancy and breastfeeding), and sexual orientation.

A

Ontario Human Rights Code

223
Q

Report of Investigation (Internal) in reference to complaints means
a report outlining the circumstances and investigative results of a complaint in a prescribed format as defined by ____________

A

Professional Standards – Complaints Administration.

224
Q

Subject Officer in reference to complaints means a _____ who is alleged to have engaged in misconduct by an act or omission where a complaint has been made and the officer has been so designated by the investigating supervisor

A

police officer

225
Q

Special Review in reference to work performance means
a ____ process involving an initial interview with the unit commander about management practices and/or accommodation factors, and a second phase that may include heightened monitoring of performance beyond the annual evaluation to improve an individual’s work performance.

A

two–part

226
Q

Sundry Duties means the tasks associated with a primary task defined in a ____ job description that are too numerous to list.

A

civilian

227
Q

Human Rights Tribunal of Ontario (HRTO) means
the independent provincial government agency who receives ________ complaint applications and assists parties to resolve complaints through mediation and/or a hearing.

A

Human Rights Code

228
Q

Ontario Human Rights Commission (OHRC) means
an independent government agency that provides leadership for the promotion, protection and advancement of human rights and builds partnerships across the human rights system (but does not receive _______ complaints).

A

Human Rights Code

229
Q

Stereotyping means that particular roles and characteristics are attributed to people on the basis of a ______ ground under the _______

A

prohibited Human Rights Code

230
Q

Systemic Discrimination means policies or practices in the workplace that create or perpetuate a position of relative disadvantage for some individuals/groups, on the basis of _______ grounds.

A

prohibited

231
Q

Forfeiture means seizure of ______ property because
 it was illegally obtained, or
 it is an illegal substance, or
 the legal basis for possession has ended.

A

private

232
Q

Sudden Unexplained Death means the death investigation of a child due to
ï‚· SID
ï‚· accidental injury
ï‚· non accidental injury due to neglect or abuse, or
ï‚· a previously undiagnosed natural ______ process and may include
- negative autopsy but evidence of an old healed fracture which has not been adequately explained by the investigation
- negative autopsy but a previous history of ______
- negative autopsy but some _______, which although not considered to be a cause of death cannot be explained (e.g. blood alcohol of 30mg in a five month old child)
Where there is significant concern regarding any part of the death investigation, the cause of death should be classified as a SUD.

A

disease child abuse positive toxicology

233
Q

Conducted Energy Weapon (CEW) means a _____ that primarily uses propelled wires to conduct energy that affects the sensory and/or motor functions of the central nervous system.

A

weapon

234
Q

Dispatching of an Animal means the ___________ for the purpose of ending the life of an animal that is potentially dangerous, or is so badly injured that humanity dictates that its suffering be ended

A

discharge of a firearm

235
Q

Firearm Discharge means when a Service member, other than at an __________ or under the exemption provisions, discharges a firearm in the performance of their duty, or discharges an issued firearm at any time, intentionally or unintentionally.

For the purposes of use of force, Firearm Discharge also includes discharges that occur at an authorized range or under the exemption provisions that result in injury or death.

A

authorized range

236
Q

Firearm Discharge Investigator (FDI) means a detective or detective sergeant assigned to __________ who has completed the accredited Firearm Discharge Investigators Course.

A

Professional Standards

237
Q

Service Members Perception Data means information derived from a member making a determination with respect to the ____ of an individual by observation, solely on the basis of that member’s own ________ .

A

race √

238
Q

Incident Review Committee (IRC) means a panel consisting of, but not limited to the:
 Unit Commander or designate – Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force
 Unit Commander or designate – Corporate Risk Management
 Section Head – Toronto Police College (TPC) – Armament Section
 Section Head – TPC – In–Service Training Section
 Training Analyst – TPC – Armament Section
 Representative – East Field
 Representative – West Field
 Representative – Emergency Management & Public Order – Public Safety
whose mandate it is to
review incidents other than those listed in the exempted areas, _______ was used by members of the Service
 assess the effectiveness of the Service’s training, practices and associated Service Governance, and report its findings to the Senior Management Team (SMT).

A

where force

Sgt. Exam - Definitions (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions