Definitions

Question 1

Assistive/Prosthetic Device

Answer 1

A device used to replace, compensate for, or improve the functional abilities of people with disabilities or for trans or gender diverse persons to affirm gender identity. Assistive device includes a broad range of items such as mobility and visual/hearing aids, orthotics/prosthetics, speech devices, medical supplies, environmental controls and respiratory devices. Prosthetics used to express gender identity include: breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penises and wigs.

Question 2

Disability means

Answer 2

Any degree of physical disability, infirmity, malformation or disfigurement that is caused by bodily injury, birth defect or illness and, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, includes diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, a brain injury, any degree of paralysis, amputation, lack of physical co-ordination, blindness or visual impediment, deafness or hearing impediment, muteness or speech impediment, or physical reliance on a guide dog or other animal or on a wheelchair or other remedial appliance or device; b. a condition of mental impairment or a developmental disability;

c. a learning disability, or a dysfunction in one or more of the processes involved in understanding or using symbols or spoken language;
d. a mental disorder, or;
e. an injury or disability for which benefits were claimed or received under the insurance plan established under the Workplace Safety and Insurance Act; (“handicap”).

(Source: Ontario Human Rights Code, Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act)

Question 3

Gender

Answer 3

The set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, trans people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both or neither.

Question 4

Non-binary

Answer 4

Gender identities outside of the expected binary of men and women.

Question 5

Member – Prisoner Care & Control

Answer 5

For the purposes of prisoner transportation, care and control, includes a:

g) police officer,
h) court officer, and
i) custodial officer.

Question 6

Service Members’ Perception Data

Answer 6

Means information derived from a member making a determination with respect to the race of an individual by observation, solely on the basis of that member’s own perception.

Question 7

Trans

Answer 7

An umbrella term referring to people with diverse gender identities and expressions that differ from their assigned sex at birth. It includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at birth who knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man), non-binary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity. Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents that reflect their lived identity.

Question 8

Booking Hall System (BHS)

Answer 8

Means a video surveillance system installed in the sally–port, booking hall and other areas of a police facility that is designed to record the booking and release of all prisoners as they enter and leave a police facility. The BHS is operated manually by the booking officer. (Booking Video)
Booking Officer means a police officer, court officer or custodial officer designated by the officer in charge as the person responsible for the care and handling of persons detained in custody.
Court Cells means cells used during those hours in which the courts are sitting. A person shall be lodged in a court cell when:

Question 9

Booking Officer

Answer 9

Means a police officer, court officer or custodial officer designated by the officer in charge as the person responsible for the care and handling of persons detained in custody.
Court Cells means cells used during those hours in which the courts are sitting. A person shall be lodged in a court cell when:
 being held for a court appearance;
 awaiting transportation to a detention facility;
 ordered into custody by the court.

Question 10

Designated Operator

Answer 10

For the purposes persons in custody means any member designated as an audio/video operator with an understanding of how to operate the equipment.

Question 11

Detention Area Monitoring System (DAMS)

Answer 11

Means a video surveillance system installed in the prisoner detention areas of a police facility, such as the cells and the bullpen, which is designed to monitor and record the condition of prisoners while they are in custody. The DAMS is set to automatically record each cell and bullpen when activity is detected. (Cell Video)

Question 12

Detention Facility

Answer 12

Means any central lock–up and/or booking hall.

Question 13

Divisional Cells

Answer 13

Means cells that may be used for short term detention of a person in custody when:
 being processed, or waiting to be processed, or to ensure the safety of the person and/or members;
 awaiting transportation to a central lock–up;
 being held for return by an outside agency.

Question 14

Item of Religious Significance

Answer 14

Means any item, article, apparel, or clothing a person identifies as having religious importance.

Question 15

Lock–Up

Answer 15

Means an assigned division used to detain a person in custody:
 when the person is held for a Show Cause hearing, or Judicial Interim Release where the bail court is closed
 when outside of admitting hours stipulated in Procedure 03–03
 in any other circumstances where detention is authorized and necessary.

Question 16

Police Cells

Answer 16

Means divisional cells, central lock–ups and court cells used for the secure detention of persons in custody. An interview room is not a police cell.

Question 17

Police Vehicle – Prisoner Transportation

Answer 17

For the purposes of prisoner transportation, includes marked and unmarked vehicle owned or operated by the Service, that has the capacity to transport a driver and two or more passengers.

Question 18

Valuable Property

Answer 18

Means money, jewellery and other items that may make a prisoner the target of theft or robbery.

Question 19

Abandoned Property

Answer 19

Means a thing over which a person has surrendered any possessory right or privacy right and which may or may not relate to a crime and/or crime scene and which potentially has some evidentiary value.

Question 20

Affiant

Answer 20

Means a police officer who swears to an affidavit, commonly used when requesting a search warrant before a Justice.

Question 21

Case Manager

Answer 21

Means a police officer assigned to prepare and manage a case for trial. A case manager is assigned for each Confidential Crown Envelope (crown envelope) and designated in accordance with established unit policy.

Question 22

Common Informant

Answer 22

The purposes of court disclosure means a divisional warrant officer, or an on-duty designate, or a court officer who is a sworn peace officer, during the lawful execution of their duties.
 Court Officers may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of bringing a Form 5.2 before a Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only) and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held for a show cause hearing.

Question 23

Continued Detention

Answer 23

Means the detention of property beyond the initial 3 months from the date of seizure.

Question 24

Exhibits Officer

Answer 24

Means a police officer delegated to seize all property, commonly used when a search warrant is executed.

Question 25

Forfeiture

Answer 25

Means seizure of private property because...  it was illegally obtained, or  it is an illegal substance, or  the legal basis for possession has ended.

Question 26

Forfeiture Order

Answer 26

Means an Order prepared and signed by a Justice to authorize the disposal of seized property by the Public Prosecution Service of Canada (PPSC) and/or the Ministry of the Attorney General (MAG).

Question 27

Found Property

Answer 27

Means any property which was located by a member or a citizen and turned over to a member, and the item (at the time) has no apparent evidentiary value.

Question 28

Informational Material

Answer 28

Means information obtained from a thing that is seized.

Question 29

Justice

Answer 29

Means a Justice of the Peace or a Provincial Court Judge | Source: S. 2 CC

Question 30

Peace Officer

Answer 30

Report to Justice for the purposes of filing a Report to Justice means a police officer, or a court officer who is a sworn peace officer.

Question 31

Property

Answer 31

Means any article and/or document found by, seized by, surrendered to, or intended to be surrendered to a Service member.

Question 32

Seized Property

Answer 32

Means a thing, including informational material, seized from a person and/or place, with or without a warrant, by a peace officer without that person’s consent.

Question 33

Seizing Officer

Answer 33

Means a peace officer who has seized property, either with or without a search warrant, and includes a court officer during the lawful execution of their duties.

Question 34

Surrendered Property

Answer 34

Means any article, document, informational material and/or thing whose possession has been voluntarily given to a member and the item (at that time) may or may not have

Question 35

Child

Answer 35

Means any person under the age of 18 years. [Source: Child, Youth & Family Services Act, ss. 3(1)].

Question 36

Electronic Mail (email)

Answer 36

Means a system of world–wide electronic communication in which a computer user can compose and send a message, with or without attached files, from one terminal that can be regenerated at the recipient's terminal when the recipient logs in. The Toronto Police Service (Service) has an internal e–mail and an external e–mail database. The internal e–mail database allows authorized users to send and receive messages within the Service. The external e– mail database allows authorized users to send and receive messages over the Internet.

Question 37

Homicide Investigation

Answer 37

Means an investigation led by Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) into the circumstances surrounding a sudden death where there is: – obvious or suspected foul play, – the cause of death cannot be explained, – found human remains, – any other suspicious circumstance.

Question 38

Intimate Partner

Answer 38

Means a partner from a current or former intimate relationship.

Question 39

Intimate Relationship

Answer 39

Includes current or former relationships between opposite sex and same sex partners and include persons who: – are legally married to one another; – were previously married to one another; – are not married, but are currently in a family–type relationship; – are not married, but were formerly in a family–type relationship; – have a child in common regardless of whether such persons have been married or lived together at one time, or; – are (or have ever been) involved in a dating relationship.

Question 40

Major Case Manager

Answer 40

Means the investigator responsible for the effective governance and management of every threshold major case investigation and possesses the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the functions of Major Case Management. The Major Case Manager shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course or equivalent as defined by the Ontario Police College, and; shall have the resources to manage investigations through the minister–approved software, currently known as PowerCase. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual] For the purposes of a homicide investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations – Homicide. For the purposes of a sexual assault investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations – Sex Crimes. For the purposes of a Human Trafficking investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations – Sex Crimes – Human Trafficking Enforcement Team. For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations – Organized Crime Enforcement.

Question 41

Natural Causes

Answer 41

Means a death due to explainable medical causes including old age or disease.

Question 42

Primary Investigator

Answer 42

Means the investigator assigned by the Major Case Manager in every threshold major case investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Question 43

Sudden Death

Answer 43

Means an unexpected death that is instantaneous or occurs within minutes or hours from any cause other than violence.

Question 44

Suicide

Answer 44

Means the death of a person intentionally caused by the person's own actions.

Question 45

Unnatural Sudden Death

Answer 45

Means the unexpected death of a person by suicide, homicide, accident or suspicious circumstances, and includes found human remains, in whole or in part.

Question 46

AMBER Alert

Answer 46

Means a co–operative effort between police, the media and the Ministry of Transportation to provide early notification to the public where a person under 18 years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstances lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive information about the abducted person, and/or the abductor, and/or the abductor’s vehicle to believe an immediate broadcast alert will help in locating the person. An AMBER Alert will have a duration of 5 hours following activation, unless cancelled or extended.

Question 47

Divisional Search Box

Answer 47

Means a portable storage box containing the necessary items essential to the supervisory officer at the scene of a Level 2 or Level 3 search. These items shall be determined by Procedure 04–05 and established practice, and should be located where it is easily accessible by the Officer in Charge.

Question 48

Incident Commander

Answer 48

Means the police officer who has taken charge of the incident and who is in charge at the Command Post and, in conjunction with other emergency services commanders, is responsible for coordinating and managing police response at an incident.

Question 49

Last Known Position

Answer 49

Means the last substantiated (by clues or evidence) position that the missing person was known to be.

Question 50

Level 1 Missing Person Search

Answer 50

Means the level of search implemented when a person is reported missing and there are no extenuating circumstances. At this level, there are minimal concerns regarding the issue of foul play or the infirmity or limitations of the missing person.

Question 51

Level 2 Missing Person Search

Answer 51

Means the level of search when a missing person is: • under 16 years and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves; • mentally challenged; • over 65 years of age or infirm, or; • there is evidence of foul play.

Question 52

Level 3 Missing Person Search

Answer 52

Means the level of search implemented when the Level 1 and Level 2 missing person searches are ineffective or if the situation, due to the extenuating circumstances, necessitates that this level be initiated immediately.

Question 53

Missing Person

Answer 53

Means a person where both the following circumstances exist with respect to the person: • The persons whereabouts are unknown and, – the person has not been in contact with people who would likely be in contact with the person, or – it is reasonable in the circumstances to fear for the person’s safety because of the circumstances surrounding the person’s absence or because of any other prescribed considerations. A member of a police force is unable to locate the person after making reasonable efforts to do so. [Source: Missing Person Act, 2018]

Question 54

Missing Persons Search Page

Answer 54

Means a web page located on the Service Internet site used to publish information and pictures regarding missing persons investigations that have proceeded to a Level 3 search.

Question 55

National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR)

Answer 55

Means the national centre created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing persons and unidentified remains. The Toronto Police Service supports the centre and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of missing persons and unidentified remains.

Question 56

National Missing Children’s Operations (NMCO)

Answer 56

Means the national registry created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing and abducted children. The Toronto Police Service supports the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of both parental and non–parental abduction.

Question 57

Non–Parental Abduction

Answer 57

Means the unlawful removal of a child by a person other than a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the child.

Question 58

Parental Abduction

Answer 58

Means the unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or any other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of fourteen whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person.

Question 59

Place Last Seen

Answer 59

Means a point where the missing person was actually seen by a witness.

Question 60

Search Management Team

Answer 60

Means the team from Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO), supported by the requesting division, responsible for co–ordinating a Level 3 search for a missing person.

Question 61

Search Manager

Answer 61

Means the police officer in charge of Emergency Management & Public Order – Search Management Team.

Question 62

Unit

Answer 62

Means a section of the Service as designated by the Board, such as a field headquarter, division, bureau or squad.

Question 63

Controller – Regulated Interactions

Answer 63

Means the member of the Service, designated by the Chief of Police, who assesses procedural compliance of Regulated Interaction Reports, once they have been approved or restricted by a Supervisory Officer. The Controller – Regulated Interaction Reports is also responsible for: • fulfilling the role of subject matter resource for Supervisory Officers; • preparing a report to the Unit Commander of the Toronto Police College every three months that outlines the results of all reviews undertaken specific to Regulated Interaction Reports; and • monitoring and reporting on any changes or amendments to legislation or Service Governance which may be relevant to training specific to Regulated Interactions.

Question 64

Historical Contact Data

Answer 64

Means all Person Investigated Card (Form 172), Field Information Report (Form 208), Community Inquiry Report (Form 306), and Community Safety Note (Street Check) records submitted into the Service’s records management systems prior to January 1, 2017, and may include any such submitted record whether or not it would have been categorized as a Regulated Interaction Report had it been submitted on or after January 1, 2017.

Question 65

Identifying Information

Answer 65

means any information that, alone or in combination with other information, can be used to identify an individual. It may include information about an individual’s race, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, marital or family status, economic circumstances, and education, medical, psychiatric, psychological, criminal or employment history.

Question 66

Regulated Interaction

Answer 66

Means an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a face-to-face encounter, to identify himself or herself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual, and includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected, • only if that attempt is done for the purpose of, - inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or - inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or - gathering information for intelligence purposes; • but does not include an attempted collection made by a police officer for the purpose of investigating an offence the officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed; and does not include an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information from an individual if, - the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer; - the individual is under arrest or is being detained; - the police officer is engaged in a covert operation; - the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or - the individual from whom the police officer attempts to collect information is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to the carrying out of the police officer’s duties.

Question 67

Regulated Interaction Report

Answer 67

Means the electronic record of a Regulated Interaction submitted into the Service’s record management system, whether or not identifying information was collected during the Regulated Interaction.

Question 68

Restricted

Answer 68

Is a classification which applies to Historical Contact Data and may apply to Regulated Interaction Reports for which the Service has instituted constraints that prevent access to the record unless: • approved by the Chief of Police, or designate; and • access is needed: - for the purpose of an ongoing police investigation; - in connection with legal proceedings or anticipated legal proceedings; - for the purpose of dealing with a complaint under Part V of the PSA or for the purpose of an investigation or inquiry under clause 25 (1)(a) of the PSA; - in order to prepare the annual report described in subsection 14 (1) or the report required under section 15 of O. Reg. 58/16; - for the purpose of complying with a legal requirement; or - for the purpose of evaluating a police officer’s performance.

Question 69

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority

Answer 69

Means a member of the cadre of on-call Toronto Police Service uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf of the Chief.

Question 70

Death in Custody

Answer 70

Means the death of a person at any time during an arrest/detention and before the person’s release or transfer to another agency’s custody.

Question 71

Special Investigations Unit (SIU) Mandate

Answer 71

Means that the SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted into any incident in which any of the following occurs, if the incident may have resulted from the criminal conduct of a Service official: – the death of a person – the serious injury of a person – the discharge of a firearm at a person – the sexual assault of a person, as reported by the person. The SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted if, at the time of the incident, • the official was on duty; or • the official was off-duty but – engaged in the investigation, pursuit, detention or arrest of a person or otherwise exercised the powers of a police officer, special constable, peace officer or other prescribed person, as the case may be, whether or not the official intended to exercise such powers or identified him or herself as a person who may exercise such powers, or – the incident involved equipment or other property issued to the official in relation to his or her duties.

Question 72

Community Patrol

Answer 72

Means the performance of general policing duties in the community by officers assigned to a combination of general and directed patrol, targeted and problem oriented policing initiatives.

Question 73

Community Police Liaison Committee (CPLC)

Answer 73

Means a divisional committee that represents all segments of the community.

Question 74

Crime Analysis

Answer 74

Means a set of systematic, analytical processes directed at providing timely and pertinent information relative to crime patterns and trend correlation. It assists operational and administrative personnel in planning the deployment of resources for the prevention and suppression of criminal activities, aiding in the investigative process, and increasing apprehensions and the clearance of cases.

Question 75

Crime Prevention

Answer 75

Means the anticipation, recognition and appraisal of a crime risk followed by the initiation of some action to remove or reduce the risk, and the measurement and evaluation of the outcome.

Question 76

Debriefing

Answer 76

Means the process by which persons in custody will be asked if they wish to provide information on other crimes including, but not limited to the divisional crime problems established as priorities.

Question 77

Directed Patrol

Answer 77

Means a specific activity designed to address an identified concern within the community. Directed patrols are activities detailed to officers in order to have specific measurable tasks carried out. This form of patrol may be enforcement–based but may also be focused on achieving a goal by other means. Directed patrol can be an effective component in the maintenance of public order and improving the quality of life for the community.

Question 78

General Patrol

Answer 78

Means routine policing activities carried out by officers within a specified area. General patrol is an important part of community policing that does not specifically focus on or target an identified concern within the community, but permits officers to accomplish their general policing duties in a non–focused manner.

Question 79

Order Maintenance

Answer 79

Means the act of upholding community standards, using both informal community activities and law enforcement to create a safer environment, and an improved quality of life.

Question 80

Problem

Answer 80

In reference to Crime and Disorder Management means an issue dealing with public disorder or crime that has been identified by either • the police (through analysis), or • by members of the community that requires police/community intervention.

Question 81

Problem Oriented Policing

Answer 81

Means a technique by which public disorder and crime issues are identified, analyzed, and strategies are developed to eliminate or bring the issues under control.

Question 82

Quality of Life

Answer 82

Means an actual or perceived social, economic and physical environment, which is conducive to a state of mental and physical well–being. When applied to neighbourhoods or communities, it means that there is little disorder or anti–social activity, permitting local community members to go about their daily activities with minimal fear or disruption.

Question 83

Self-Initiated Patrol

Answer 83

Means patrol or enforcement action targeting a specific area or problem, that is undertaken by an officer, without previous direction from a supervisor. The area of the self–initiated patrol may be based on trends derived through crime analysis.

Question 84

Senior Management Team (SMT)

Answer 84

Includes the Chief of Police, Command Officers, Staff Superintendents and Directors, and any other member as determined by the Chief of Police.

Question 85

Target Policing

Answer 85

Means the targeting of offenders or offences within a specific time period and/or a specific geographic area.

Question 86

Agent

Answer 86

Means a person who acts on behalf of the police and under their direction, which may result in them becoming a material and compellable witness. The identity of the agent is subject to disclosure.

Question 87

Confidential Source (Source)

Answer 87

Means a person who is registered with Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS) and voluntarily provides information of some usefulness or interest to the Toronto Police Service with respect to the prevention and detection of crimes, with the explicit or implicit expectation of confidentiality. This person would generally not become a witness or require protection as a result of their involvement or the information they have provided. A confidential source is an asset of the Toronto Police Service and is not the exclusive asset of any one police officer. A confidential source does not include a person who provides a statement to police as part of routine police inquiries into alleged offences; e.g. a witness to a crime. There are two levels of confidential sources: Confidential Source – Level 1 and Confidential Source – Level 2.

Question 88

Confidential Source – Level 1

Answer 88

Means a confidential source who is not a Confidential Source – Level 2.

Question 89

Confidential Source – Level 2

Answer 89

Means • a source under the age of 18 (young person), or • a source whose information could be considered: • multi–jurisdictional; • may affect national security; • involves organized crime; • is beyond the resources or the source–handling abilities of the officers involved; • at the discretion of the Controller. Unless otherwise approved by the Controller, a confidential source – level 2 shall be managed by a Handler – Level 2.

Question 90

Controller – Source

Answer 90

Means the Detective Sergeant – Intelligence Services – Covert Operations who ensures the effective control, accountability and evaluation of the source, continually assessing the risks and managing all information provided by the source. The Controller – Source is responsible for the Source Management Program of the Toronto Police Service.

Question 91

Crown Letter – Source

Answer 91

Means a document provided to the crown attorney by Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS) on behalf of a source seeking consideration for that source’s assistance to the police. All crown letters issued on behalf of a source shall only be provided by the Unit Commander – Intelligence Services. See Procedure 04–35, Appendix B.

Question 92

Handler

Answer 92

means a police officer who has received information from a source and who has been so designated by the Controller or designate. A handler, on behalf of the Toronto Police Service, is responsible for the: – development of a source – integrity of any contact – acquisition and dissemination of information received from the source. There are 2 levels of handlers: Handler – Level 1 and Handler – Level 2.

Question 93

Handler – Level 1

Answer 93

Means any police officer from the Toronto Police Service who can handle level 1 sources only.

Question 94

Handler – Level 2

Answer 94

Means any police officer from the Toronto Police Service who has been accredited and designated by the Controller or designate. A handler – level 2 can manage agents, and level 1 and level 2 sources. For the purposes of agents, a handler – level 2 is also responsible for: – the management of agents on behalf of the Service – considering the primary concerns – the acquisition and dissemination of information from that agent.

Question 95

Restricted Source

Answer 95

Means a person who has been restricted by Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS). Such a person shall not be used as such by any officer unless designated by the Controller.

Question 96

Homicide Investigation

Answer 96

Means an investigation led by Detective Operations – Homicide (Homicide) into the circumstances surrounding a sudden death where there is • obvious or suspected foul play • the cause of death cannot be explained * found human remains * any other suspicious circumstance.

Question 97

Infant

Answer 97

Means a child less than 1 year of age.

Question 98

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)

Answer 98

Means the sudden death of an infant under one (1) year of age, which remains unexplained after a thorough investigation which must include a complete autopsy, examination of the death scene, a police investigation and a review of the child’s clinical history.

Question 99

Sudden Unexplained Death

Answer 99

Means the death investigation of a child due to • SID • accidental injury • non–accidental injury due to neglect or abuse, or • a previously undiagnosed natural disease process and may include - negative autopsy but evidence of an old healed fracture which has not been adequately explained by the investigation - negative autopsy but a previous history of child abuse - negative autopsy but some positive toxicology, which although not considered to be a cause of death cannot be explained (e.g. blood alcohol of 30mg in a five month old child) Where there is significant concern regarding any part of the death investigation, the cause of death should be classified as a SUD.

Question 100

Financial Institution

Answer 100

Means any bank, trust and loan company, or credit union.

Question 101

Global Positioning System (GPS) Tracking Device

Answer 101

In reference to hold–ups, means a tracking device used primarily by the pharmaceutical and financial industries to assist with the apprehension of suspects and recovery of stolen property when a hold–up has occurred.

Question 102

Hold-Up (HUS) Mandate

Answer 102

HUS will take charge and attend all robberies that fall within their mandate including: financial institutions; armoured cars; retail business; home invasions committed with firearms or offensive weapons, money deposits, and carjacking’s committed with firearms or offensive weapons.

Question 103

Bona Fide Reasons

Answer 103

Means • a victim or witness who may possibly require or may seek admission into the Provincial Witness Protection Program; • a Crown Attorney is requesting information for disclosure purposes; • the information is necessary to prove essential elements of an offence, or; • investigations where the circumstances make it clear that it is essential to public or officer safety and security to ascertain the immigration status of a victim or witness.

Question 104

Child in Need of Protection

Answer 104

Means a child that can be apprehended as being in need of protection as defined in s.125 (1) of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.

Question 105

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management

Answer 105

Means the following major cases: • homicides as defined in subsection 222(4), Criminal Code, and attempts; • sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching); • trafficking in persons as defined in section 279.01, 279.011 or 279.04, Criminal Code, and attempts as defined in section 24(1) Criminal Code; • occurrences involving non-familial abductions and attempts; • missing person occurrences, as outlined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual; • occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains; • criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim; and, • any other types of cases designated as a major case pursuant to this Ontario Major Case Management Manual. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Question 106

Domestic Incident

Answer 106

Means any incident between persons involved in an intimate relationship where, although no criminal offence has occurred, police have been called to the scene.

Question 107

Domestic Occurrence

Answer 107

Means an occurrence report created to detail criminal behaviour and/or a breach of any statute related to a domestic situation and includes an arrest report. (excludes a Domestic Incident Report).

Question 108

Domestic Violence

Answer 108

Means any physical, sexual or psychological harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved in an intimate relationship including: • assault; • murder; • sexual assault; • threatening; • harassment; • intimidation; • unlawful interference with personal liberty; • any other criminal offence; • offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children’s Law Reform Act, etc.; • but does not include child abuse investigations.

Question 109

Domestic Violence Investigator (DVI)

Answer 109

Means an investigator qualified in the investigations of domestic violence as prescribed in Police Services Act, O.Reg. 3/99, Adequacy & Effectiveness of Police Services and the Policing Standards Manual.

Question 110

Dominant Aggressor

Answer 110

Means the individual who has been the principal abuser, and not necessarily the person who initiated the violence that resulted in the attendance of police.

Question 111

Firearms Interest Police (FIP)

Answer 111

Means a database within the Canadian Police Information Centre (CPIC) system that contains information from local police agencies, which could affect an individual’s eligibility to be issued or to continue to hold a firearms licence. Section 5 of the Firearms Act indicates the types of offences/incidents which justify a FIP.

Question 112

Intimate Relationship – Dating

Answer 112

Dating is a form of courtship by two people who meet and engage in some mutually agreed upon social activity and they may or may not be involved in a sexual relationship. It is also how each person perceives the relationship.

Question 113

Victim

Answer 113

Means: • a person to whom harm was done or who suffered physical or emotional loss as a result of the commission of the offence; and • where the person described in paragraph (a) is dead, ill or otherwise incapable of making a statement referred to in subsection (1), includes the spouse or common-law partner or any relative of that person, anyone who has in law or fact the custody of that person or is responsible for the care or support of that person or any dependant of that person. [Source: Criminal Code, 722(4)]

Question 114

Victim Quick Response Program

Answer 114

Means a program administered by Victim Services Toronto that provides quick financial assistance to victims of homicide, attempted murder, serious physical assault, domestic violence, sexual assault and hate crime in the immediate aftermath of a crime.

Question 115

Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP)

Answer 115

means the program operated by the (Ontario) Ministry of the Attorney General. Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as domestic violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime. Families of traffic fatality victims are also eligible. Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded.

Question 116

Divisional Investigator

Answer 116

Means an officer assigned to a divisional detective office. In reference to sexual assault investigations means an officer assigned to a divisional investigative unit who is not accredited to investigate complaints of sexual assault.

Question 117

Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator

Answer 117

Means an officer assigned to a divisional investigative unit who is accredited to investigate complaints of sexual assault.

Question 118

Sex Crimes Investigator

Answer 118

Means an accredited sexual assault investigator assigned to Detective Operations – Sex Crimes (Sex Crimes).

Question 119

Sexual Assault

Answer 119

Means the offence as defined by the Criminal Code.

Question 120

Sexual Assault Care Centre (SACC)

Answer 120

Means a medical care centre designated for the treatment and examination of victims of sexual assault.

Question 121

Supervisory Officer

Answer 121

Means a police officer assigned to oversee other members, either temporarily or permanently.

Question 122

Trafficking in Persons

Answer 122

Means the offence committed by a person who recruits, transports, transfers, receives, holds, conceals or harbours a person, or exercises control, direction or influence over the movements of a person, for the purpose of exploiting them or facilitating their exploitation (also known as Human Trafficking). [Source: Criminal Code ss 279.01(1)]

Question 123

Violent Crime Linkage Analysis System (ViCLAS)

Answer 123

Means the national database operated by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) for the purpose of linking occurrences of designated offences across Canada.

Question 124

Child Abuse

Answer 124

No person having charge of a child shall • inflict abuse (physical, sexual or sexual exploitation) on the child; or • by failing to care and provide for or supervise and protect the child adequately, - permit the child to suffer abuse or - permit the child to suffer from a mental, emotional or development condition that, if not remedied, could serioiusly impair the child's development. [Source: Child, Youth and Family Services Act ss.136 (1)(2)]

Question 125

Child in Need of Protection

Answer 125

Means a child that can be apprehended as being in need of protection as defined in s.125 (1) of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.

Question 126

Child Physical Abuse

Answer 126

Where the circumstances could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or render the child in need of protection under the Child, Youth and Family Services Act, and where the alleged abuser (whether adult or child) has responsibility for the care of the child victim. Child Physical Abuse refers to an offence where a child is victimized by an abuser and includes all of the following: • physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under 18 years of age and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority; • abductions when the victim is under the age of 16 years of age; • occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended • homicides when the victim is under the age of 18 years and the suspect is a caregiver, parent, or person in a position of trust or authority • physical offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years and there are clear developmental differences between the victim and the suspect.

Question 127

Child Sexual Abuse

Answer 127

``` Means the use of a child by an adult for sexual purposes, whether or not consent is alleged to have been given, which could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or could place a child in need of protection under the Child, Youth and Family Services Act. Child sexual abuse can include: • incest; • acts of exposure; • sexual touching; • sexual intercourse; • sexual molestation; • inappropriate sexual language; • sexual harassment; • exhibitionism; • exploitation of child for pornography or prostitution. ```

Question 128

Designated Child Abuse Investigator

Answer 128

Means a specially trained police officer who is responsible for the criminal investigation of child sexual and physical abuse cases.

Question 129

Designated Children’s Aid Society Worker

Answer 129

Means a trained Children’s Aid Society specialist who is responsible for the child protection investigation and the protection of the child.

Question 130

Team (Child Abuse Investigation)

Answer 130

Means a designated Child Abuse Investigator and a Children’s Aid Society specialist, who shall conduct interviews together and communicate at every stage of the investigation.

Question 131

Hate/Bias Crime

Answer 131

Means a criminal offence committed against a person or property that is motivated by hate, bias, or prejudice based on the victim’s race, national or ethnic origin, language, colour, religion, sex, age, mental or physical disability, sexual orientation, or gender identity or expression, or on any other similar factor. This is found in s. 718.2 of the Criminal Code, which contains increased sentencing provisions for the aggravating circumstances.

Question 132

Hate Propaganda

Answer 132

Means any communication that advocates or promotes genocide against any identifiable group or makes statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability. Hate propaganda offences are found in s. 318 and 319 of the Criminal Code. Advocate genocide and wilful promotion of hatred require the permission of the Attorney General to proceed with prosecution. Public incitement of hatred does not require the consent of the Attorney General. Intelligence Services – Hate Crime will liaise with the Ministry of the Attorney General and advise the respective detective office when a decision by the Attorney General has been made concerning the commencement of legal proceedings in cases of hate propaganda. • These definitions are provided to clarify the difference in victim groups between a criminal offence motivated by hate and the more limited definition relating to hate propaganda. The differences are particularly important when the increased sentencing provisions for aggravating circumstances are applied to hate crimes using the expanded definition in s. 718.2 CC.

Question 133

Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU)

Answer 133

Means the part of the Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force – Firearms Enforcement Unit, responsible for the verification, testing and tracing of all seized firearms and related components including crime scene evidence. FIAU consists of firearm experts who testify in all levels of court, as required. The unit can also assist with expert opinion with respect to video/image analysis and coded language investigations.

Question 134

Firearms Enforcement Unit (FEU)

Answer 134

Means a section of Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force, responsible for investigations into incidents of firearms trafficking and smuggling.

Question 135

Illegally Possessed Firearm

Answer 135

Means any firearm that • is not legally registered in Canada, or • has been reported stolen, or • is being unlawfully possessed, or • is used in a crime, or • is suspected to have been used in a crime.

Question 136

Elder and Vulnerable Adult Abuse

Answer 136

Means any action, or inaction, that harms or threatens to harm the health or well– being of an elderly person or vulnerable adult by a person in a position of trust or authority. This includes physical/sexual abuse, psychological abuse, financial abuse, neglect or any combination thereof.

Question 137

Elderly

Answer 137

For the purposes of Procedure 05–22 means a person over the age of 65.

Question 138

Harm

Answer 138

means physical abuse (includes sexual abuse), psychological abuse, financial abuse, neglect or any combination thereof.

Question 139

Incapable

Answer 139

means a person unable to independently manage their day–to–day affairs due to cognitive impairment, thus making them vulnerable to abuse.

Question 140

Vulnerable Adult

Answer 140

Means any adult who by nature of a physical, emotional or psychological condition is dependent on other persons for care and assistance in day–to–day living.

Question 141

Custody Order

Answer 141

Means an order of the Court (Ontario Court of Justice), which sets out the particulars of who shall have custody or access to a child and under what circumstances.

Question 142

Restraining Order

Answer 142

Means an order of the Court (Ontario Court of Justice), which restrains one parent from having contact with the other parent and/or children. This could also include restraining both parents from having contact with their children.

Question 143

Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) Missing Child Registry

Answer 143

Means the national registry created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing and abducted children. The Toronto Police Service supports the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of both parental and non–parental abduction.

Question 144

Window of Opportunity

Answer 144

Means the interval between the time the missing person was last seen and the time they were believed to be missing.

Question 145

Community Treatment Order (CTO)

Answer 145

Means an order with conditions issued by a physician to a person which provides that person with psychiatric treatment in the community that is less restrictive than being detained in a facility.

Question 146

Child in Need of Protection

Answer 146

Means a child that can be apprehended as being in need of protection as defined in s.125 (1) of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.

Question 147

Disorderly

Answer 147

Means behaviour that appears to the police to be “to some extent irrational although not unruly”. [Source: R v. O’Brien (1983), 9W.C.B. 270 (Ontario County Court)].

Question 148

Divisional Mental Health Liaison Officer

Answer 148

Means the police officer responsible for coordinating all Mental Health Act issues within the division; usually the Community Relations Officer.

Question 149

Emotionally Disturbed Person (EDP)

Answer 149

Includes any person who appears to be in a state of crisis or any person who is mentally disordered.

Question 150

Form 1 MHA

Answer 150

Means an Application by Physician for Psychiatric Assessment signed by a doctor within 7 days of examining the person, giving any person authority to take the person named on the application to a psychiatric facility. A Form 1 is valid for 7 days from and including the day it was signed.

Question 151

Form 2 MHA

Answer 151

Means a Justice of the Peace Order for Examination directing police officers to take the person in custody to an appropriate psychiatric facility where a physician may order the person detained for examination. A Form 2 is valid for 7 days from and including the day it was signed.

Question 152

Form 9 MHA

Answer 152

Means an Order for Return of an elopee issued by a psychiatric facility which authorizes a police officer to return the person without their consent to the psychiatric facility. A Form 9 is valid for a period of 1 month after the person is absent without leave.

Question 153

Form 47 MHA

Answer 153

Means an Order for Examination issued by the physician who issued the person a Community Treatment Order (CTO) and a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit the physician to review their condition within 72 hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or suffer deterioration. A Form 47 authorizes a police officer to take that person into custody and return them to the physician promptly and is valid for a period of 30 days.

Question 154

Mental Disorder

Answer 154

Means any disease or disability of the mind. [Source: Mental Health Act, ss. 1(1)] A person suffering from a mental disorder may have to live with a long–term breakdown of coping skills including perception, decision making and problem solving abilities.

Question 155

Person in Crisis

Answer 155

Means a person who suffers a temporary breakdown of coping skills but often reaches out for help, demonstrating that they are in touch with reality. Once a person in crisis receives the needed help, there is often a rapid return to normalcy.

Question 156

Physician

Answer 156

Means a legally qualified medical practitioner. [Source: Health Protection and Promotion Act, ss. 1(1)].

Question 157

Psychiatric Facility

Answer 157

Means a facility for the observation, care and treatment of persons suffering from a mental disorder and designated as such by the regulation contained in the Mental Health Act. See Procedure 06-04, Appendix B for a list of designated psychiatric facilities.

Question 158

Blue Card

Answer 158

Means a motor vehicle certificate issued by the Unit Commander – Toronto Police College to members who have a valid driver’s licence under the Highway Traffic Act and meet Service standards authorizing them to drive specific classes of Service vehicles.

Question 159

Driving Assessment

Answer 159

Means a practical, on–the–road driving assessment conducted by the divisional Traffic sergeant, or Traffic Services sergeant, as applicable.

Question 160

Intentional Contact

Answer 160

Means when a Toronto Police Service vehicle operated by a member intentionally comes into contact with another vehicle, person or object thus using the vehicle as a tool to stop a threat.

Question 161

Marked Vehicle

Answer 161

Means a Service vehicle used primarily by uniformed officers that: • is clearly marked with Toronto Police Service decals along with the word “police” and is equipped with “overhead” emergency lighting visible from 360 degrees and has a forward-facing electronic siren • meets the minimum requirements as set out in the Highway Traffic Act for an emergency vehicle, as well as Ontario Regulation 926 and Policing Standards Manual (Adequacy Standards) AI–008 for general patrol vehicles.

Question 162

Reportable Collision

Answer 162

Means every person operating a motor vehicle or streetcar involved directly or indirectly in a collision that results in personal injury, death, or property damage exceeding $2000, is required to report and furnish information forthwith to the nearest police officer in accordance with the Highway Traffic Act.

Question 163

Service Vehicle Collision (SVC)

Answer 163

Means a vehicle collision involving a Toronto Police Service vehicle where involvement is direct or indirect.

Question 164

Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Committee (SVCRC)

Answer 164

Means a panel consisting of, but not limited to, the Unit Commander and/or Designate from: • Professional Standards Support • Traffic Services • Toronto Police College with the mandate to monitor Toronto Police Service vehicle collisions for trend analysis, problem identification, quality assurance and training issues, and report its findings to the Chief of Police.

Question 165

Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Program (SVCR Program)

Answer 165

Means a program managed by Professional Standards Support which monitors Toronto Police Service vehicle collisions for trend analysis, problem identification, quality assurance and training issues.

Question 166

Service Vehicle Collision Report (SVCR)

Answer 166

Means a report consisting of: • a SRLD401 • a copy of the traffic officer’s memorandum book notes and/or field notes • witness statements, if applicable • a copy of the involved member’s memorandum book notes or TPS 649 • a TPS 559

Question 167

Unmarked Vehicle

Answer 167

Means any vehicle owned or operated by the Toronto Police Service (Service) without the identifying decals of the Service or emergency lighting system. It includes motor vehicles leased, owned or rented by or loaned to the Service. Most unmarked vehicles are equipped with a hand operated identification lamp bearing the words “POLICE-STOP”.

Question 168

Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator

Answer 168

Means the member designated by the EFAP Committee to: • liaise with - the EFAP provider and its CIRT, - the Toronto Police Operations Centre, Officer in Charge and/or unit commander, and the CIRT/Peer Support Volunteers (PSVs), and; - work with CIRT/PSVs, the EFAP provider, and/or Psychological Services to co–ordinate defusing and debriefing sessions.

Question 169

Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) Provider

Answer 169

Means the external EFAP service provider engaged by the Service.

Question 170

Family – Employee and Family Assistance Program

Answer 170

For the purposes of using the services of the Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) provider includes: • a spouse or partner from a same sex or opposite sex relationship; • dependent children.

Question 171

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority

Answer 171

Means a member of the cadre of on-call Toronto Police Service uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf of the Chief.

Question 172

Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT)

Answer 172

Means the team consisting of Peer Support Volunteers coordinated through the Service to respond to incidents where critical incident stress may occur and to assist members and their families to cope after becoming involved in a traumatic critical incident. CIRT members are trained in trauma response measures and are qualified to lead defusing sessions. CIRT members are not counsellors.

Question 173

Critical Incident Stress

Answer 173

Means physical and psychological symptoms experienced by a member as a result of being involved in a traumatic critical incident.

Question 174

Debriefing Session

Answer 174

Means a scheduled formal meeting specifically set up for members directly involved in the traumatic critical incident to discuss reactions to the traumatic event in confidence with a qualified mental health professional. The debriefing session takes place a few days after the conclusion of the traumatic critical incident, in a secure location where disruptions can be eliminated and can last up to 2.5 hours. The Employee Family Assistance Program Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator will work with the Officer in Charge, CIRT Peer Support Volunteer and/or the qualified mental health professional to schedule the session. Attendance is mandatory for the members directly involved but active participation in the discussion is voluntary. Debriefing sessions may be conducted by a mental health professional assisted by members of the CIRT and are not operational debriefings.

Question 175

Defusing Session

Answer 175

Means an immediate informal meeting attended by an individual or a group of members involved in a traumatic critical incident to assess the need for further assistance prior to the end of shift. The defusing session takes place immediately after the conclusion of the traumatic critical incident in a secure location where disruptions can be eliminated and lasts for approximately 15 to 30 minutes. Two Peer Support Volunteers normally lead these meetings with Employee Family Assistance Program support if necessary. Attendance is mandatory but active participation in the discussion is voluntary. Defusing sessions may be conducted by a mental health professional assisted by members of the Critical Incident Response Team and are not operational debriefings.

Question 176

Peer Support Volunteer (PSV)

Answer 176

Means a Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical incident. PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek professional treatment, if required.

Question 177

Post Incident Firearm Exposure Session

Answer 177

Means a session involving firearm exercises undertaken with a qualified firearms instructor. This session does NOT consist of a qualification standard and is NOT an operational debriefing. Rather, a post incident firearms exposure session consists of an individual course of fire intended to be educational, to provide reassurance, and to promote officers’ confidence with their firearm after an officer-involved shooting incident. The post incident firearms exposure session will take place prior to being returned to full duties after a shooting incident. Post incident firearms exposure sessions are mandatory for officers who discharge their firearms in the line of duty and officers determined by their Unit Commander to be directly impacted by the incident. However, any officer involved in a shooting incident may request to participate in a post incident firearms exposure session. Post incident firearms exposure sessions do not apply to the discharge of a firearm for the purpose of dispatching an animal, unless circumstances suggest otherwise.

Question 178

Traumatic Critical Incident

Answer 178

Means any incident during which a member experiences, witnesses, or is confronted with serious injury, death, or mass casualties; any incident in which the member’s life has been imperilled or threatened; or any situation which is recognized at the time to have the potential to significantly interfere immediately or at a later time with a member’s ability to function professionally or personally.

Question 179

Referral

Answer 179

Means the assistance provided by the Employee and Family Assistance Program provider or Psychological Services to members and their families in locating a community mental health professional or other service suitable to the presenting difficulty.

Question 180

Cannabis

Answer 180

Means • any part of a cannabis plant, including the phytocannabinoids produced by or found in such a plant, regardless of whether that part has been processed or not, other than a part of the plant referred to in Schedule 2 [of the Cannabis Act]; • any substance or mix of substances that contains or has on it any part of a cannabis plant; or • any substance that is identical to any phytocannabinoid produced by, or found in, such a plant, regardless of how the substance was obtained [including synthetic cannabis products]. [source: Cannabis Act, Schedule 1].

Question 181

Health Care Professional

Answer 181

Means a member of a College regulated under the Regulated Health Professions Act.

Question 182

Medical Accommodation

Answer 182

Means modifying the workplace environment or the functions of a position to enable a member needing medically supported accommodation to perform the essential duties of the position or the essential duties of an alternative available position for which the member is qualified.

Question 183

Medical Advisor

Answer 183

Means a licenced, qualified medical practitioner engaged by the Toronto Police Service.

Question 184

Restricted Duties (Substance Abuse)

Answer 184

For the purposes of a member seeking help for a substance abuse problem, means work that is modified to permit a member with a disability to work in accordance with limitations imposed by the Medical Advisor – Wellness – Medical Advisory Services.

Question 185

Sick Benefits

Answer 185

Means sick leave accrued in accordance with the relevant Collective Agreement.

Question 186

Sickness

Answer 186

Means an illness/injury that is not work related but which prevents a member from working or completing a tour of duty.

Question 187

Domestic Violence

Answer 187

Means any physical, sexual or psychological harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved in an intimate relationship including: • assault; • murder; • sexual assault; • threatening; • harassment; • intimidation; • unlawful interference with personal liberty; • any other criminal offence; • offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children’s Law Reform Act, etc.; but does not include child abuse investigations.

Question 188

Worker

Answer 188

Means any person who performs work or supplies services for monetary compensation, and includes a contractor or a volunteer such as an auxiliary member.

Question 189

Workplace

Answer 189

Means any land, premises, location or thing at, upon, in or near, which Service business is being conducted. This can include, but is not limited to: • Service facilities/buildings • Service vehicles • courthouses • any other location where Service business is being conducted.

Question 190

Workplace Violence

Answer 190

Means the exercise of physical force, or attempt, by a person against a worker in a workplace that causes or could cause physical injury to the worker. This includes a statement or behaviour that it is reasonable for the worker to interpret as a threat to exercise physical force against the worker.

Question 191

Workplace Harassment

Answer 191

Means engaging in a course of vexatious comment or conduct that is known or ought reasonably to be known to be unwelcome, or workplace sexual harassment. Harassment may be a one-time incident or repeated incidents. Workplace harassment does not include discipline or performance management.

Question 192

Workplace Sexual Harassment

Answer 192

Means engaging in a course of vexatious comment or conduct against a worker in a workplace because of sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or gender expression, where the course of comment or conduct is known or ought reasonably to be known to be unwelcome, or making a sexual solicitation or advance where the person making the solicitation or advance is in a position to confer, grant or deny a benefit or advancement to the worker and the person knows or ought reasonably to know that the solicitation or advance is unwelcome.

Question 193

Fitness For Duty

Answer 193

Means that a member is mentally, emotionally and physically able to safely and competently perform assigned duties, without any limitations attributable, but not limited to, illness, injury, fatigue, mental stress or the use and/or after effects of alcohol or drugs.

Question 194

Assistive/Prosthetic Device

Answer 194

Means a device used to replace, compensate for, or improve the functional abilities of people with disabilities or for trans or gender diverse persons to affirm gender identity. Assistive device includes a broad range of items such as mobility and visual/hearing aids, orthotics/prosthetics, speech devices, medical supplies, environmental controls and respiratory devices. Prosthetics used to express gender identity include: breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penises and wigs.

Question 195

Item of Religious Significance

Answer 195

Means any item, article, apparel, or clothing a person identifies as having religious importance.

Question 196

Returnable Property

Answer 196

Means property belonging to the prisoner, that has been removed from their possession, which is to be returned upon release from custody.

Question 197

Valuable Property

Answer 197

Means money, jewellery and other items that may make a prisoner the target of theft or robbery. Members shall refer to Procedure 01–01 for direction with respect to guide dogs.

Question 198

Access

Answer 198

Means the approach or point of entrance to the scene.

Question 199

Command Post

Answer 199

Means a place near the scene of an emergency incident where members report for instructions and information. The command post should be located at a safe distance and near other emergency services command posts.

Question 200

Egress

Answer 200

Means the exit or way out of the scene.

Question 201

Emergency

Answer 201

Means a situation or an impending situation that constitutes a danger of major proportions that could result in serious harm to persons or substantial damage to property and that is caused by the forces of nature, a disease or other health risk, an accident or an act whether intentional or otherwise. (Source: Emergency Management and Civil Protection Act, S. 1).

Question 202

Emergency Operations Centre (EOC)

Answer 202

Means a facility operated by the City of Toronto specifically established to conduct the overall management of an emergency. The Toronto Police Service is one of many agencies represented. The Toronto EOC is located at 703 Don Mills Road, 6th Floor.

Question 203

Emergency Preparedness Committee (EPC)

Answer 203

Is a committee, chaired by the Staff Superintendent – Public Safety Operations, comprised of subject matter experts from every command pillar within the Toronto Police Service (Service). The EPC focus is on mitigation, preparedness planning, response and recovery; ensuring appropriate planning, investigative and response capabilities are available within the Service.

Question 204

Hold and Secure

Answer 204

Means that all movement in and out of the school is restricted and external doors locked, however, movement within the school is not restricted as the external danger near the school poses no immediate threat to the students or staff unless they leave the building.

Question 205

Incident Commander Cadre (ICC)

Answer 205

Means Toronto Police Service Senior Officers who have been trained as incident commanders and are available 24/7 on an on–call basis and may be activated through the Inspector – Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO).

Question 206

Incident Management System (IMS)

Answer 206

Means the model of police on–site response to emergencies and disasters based on the Incident Command System, adopted by the Province of Ontario. The IMS provides the functional infrastructure necessary for the appropriate and efficient use of police resources.

Question 207

Management System (IMT)

Answer 207

Means Service members trained in IMS whose responsibilities are to attend the command post and manage site operations for Level 2 – Major Incidents and Level 3 – Disaster Incidents. Emergency Management & Public Order maintains a list of qualified team members.

Question 208

Level 1 – Emergency Response

Answer 208

Means the general response activities and resources to mitigate the situation of any incident. Members respond quickly to the report of an emergency situation to gather information, assess the situation, and determine whether additional members and specialized response is required. Many emergency incidents are resolved within a short period of time, using resources available at the divisional level.

Question 209

Level 2 – Major Incident

Answer 209

Means an emergency incident which exceeds a division’s normal operational resources and requires additional support, or multiple agency co–ordination at the site and some degree of external support. Level 2 - Major Incidents may continue for an extended period of time and require a site Command Post and/or the Major Incident Command Centre (MICC).

Question 210

Level 3 – Disaster Incident

Answer 210

Means an incident that may affect a significant portion of the population, may continue for a long period of time and may require an extensive recovery period. Response to a disaster may require the activation of the Major Incident Command Centre (MICC), the Emergency Operations Centre (EOC), political direction and support, and the official declaration of a disaster in accordance with Municipal Code 59 and the provincial Emergency Management and Civil Protection Act.

Question 211

Lockdown

Answer 211

Means that all movement in and out of the school and within the school is restricted as the danger is inside the school or is on school property and poses an immediate threat to the students or staff.

Question 212

Major Incident Command Centre (MICC)

Answer 212

Means the facility specifically established to coordinate the Service’s operational response to a major event or emergency. Emergency Management and Public Order (EM&PO) – Public Safety is tasked by Public Safety Operations with the care, maintenance and oversight of the MICC during operational periods. The MICC is located at Toronto Police Headquarters, 40 College Street, 12th Floor. However, it may be temporarily located offsite pending the unique circumstances of the major event or emergency.

Question 213

Material

Answer 213

Means a member of Corporate Communications who has been authorized by the Unit Commander – Corporate Communications to release information to the media.

Question 214

Shelter in Place

Answer 214

Requires that people enter and remain in a building with the doors and windows closed due to an external environmental threat. Fans, including heating and air conditioning units, should be turned off to prevent air from outside entering the building. Normal operations may continue within the building.

Question 215

Staging

Answer 215

Means a determined off–site location where responding personnel and appropriate equipment initially report to await details before entering the emergency site itself.

Question 216

Toronto Emergency Management Program Committee (TEMPC)

Answer 216

Means a committee comprised of the Mayor and key representatives from local boards, city agencies, and other agencies and organizations, responsible for the overall management of Level 3 – Disaster Incidents. During these emergencies, this group is collectively responsible for the direction and co–ordination of emergency response operations within the City.

Question 217

Unified Command

Answer 217

Means a team of people representing involved agencies with responsibility for the incident, which jointly provide management direction to an incident through a common set of incident objectives and strategies established at the command level. [Source: U.S. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)].

Question 218

Police Explosive Technician

Answer 218

Means any police officer who has completed the appropriate training as approved by the Chief of Police to maintain the appropriate knowledge, skills and abilities to perform their work.

Question 219

ETF Tactical Commander

Answer 219

Means a member of Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force (ETF) who has completed an Incident Commanders Hostage/Barricaded Persons course at the Canadian Police College, or other recognized Police training agency. Although the Incident Commander has control over all police response at an incident, the Supervisor – ETF will have control of all aspects of ETF tactical operations. In relation to a bomb threat and/or explosion, the Supervisor–Emergency Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) will have control of all aspects of EDU operations.

Question 220

Scene

Answer 220

Means the entire area of the incident, including both the inner and outer perimeters.

Question 221

Terrorism

Answer 221

Means the criminal use of violence, intimidation or coercion, or the threat of such violence to influence the behaviour of others by a terrorist activity.

Question 222

Immediate Rapid Response

Answer 222

Means that if there is an immediate threat to life in a school, officers shall enter the school to stop the threat in accordance with training.

Question 223

Lockdown

Answer 223

Means that all movement in and out of the school and within the school is restricted as the danger is inside the school or is on school property and poses an immediate threat to the students or staff.

Question 224

Parent Staging Area

Answer 224

Means a location where parents can initially report to and await details. Usually positioned off-site from the immediate emergency or threat. Ideally separate and exclusive from the emergency responders, equipment and media.

Question 225

Shelter in Place

Answer 225

Requires that people enter and remain in a building with the doors and windows closed due to an external environmental threat. Fans, including heating and air conditioning units, should be turned off to prevent air from outside entering the building. Normal operations may continue within the building.

Question 226

45- Day Status Update Form

Answer 226

(004-0306 OIPRD) means a form outlining the status of the investigation to the Office of the Independent Police Review (OIPRD).

Question 227

Alternative Dispute Resolution

Answer 227

Means mediation, conciliation, negotiation or any other means of facilitating the resolution of issues in dispute by a third party off site meeting. Association means the Toronto Police Association or the Toronto Police Senior Officers’ Organization.

Question 228

Attachments

Answer 228

In reference to complaints administration means correspondence, other than the TPS 901 or OIPRD form associated to a given complaint, which would include internal correspondence, facsimile, a letter written by the complainant, or any other relevant document.

Question 229

Civilian Member

Answer 229

Means any Service employee who is not a police officer, including employees classified as: • permanent; • temporary; • part–time; • summer help; • participants in the co–operative education program.

Question 230

Customer Service Resolution

Answer 230

Means an Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) process to handle complaints prior to engaging the screening process. All matters suitable for a Customer Service Resolution will be referred to Professional Standards by the OIPRD. These matters can be resolved by an agreement between all parties in lieu of a complaint being formalized by the OIPRD. No record of a customer service resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file.

Question 231

External Complaint

Answer 231

Means an allegation made by a member of the public: • in writing and signed on the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) form; and, • delivered to any Toronto Police Service (Service) facility or the OIPRD personally or by an agent, by mail, facsimile or by electronic mail (e–mail); and, • must concern the policies of, or the services provided by the Service or the conduct of a police officer; and, • classified by the OIPRD.

Question 232

Informal Resolution (External)

Answer 232

In reference to external complaints means where the conduct is deemed less serious and can be resolved through agreement from all parties after an OIPRD complaint has been lodged.

Question 233

Investigative Brief

Answer 233

Means a brief similar in content to a crown brief, in that it should be bound, the pages numbered sequentially, and include all video and audio recordings, or other electronic recordings, along with a transcript of same, and should be in a format as defined by Professional Standards Support – Prosecution Services.

Question 234

Less Serious Complaint Allegation

Answer 234

Means the conduct is not of a serious nature.

Question 235

Local Inquiry

Answer 235

Means when a local resolution process has commenced but is not completed, (e.g., complainant refuses to complete/sign a local resolution form).

Question 236

Local Resolution

Answer 236

Means the agreement that is reached between all parties when an external complaint is made directly to a police officer in lieu of being lodged with the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD). No record of a local resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file.

Question 237

Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD)

Answer 237

Means an independent civilian agency responsible for receiving, managing and overseeing all public complaints about the police in Ontario in accordance with the Police Services Act.

Question 238

Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) Liaison Officer

Answer 238

Means a Senior Officer of the Toronto Police Service designated by the Chief of Police to act as the liaison with the OIPRD relating to conduct investigations and adjudications.

Question 239

Ontario Civilian Police Commission (OCPC)

Answer 239

Means an independent oversight agency and is the appeal body for decisions made at police disciplinary proceedings.

Question 240

Party to a Complaint

Answer 240

Includes: • a person making a complaint under Part V of the Police Services Act • a police officer who is a witness officer in a complaint filed by a member of the public under Part V of the Police Services Act • the Chief of Police of the police service to which the complaint relates or • in the case of a complaint against the Chief of Police, the Police Services Board of the police service to which the complaint relates, and • may include any person added as a party by the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD).

Question 241

Report of Investigation

Answer 241

(004-0309 OIPRD) in reference to complaints means a report outlining the circumstances and investigative results of a complaint in the prescribed format as defined by the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD).

Question 242

Respondent Officer

Answer 242

Means a police officer who is the subject of a complaint filed by a member of the public under Part V of the Police Services Act, and may include a Chief of Police or Deputy Chief of Police.

Question 243

Serious Complaint Allegation

Answer 243

Means a matter that, at the discretion of the Chief of Police, is of public interest to be dealt with as a complaint under Part V of the Police Services Act. A serious complaint, if substantiated, must go to a disciplinary hearing.

Question 244

Side Issue

Answer 244

In reference to complaints means an issue identified during the course of the investigation concerning the policies or the services provided by the Toronto Police Service or the conduct of a police officer or a civilian member, which is not part of the original complaint.

Question 245

Substantiated

Answer 245

In reference to complaints means, based on the results of the investigation, there are reasonable grounds to believe the conduct of a police officer or civilian member constitutes misconduct.

Question 246

Unsubstantiated

Answer 246

In reference to complaints means a matter where: • insufficient evidence exists to support the allegation • evidence exists that, if believed, would not constitute misconduct • the identification of the police officer involved cannot be established.

Question 247

Witness Officer

Answer 247

In reference to complaints means a police officer who is not the respondent of a complaint.

Question 248

Association

Answer 248

Means the Toronto Police Association or the Toronto Police Senior Officers’ Organization.

Question 249

Informal Resolution (Internal)

Answer 249

In reference to internal complaints means if, at the conclusion of the investigation and upon review of the written report, the Unit Commander is of the opinion that there was misconduct and/or unsatisfactory work performance but that it was not of a serious nature, the Unit Commander may resolve the matter informally.

Question 250

Internal Complaint

Answer 250

Means an allegation from internal sources concerning the conduct of a police officer, or the policies or the services provided by the Toronto Police Service.

Question 251

Investigating Supervisor

Answer 251

In reference to complaints means a supervisor assigned to investigate a complaint and includes a Unit Complaint Coordinator (UCC).

Question 252

Report of Investigation (004-0309 OIPRD)

Answer 252

In reference to complaints means a report outlining the circumstances and investigative results of a complaint in the prescribed format as defined by the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD).

Question 253

Report of Investigation (Internal)

Answer 253

In reference to complaints means a report outlining the circumstances and investigative results of a complaint in a prescribed format as defined by Professional Standards – Complaints Administration.

Question 254

Subject Officer

Answer 254

In reference to complaints means a police officer who is alleged to have engaged in misconduct by an act or omission where a complaint has been made and the officer has been so designated by the investigating supervisor.

Question 255

External Complaint – Civilian

Answer 255

In reference to the civilian complaint and discipline process means an allegation made by a member of the public concerning the conduct of a civilian member.

Question 256

Internal Complaint – Civilian

Answer 256

In reference to the civilian complaint and discipline process means an allegation from internal sources concerning the conduct of a civilian member, or the policies or the services provided by the Toronto Police Service.

Question 257

Member

Answer 257

Unless otherwise specified, • for the purposes of the Standards of Conduct means any police officer, or any civilian member, or any auxiliary member; • for the purposes of the Service Procedures means any police officer, or any civilian member.

Question 258

Prohibited Grounds

Answer 258

Means the protected grounds under the Ontario Human Rights Code for which a person cannot discriminate. These include: age, ancestry, citizenship, colour, creed, disability, ethnic origin, family status, gender expression, gender identity, marital status (including single status), place of origin, race, receipt of public assistance (in housing only), record of offences (in employment only), sex (including discrimination based on pregnancy and breastfeeding), and sexual orientation.

Question 259

Remediation

Answer 259

Means the act of correcting a fault or deficiency and is often referred to as a remedy.

Question 260

Subject Member

Answer 260

In reference to the civilian complaint and discipline process means a civilian member who is alleged to have engaged in misconduct by an act or omission where a complaint has been made and the member has been so designated by the investigating supervisor.

Question 261

Unsubstantiated – Civilian Complaint

Answer 261

In reference to the civilian complaint and discipline process means a matter where: • insufficient evidence exists to support the allegation • evidence exists, and if believed, would not constitute misconduct / substantiated complaint • the identity of the member cannot be established.

Question 262

Witness Member

Answer 262

In reference to complaints means a civilian member who is not the subject of a complaint.

Question 263

Accommodation Factor

Answer 263

Means providing accommodation to persons with any disability, as defined in the Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act.

Question 264

Barrier

Answer 264

Means anything that prevents a person with a disability from fully participating in all aspects of society because of their disability, including a physical barrier, an architectural barrier, an information or communications barrier, an attitudinal barrier, a technological barrier, a policy or a practice. [Source: Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act, S.2]

Question 265

Individual Work Practices

Answer 265

Means the manner in which members manage their time, workload, and work environment.

Question 266

Management Practices

Answer 266

Means the supervisory practices used to control the work environment and to assign tasks, and the methods used to communicate standards. Also includes the manner in which training needs are met and equipment issues are resolved.

Question 267

Second–Level Supervisor

Answer 267

Means the supervisor who directly oversees a member’s supervisor.

Question 268

Service Governance

Answer 268

Includes: • Police Services Board Policies and By-laws • Toronto Police Service Collective Agreements • Standards of Conduct • Service Governance Definitions • Policy and Procedure Manual • Routine Orders • specialized manuals issued by the Chief of Police • unit-specific policies issued by their Unit Commander • CPIC messages, and • directions from a superior.

Question 269

Special Review

Answer 269

In reference to work performance means a two–part process involving an initial interview with the unit commander about management practices and/or accommodation factors, and a second phase that may include heightened monitoring of performance beyond the annual evaluation to improve an individual’s work performance.

Question 270

Sundry Duties

Answer 270

Means the tasks associated with a primary task defined in a civilian job description that are too numerous to list.

Question 271

Unsatisfactory Work Performance

Answer 271

Means a failure to meet an established standard and may involve a single event, or the cumulative effect of a number of less serious events (as defined in Chapter 13, Appendix A).

Question 272

Work Performance Deficiency

Answer 272

Means a failure to meet an established standard and may involve a single event, or the cumulative effect of a number of less serious events (as defined in Chapter 13, Appendix A).

Question 273

Complainant

Answer 273

In reference to human rights complaints means the person initiating a Human Rights Code complaint.

Question 274

Discrimination

Answer 274

Means any distinction, conduct or action, either by intention or not, on the basis of any prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code, which has the impact of excluding persons, denying benefits or imposing burdens on an individual or group, which are not imposed on others or which withholds or limits access to benefits available to others.

Question 275

Gender:

Answer 275

The set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, trans people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both or neither.

Question 276

Gender Expression

Answer 276

Is how a person publicly presents their gender. This can include behaviour and outward appearance such as dress, hair, make-up, body language and voice. A person’s chosen name and pronoun are also common and important ways of expressing gender.

Question 277

Gender identity

Answer 277

Is each person’s internal and individual experience of gender. It is their sense of being a woman, a man, both, neither, or anywhere along or beyond the gender spectrum. A person’s gender identity may be the same as or different from the typical pairing with their birth-assigned sex. Gender identity is fundamentally different from a person’s sexual orientation.

Question 278

Harassment

Answer 278

Means engaging in a course of vexatious comment or conduct that is known or ought reasonably to be known to be unwelcome. [Source: ss. 10(1), Human Rights Code]

Question 279

Human Rights Complaint

Answer 279

Means an alleged violation of a prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code.

Question 280

Human Rights Tribunal of Ontario (HRTO)

Answer 280

Means the independent provincial government agency who receives Human Rights Code complaint applications and assists parties to resolve complaints through mediation and/or a hearing.

Question 281

Offensive Material

Answer 281

Means the possession, reproduction, circulation, dissemination, publication or posting of any material that may be considered offensive or insensitive under the Human Rights Code in any area of a Toronto Police Service facility.

Question 282

Ontario Human Rights Commission (OHRC)

Answer 282

Means an independent government agency that provides leadership for the promotion, protection and advancement of human rights and builds partnerships across the human rights system (but does not receive Human Rights Code complaints).

Question 283

Poisoned/Toxic Work Environment

Answer 283

Means harassing or discriminatory behaviours, that are sufficiently severe and/or pervasive, that causes significant and unreasonable interference to a member’s work environment. A poisoned/toxic work environment can interfere with and/or undermine work performance and can cause emotional and psychological stress not experienced by other members. As such, it results in unequal terms and conditions of employment and prevents or impairs full and equal enjoyment of employment, benefits, or opportunities.

Question 284

Racially Biased Policing

Answer 284

Occurs when a member of a police service inappropriately considers race or ethnicity in deciding how and with whom to intervene in an enforcement capacity. Racial Biased Policing includes racial profiling.

Question 285

Respondent – Human Rights Complaint

Answer 285

Means the member who is the subject of a Human Rights Code complaint.

Question 286

Sex

Answer 286

The classification of people as male, female or intersex based on a specific combination of reproductive organs, chromosomes and hormones and assigned at birth based on observation of a person’s genitals.

Question 287

Stereotyping

Answer 287

Means that particular roles and characteristics are attributed to people on the basis of a prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code.

Question 288

Systemic Discrimination

Answer 288

Means policies or practices in the workplace that create or perpetuate a position of relative disadvantage for some individuals/groups, on the basis of prohibited grounds.

Question 289

Trans:

Answer 289

Is an umbrella term referring to people with diverse gender identities and expressions that differ from their assigned sex at birth. It includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at birth who knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man), non-binary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity. Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents that reflect their lived identity.

Question 290

Administrative Investigation

Answer 290

Means a police investigation to review the policies of, or services provided by the Service and the conduct of its police officers pursuant to s. 11 of Ontario Regulation 267/10 made under the Police Services Act. (When the Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10.) Affected Person means, in relation to an incident where the Special Investigations Unit mandate has been or may be invoked, a person who died or was seriously injured, a person at whom a firearm was discharged, or a person who reported that they were sexually assaulted.

Question 291

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) Liaison Officer

Answer 291

Means a uniform senior officer of the Toronto Police Service designated, in writing, by the Chief of Police to act as the main liaison with the SIU in all matters relating to SIU investigations. The Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer oversees the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority Cadre and Professional Standards Support SIU Liaison Section while in the field.

Question 292

Incident Notes

Answer 292

Means, only in relation to an incident where the Special Investigations Unit mandate is or may be invoked, notes made in the members Service-issued memorandum book or case book about the incident giving rise to the SIU mandate being invoked. Incident notes do not include other types of notes such as occurrence reports, arrest reports, use of force reports, duty reports, logs or canine training records. All incident notes shall be completed by the end of tour of duty, unless otherwise authorized by the Chief’s Special Investigations Unit On-Call Designated Authority.

Question 293

Police Officer – SIU Investigations

Answer 293

In reference to Special Investigations Unit (SIU) investigations means a police officer engaged in the execution or purported execution of duty. Off–duty events may be subject to an SIU investigation. For example, but not limited to, the following events: • where a police officer verbally identifies themselves as a police officer; • where a police officer produces police identification; • where a police officer engages in an investigation; • where a police officer uses police equipment or property; • where a police officer operates a Service vehicle; or • where a police officer otherwise engages their oath of office. The decision to contact the SIU in such circumstances will be at the discretion o the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority or, in their absence, the Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre. Civilian members including Court Officers, Parking Enforcement Officers and Special Constables are not included in the definition of a police officer for the purposes of the SIU.

Question 294

Professional Standards Support Special Investigations (SIU) Liaison Investigator

Answer 294

Means the investigator assigned to the Professional Standards Support - SIU Liaison Section that support the Chief's SIU On-Call Designated Authority and oversees all investigations required under Section 11 of Ontario Regulation 267/10. (When the Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10.)

Question 295

Serious Injury

Answer 295

In reference to Special Investigations Unit investigations, a person sustains serious injury if they: • sustain an injury as a result of which they are admitted to a hospital; • suffer a fracture to the skull, limb, rib, or vertebra; • suffer burns to a significant proportion of their body • lose any portion of their body; • as a result of an injury, experience a loss of vision or hearing; or • sustains a prescribed injury.

Question 296

Subject Official – SIU Investigations

Answer 296

Means, in respect of an incident referred to in SIUA ss. 15 (1), an official whose conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Director, to have been a cause of the incident. The Subject Official must be provided with a notice of their designation in writing.

Question 297

Witness Official – SIU Investigations

Answer 297

Means an official who, in the opinion of the SIU Director, is involved in an incident referred to in SIUA ss.15 (1), but is not a Subject Official in relation to the incident. The Witness Official must be provided with a notice of their designation in writing.

Question 298

Misconduct

Answer 298

Means any conduct that is contrary to or a breach of any Legislative or Service Governance or the Police Services Act.

Question 299

Authorized Range

Answer 299

Means a range • operated by the Service, or; • operated by another Ontario police service, or; • that is a privately owned and provincially approved shooting range, or; • operated by the Department of National Defence (DND).

Question 300

Conducted Energy Weapon (CEW)

Answer 300

Means a weapon that primarily uses propelled wires to conduct energy that affects the sensory and/or motor functions of the central nervous system.

Question 301

Dispatching of an Animal

Answer 301

Means the discharge of a firearm for the purpose of ending the life of an animal that is potentially dangerous, or is so badly injured that humanity dictates that its suffering be ended.

Question 302

Firearm

Answer 302

For the purposes of use of force, means a Service issued or authorized firearm.

Question 303

Firearm Discharge

Answer 303

Means when a Service member, other than at an authorized range or under the exemption provisions, discharges a firearm in the performance of their duty, or discharges an issued firearm at any time, intentionally or unintentionally. For the purposes of use of force, Firearm Discharge also includes discharges that occur at an authorized range or under the exemption provisions that result in injury or death.

Question 304

Firearm Discharge Investigator (FDI)

Answer 304

Means a detective or detective sergeant assigned to Professional Standards who has completed the accredited Firearm Discharge Investigators Course.

Question 305

Handgun

Answer 305

Means a firearm that is designed, altered or intended to be aimed and fired by the action of one hand. [Source: Police Services Act, O.Reg. 926/90, S.2].

Question 306

Service Members’ Perception Data

Answer 306

Means information derived from a member making a determination with respect to the race of an individual by observation, solely on the basis of that member’s own perception.

Question 307

Incident Review Committee (IRC)

Answer 307

Means a panel consisting of, but not limited to the: • Unit Commander or designate – Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force • Unit Commander or designate – Corporate Risk Management • Section Head – Toronto Police College (TPC) – Armament Section • Section Head – TPC – In–Service Training Section • Training Analyst – TPC – Armament Section • Representative – East Field • Representative – West Field • Representative – Emergency Management & Public Order – Public Safety whose mandate it is to • review incidents other than those listed in the exempted areas, where force was used by members of the Service • assess the effectiveness of the Service’s training, practices and associated Service Governance, and report its findings to the Senior Management Team (SMT).

Question 308

Accidental Discharge

Answer 308

Means an unintentional discharge of a service firearm or less lethal shotgun by a police officer that is not the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

Question 309

Administrative Load

Answer 309

Means the manner in which a gun is loaded, in accordance with training, to ensure safety.

Question 310

Less Lethal Shotgun

Answer 310

Means a designated shotgun which uses less lethal impact munitions and is designed to be braced against the shoulder when fired.

Question 311

Negligent Discharge

Answer 311

Means an intentional or unintentional discharge of a service firearm or less lethal shotgun by a police officer that is the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

Question 312

Qualified in the Use of a Less Lethal Shotgun

Answer 312

Means a police officer qualified by the Toronto Police College – Armament Section to use a less lethal shotgun and who has attended and passed less lethal shotgun recertification training before the 12–month expiry of the date of certification of the previous year.

Question 313

Accidental Discharge of a CEW

Answer 313

Means an unintentional discharge of a Service CEW by a police officer that is not the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

Question 314

Conducted Energy Weapon (CEW)

Answer 314

Means a weapon that primarily uses propelled wires to conduct energy that affects the sensory and/or motor functions of the central nervous system.

Question 315

Conducted Energy Weapon Use

Answer 315

Means Demonstrated Force Presence, Drive Stun Mode, Full Deployment, or an unintentional discharge.

Question 316

Demonstrated Force Presence (DFP)

Answer 316

Means that the conducted energy weapon is un-holstered and displayed in the presence of a subject with the intention to achieve behaviour compliance.

Question 317

Drive Stun Mode (DSM)

Answer 317

Means when the conducted energy weapon is placed in direct contact with the subject and the current is applied without the probes being propelled.

Question 318

Full Deployment (FD)

Answer 318

Means the conducted energy weapon is used wherein the probes are fired at a subject and the electrical pulse applied. In this mode, the device is designed to override the subject’s nervous system and affect both the sensory and motor functions causing incapacitation.

Question 319

Negligent Discharge of a CEW

Answer 319

Means an intentional or unintentional discharge of a Service CEW by a police officer that is the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

Question 320

Qualified in the Use of a CEW

Answer 320

Means a police officer qualified by the Toronto Police College - Armament Section to use a CEW and who has attended and passed CEW training before the 12-month expiry of the date of certification of the previous year.

Question 321

Subject (Conducted Energy Weapon)

Answer 321

In reference to conducted energy weapon use includes either a person or an animal.

Question 322

Abandon Pursuit

Answer 322

Means the discontinuation of a pursuit when police officers are no longer pursuing a fleeing motor vehicle for the purpose of stopping or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle. [Source: Police Services Act, O.Reg. 266/10, ss.1(2)]

Question 323

Pursuit Supervisor

Answer 323

Means a communications supervisor or, if unavailable, a road supervisory officer.

Question 324

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit (Pursuit)

Answer 324

Occurs when a police officer attempts to direct the driver of a motor vehicle to stop, the driver refuses to obey the police officer, and the police officer pursues in a motor vehicle for the purpose of stopping the fleeing motor vehicle, or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle, or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle. [Source: Police Services Act, O.Reg. 266/10, ss.1(1)]

Question 325

Unmarked Police Vehicle

Answer 325

In reference to pursuits, means all vehicles, other than a marked police vehicle, that are owned or operated by the Service. This includes vehicles commonly known as “stealth” vehicles and “clean top” vehicles.

Question 326

Appearance Standards

Answer 326

Refers to the standards set by the Service with respect to hair, sideburns, beards, goatees, moustache, jewellery and clothing.

Question 327

Member – Uniform & Equipment

Answer 327

In reference to uniform, equipment and appearance standards, includes a police officer, civilian member, and auxiliary member.

Question 328

Secure Area

Answer 328

Means an area in a police facility which has been designated by the Unit Commander as restricted access and which cannot be accessed or viewed by the public.

Question 329

Service Vehicle

Answer 329

Means any vehicle, vessel, aircraft or bicycle owned or operated by the Service and used to perform duties on behalf of the Service. This includes vehicles leased, owned, or rented by or loaned to the Service, or a Service trailer which is towed by a Service vehicle.

Question 330

Activate

Answer 330

Means a process which causes the In-Car Camera to capture audio and/or video recordings.

Question 331

Deactivate

Answer 331

Means a process which causes the In-Car Camera to stop capturing audio and/or video recordings.

Question 332

Digital Video Asset Management System (DVAMS)

Answer 332

Means a networked automated video solution that creates, stores, manages, and distributes video evidence via the Video Services Unit. DVAMS assets can be viewed and disclosure ordered from any workstation on the Toronto Police Service network.

Question 333

In-Car Camera System (ICCS)

Answer 333

Means any in–car recording equipment that captures audio and visual signals, and may also be referred to as a Mobile Video Recording System.

Question 334

In-Car Camera System (ICCS) Technician

Answer 334

Means a Toronto Police Service member trained in the operational use and repair of In–Car Camera Systems. NOTE: Some technicians may not be trained to repair an ICCS, but specialize in duplicating methods, storage and retrieval methods and procedures, and possess a working knowledge of video forensics and evidentiary procedures.

Question 335

Special Investigations Unit (SIU) Mandate pursuant to Part VII PSA

Answer 335

Means that the SIU is legislated to investigate the circumstances of serious injury or death that may have resulted through criminal offences committed by a police officer. The death or serious injury is in relation to a citizen, another police officer or other member of the Service. The SIU mandate may be invoked for deaths or serious injuries that occur in circumstances where there has been police engagement. For example, but not limited to injuries or death occurring: - in the course of making an arrest - in the course of a suspect apprehension pursuit - while in police custody - while in the hospital following apprehension or police custody; or - allegations of sexual assault.