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Definition of Terms Flashcards

1
Q

fluid obtained from a cyst of a dog tapeworm
source of P1 substance
can be used to neutralize anti-P1

A

Hydatid cyst

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2
Q

gamma or electron treatment of a cellular blood product to prevent transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD)

A

Irradiation

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3
Q

nonpenetrating cryoprotective agent added to protect cells against damage

A

Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)

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4
Q

number of charged particles in a solution

A

Ionic strength

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5
Q

decreased in body temperature

A

Hypothermia

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6
Q

transfusion administered to a fetus while still in the uterus

A

Intrauterine transfusion

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7
Q

reaction of the body to respond and recognize foreign substances

A

Immune response

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8
Q

type of immune response induced by initial exposure to the antigens

A

Primary immune response

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9
Q

type of immune response induced by second exposure to an antigen

also known as ________

A

Secondary immune response

Anamnestic response

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10
Q

refers to passing of one gene from each parent to the offspring

A

Independent segregation

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11
Q

in reference to glycoprotein or glycolipid antigens, it is the sugar molecule that gives the antigen its specificity

A

Immunodominant sugar

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12
Q

immunodominant sugar: L-fucose

A

H antigen specificity

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13
Q

immunodominant sugar: N-acetyl-D-galactosamine

A

A antigen specificity

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14
Q

immunodominant sugar: D-galactose

A

B antigen specificity

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15
Q

refers to random behavior of genes on separate chromosome inherited separately from each other

A

Independent assortment

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16
Q

any substance capable of stimulating an immune response

A

Immunogen

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17
Q

in vitro reaction in which under certain condition of time and temperature allow antigen-antibody complex to occur

A

Incubation

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18
Q

ability of an antigen to stimulate an antibody response

A

Immunogenicity

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19
Q

while fetus is in the uterus

A

In utero

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20
Q

synonym for an antibody

A

Immunoglobulin

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21
Q

presence of agglutination or hemolysis in compatibility testing

A

Incompatible

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22
Q

study of blood-related antigens and antibodies

A

Immunohematology

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23
Q

rare dominant gene that inhibits the production of all Lutheran antigens

A

In Lu

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24
Q

yellow appearance of the skin, sclera of the eyes and body secretions caused by increased bilirubin level

A

Jaundice

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25
Q

manner by which a gene is passed from one generation to another

A

Mode of Inheritance

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26
Q

type of inheritance patterns

trait manifested by people who are homozygous for the alleles
both parents who do not express the trait may be carrier or heterozygous for the recessive allele.

give examples!

A

Autosomal recessive

ex. Rh negative (dd), Lu (a-b-), Bombay phenotype

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27
Q

type of inheritance patterns

trait appears much more frequently in males than in females due to inheritance from carrier mothers

give example!

A

Sex-Linked recessive

Ex. Hemophilia A

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28
Q

type of inheritance patterns

traits transmitted to all daughters of affected father but not to sons

give example!

A

Sex-linked dominant

Ex. Xga blood group

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29
Q

type of inheritance patterns

trait that appears when the gene that has been inherited can be found in each generation occurs with equal frequency in males and females

give example!

A

Autosomal dominant

Ex. Most blood group system

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30
Q

condition due an increase in uncojugated bilirubin

A

Kernicterus

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31
Q

type of agglutination pattern where a population of the red cells has agglutinated and the remainder of the red cells are not agglutinated

A

Mixed field agglutination

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32
Q

test performed on a maternal blood specimen to detec fetal maternal hemorrhage

A

Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test

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33
Q

common drug used in the treatment of hypertension

frequently the cause of a positive DAT

A

Methy dopa (Aldomet)

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34
Q

states that ABO antibodies are present in plasma/serum when the corresponding ABO blood antigens are not present on the erythrocytes

A

Landsteiner law

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35
Q

replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hour interval

A

Massive transfusion

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36
Q

condition of an abnormal presence of high molecular weight immunoglobulins

A

Macroglobulinemia

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37
Q

seed extract capable of agglutinating red cells carrying the corresponding antigen

A

Lectin

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38
Q

anti-A1

agglutinate red cells with A1 antigen

A

Dolichos biflorus

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39
Q

anti-T

agglutinate red cells with T antigen

A

Arachis hypogea

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40
Q

anti-N

agglutinate red cells with N antigen

A

Vicia graminea

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41
Q

anti-H

agglutinate red cells with H antigen

A

Ulex europaeus

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42
Q

anti-M

agglutinate red cells with M antigen

A

Iberis amara

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43
Q

anti-Tn

agglutinate red cells with Tn antigen

A

Salvia sclaera

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44
Q

location of a gene on a chromosome

A

Locus

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45
Q

graph used to predict severity of HDN during pregnancy by evaluation of the amniotic fluid

A

Liley Graph

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46
Q

moderate disease in liley graph

A

Liley graph Zone II

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47
Q

mild or no disease in liley graph

A

Liley graph Zone I

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48
Q

severe disease in liley graph

A

Liley graph Zone III

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49
Q

an antigen composed of several units or subpart such as the Rho (D) antigen

A

Mosaic (Du variant)

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50
Q

D antigen with complete subpart

A

Rh ABCD

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51
Q

D antigen with missing A-subpart
D antigen with missing B-subpart
D antigen with missing C-subpart
D antigen with missing D-subpart

A

Rh aBCD
Rh AbCD
Rh ABcD
Rh ABCd

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52
Q

basic building blocks of DNA

it is composed of ___, ____, ___

A

Nucleotide

sugar, base and phosphate group

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53
Q

woman having borne more than one child

A

Multiparous

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54
Q

also known as agglutination-inhibition

refers to absence of agglutination due to the inability of an antibody to react with red cell antigen because of previously boud soluble substance

principle involved in _____

A

Neutralization

Saliva testing

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55
Q

malignant neoplasm of the bone marrow characterized by abnormal proteins in the plasma and urine

A

Multiple myeloma

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56
Q

enzyme that cleaves sialic acid from the RBC membrance

A

Neuraminidase

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57
Q

fusion of a malignant and normal cell that produces large quantities of monoclonal antibodies

A

Murine hydbridoma

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58
Q

newborn infant up to 4mos of age

A

Neonate

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59
Q

group of sugars on the RBC membrance attached to a protein backbone

major source of the membrane’s net negative charge

A

NANA (Sialic acid)

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60
Q

relating to birth

before birth ___
after birth ___

A

Neonatal

Prenatal
Postnatal

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61
Q

any individual who fails to express any antigens on the red cells

A

Null phenotype

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62
Q

products that are transfused in patients suffering from hypovolemia (decrease plasma volume) or indicated among burn and shock patients

A

Plasma Volume Expander

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63
Q

2 types of plasma derived volume expander and their components

A

NSA - Normal Serum Albumin
96% albumin + 4% globulin

PPF - Plasma Protein Fraction
83% albumin + 17% globulin

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64
Q

2 types of synthetic volume expander and their components

A

CRYSTALLOIDS

  • Ringer’s Lactate (Na, Cl, K, Ca, Lactate ions)
  • Normal Saline Solution (0.85%-0.9% NaCl)

COLLOIDS

  • Dextran (6-10%)
  • HES (hydroethyl starch)
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65
Q

2 classification of plasma volume expander

A

Plasma derived volume expander
and
Synthetic volume expander

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66
Q

chemical compound formed by a small umber of simple carbohydrate molecules

A

Oligosaccharide chain

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67
Q

fibrinogen containing liquid portion of anticoagulated blood

can be used as a specimen for backward typing to detect ANTIBODIES

what is the disadvantage of this specimen in backward typing?

A

Plasma

Can bring about rouleaux formation

68
Q

type of plasma

subjected to sift spin
leaving a plasma that contains high number of platelets

A

PRP - Platelet Rich Plasma

69
Q

type of plasma

subjected to heavy spin
leaving a plasma almost free of platelets

A

PPP - Platelet Poor Plasma

70
Q

required temperature in Celsius by which ANTIBODY is most reactive

give its types

A

Optimum temperature

1-6’C/20-24’C ( cold temperature/room temperature) IgM cold reactive antibody

37’C (warm temperature) IgG warm reacting antibody

71
Q

extra blood sample collected during whole blood donation

this is intended for _____

A

Pilot tube

Serological test

72
Q

spontaneous clumping of RBC against a given serum

A

Panagglutination

73
Q

initial treatment of elevated bilirubin using lights

A

Phototheraphy

74
Q

group O reagent RBC

used for antibody identification

A

Panel cell

75
Q

detectable characteristics of genes

76
Q

woman who had at least one pregnancy

A

Primiparous

77
Q

diagrammatic chart used for illustrating the inheritance patterns of traits in a family study

A

Pedigree chart

78
Q

type of CAHA

biphasic IgG antibody can be demonstrated with anti-P specificity

A

Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria

79
Q

chance that the alleged father is the biological father

A

Paternity index

80
Q

D antigen that is missing part of its typical antigenic structure

81
Q

inability of the patient to respond favorably after platelet transfusion thus the desired increment in platelet is not achieved

A

Platelet refractoriness

82
Q

refers to the required speed in a given time to sediment particles from a fluid mixture

give its formula

A

Relative Centrifugal Force (RCF)

RCF = (1.118x10^5)(radius)(rpm)^2

83
Q

spontaneous agglutination of red cells by most normal ADULT sera

REGARDLESS of blood group

A

Polyagglutination

84
Q

person who benefits and receives blood transfusion

85
Q

blood group system showing several allelic forms therefore rendering more than one alternative phenotype

A

Polymorphism

86
Q

close monitoring of laboratory operations to allow maximum reliability of the test result

A

Quality Control

87
Q

referring to after child birth

A

post partum

88
Q

ensures a laboratory to operate with the most minimal errors

A

Quality Assurance

89
Q

relative strength of an antibody present in a given antiserum

usually expressed in ___

A

Potency

Titer

90
Q

what is therequired potency of Anti-A and Anti-B

91
Q

2x2 grid used for gene combination

A

Punnett square

92
Q

any substance that enhancess Ag-Ab interaction from a given cell serum mixture

may be used to detect low-titered antibodies in routine testing

A

Potentiator

93
Q

type of potentiator

a positively charged polymer
reduces zeta potential by neutralizing the negative charge in the red cell

useful in identification of antibodies in the _____

A

Polybrene

Kidd Blood group system

94
Q

type of potentiator

concentrated antibody in the mixture through removal of water

A

Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)

95
Q

type of potentiator

has a lower ionic strength that increases the rate of antibody association

how long is the shortened incubation for this potentiator

give its composition

A

LISS - Low Ionic Strength Saline Solution

5-15 minutes

0.2% NaCl in glycine

96
Q

disease of unknown cause
most frequently seen among premature infants
characterized by acute difficulty in breathing

formerly known as _____

A

Respiratory Distress Sydrome

Hyaline membrane disease

97
Q

process of allowing interaction or attachment of an incomplete antibody to red cell antigen but no subsequent agglutination reaction seen

A

Sensitization

98
Q

kind of sensitization

attachment of a serum antibody to red cell antigen
done in a TUBE

A

In vitro sensitization

99
Q

kind of sensitization

attachment of a serum antibody to red cell antigen
happens intravascularly

A

In vivo sensitization

100
Q

synonym for antigens in the Rh blood group system

101
Q

group O cells with complete profile of antigens used in antibody detection

A

Screening cells

102
Q

concentrated and purified anti-D
prophylactic/preventive treatment to Rh (-) person who is exposed to D-antigen

2 ways on how a person is exposed to D-antigen

A

Rh Immune Globulin (RhIg)

pregnancy and blood transfusion

103
Q

additional blood bag attached to the primary bag

what is the use of this?

A

Satellite bags

for component preparation

104
Q

inherited characteristtic

decreased expression of Rh antigens

105
Q

method of getting a sample to an individual

prior to actual blood transfusion ___
after actual blood transfusion ___

A

Sampling

Pre Transfusion Sampling
Post Transfusion Sampling

106
Q

phenotype of a person who suffers from anemia

red cells do not express any Rh antigens

107
Q

procedure used to determine blood group soluble substances

useful in establishing REAL BLOOD GROUP if the expression is so weak to be detected by routine cell typing

A

Saliva testing

108
Q

one of the 2 major categories of saliva testing

acquired Se gene either homozygous (SeSe) or heterozygous (Sese)
capable of producing ABH substances in secretions

109
Q

one of the 2 major categories of saliva testing

does not inherit the Se gene (sese)
incapable of producing ABH substances in secretions

A

Non secretor

110
Q

what are the two factors that can differentiate secretor from non-secretor

A
  1. Se gene inheritance

2. production of ABH substances

111
Q

used to detect fetomaternal hemorrhage based on the ability of fetal cells to aggreagate around indicator cells

give its components

A

Rossette test

0.2%-0.5% O-cell suspension, R2R2 red blood cell

112
Q

appearance resembles stacks of coins

associated with the use of plasma expanders or presence of abnormal plasma proteins

A

Rouleaux formation

113
Q

systemic disease caused by the presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the body

presence of microbes in blood

A

Septicemia

114
Q

reagent that can be used to disperse agglutination caused by cold reactive IgM autoantibodies

useful in differentiating IgM from IgG antibodies

A

Thiol reagent

115
Q

give 2 example of thiol reagent

A
  1. DTT - dithiothreitol

2. 2-ME - 2-mercaptoethanol

116
Q

yellowish liquid portion of blood after clotting or centrifugation

can be a source of antibody

117
Q

refers to removal of blood components for treatment purposes

A

Therapeutic Phlebotomy (Therapeutic Apheresis)

118
Q

refers to the required drops of serum to mix with certain drops of red cell suspension to achieve greater reactivity

give examples of serum to cell ratio and its corresponding drops

A

Serum to Cell ratio

40: 1 ratio - 2 drops serum to 1 drop 5% red cell suspension
133: 1 ratio - 4 drops serum to 1 drop 3% red cell suspension

119
Q

brief loss of consciousness related to fainting

120
Q

length of time when blood can still be used before it expires

usually related to type of anticoagulant used

A

Shell life (expiration date)

121
Q

give examples of blood shell life

A

21 days after collection: ACD, CPD, CP2D

35 days after collection: CPDA-1

122
Q

refers to boundary of the ionic cloud surrounding RBC in saline at which zeta potential is measured

A

Surface of Shear (slipping plane)

123
Q

severe physiologic reaction to trauma

characterized by ____ (4)
leads to _____

A

Shock

pallor, cyanosis, weak rapid pulse, drop in BP

unconsciousness

124
Q

these are antigens within ABO group that are weakly expressed thus react less strongly with their corresponding antibody

often leads to ABO discrepancy

125
Q

chemical preservative

used in commercial typing sera to prevent bacterial contamination

A

Sodium azide (0.1%)

126
Q

biochemical changes happening on blood upon in vitro storage

A

Storage lesion

127
Q

characteristic of an antibody to react with cell expressing the corresponding antigen only

Anti-A will react to A-antigen but not to B-antigen in red cell

A

Specificity

128
Q

reciprocal of the highest dilution that shows a visible reaction

129
Q

it is the weaker variant of D antigen that is detectable only through indirect antihuman globulin test

A

Weak D (Du)

130
Q

Classification of Weak D

A

Acquired Du
Hereditary Du
Du variant/Mosaic

131
Q

Grades of Weak D

does not require AHG for detection ___
requires AHG for detection ___

A

High grade

Low grade

132
Q

inherited characteristic based from gene action

133
Q

successive suspension of whole blood with NSS, centrifugation and decantation of supernantant liquid

widely used in preparation of red cell suspension

134
Q

washing is done how many times___

purpose of washing ___

A

3 times

to remove interfering substances which is present in plasma

135
Q

administration of blood or its component intravenously

A

Transfusion

136
Q

kind of transfusion

transfusion of blood stored in blood bag coming from a homologous donor

A

Indirect transfusion

137
Q

kind of transfusion

blood transfusion to fetus in utero

A

Intrauterine tranfusion

138
Q

kind of transfusion

transfer of blood directly from one person to another

A

Direct transfusion

139
Q

kind of transfusion

used in infants with HDN
refers t withdrawal of small volume of blood and subsequent replacement with compatible blood

A

Exchange transfusion

140
Q

kind of transfusion

blood taken from a patient to be used for the same patient

A

Autologous transfusion

141
Q

colorless crystalline compound widely used as an anticlotting drug

142
Q

mechanism of action of warfarin

A

inhibiting synthesis of vitamin K dependent factors: II, VII. IX and X

143
Q

what does warfarin mean

A

Wisconsin Alumni Research Foundation + (Coum) arin

144
Q

give examples of warfarin

A
  1. Coumadin
  2. Panwarfin
  3. Sofarin
145
Q

batch test that include ABO, Rh and antibody screening test

A

Type and Screen (T/S)

146
Q

plasma cell dyscrasia characterize by excessive production of gamma M globulin

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglubulinemia

147
Q

set of guidelines developed to protect healthcare workers from exposure to infectious agents

A

Universal precaution

148
Q

ability of red cell to survive in vivo after tranfusion

149
Q

vascular skin reaction commonly signalling allergic reaction

A

Urticaria (hives)

150
Q

refers to type O and type Ab individuals who are considered popularly as universal donor and recipient respectively

A

Universality concept

151
Q

adverse reaction happening to a patient following transfusion of a unit of blood or its components

A

Transfusion reaction

152
Q

thick gelatinous substance rich in hyaluronic acid that make up the matrix of the umbilical cord

A

Wharton’s Jelly

153
Q

used to dissociate IgG molecules from erythrocytes showing positive DAT reaction

154
Q

components of ZZAP

A

0.1 M dithiothreitol + 0.1% cysteine-activated papain

155
Q

period of time when the disease is present but tested serologically negative

A

Window period

156
Q

reaction that is influenced by the amount of antigen and antibody from the cell-serum mixture

A

Zonal reaction

157
Q

type of zonal reaction

zone of maximum or greatest reaction

A

equivalence zone

158
Q

type of zonal reaction

zone of antibody excess (happens if more serum is added)

159
Q

type of zonal reaction

zone of antigen excess (happens if red cell suspension is to heavy)

160
Q

presence of what zone will the result of the test leads to false negative

A

prozone or postzone

161
Q

soluble haptenic forms of A and B antigens capable of neutralizing their corresponding antibodies

A

Witebsky substance

162
Q

net negative charge of red cell measured at the surface of shear, if it is reduced, red cells tend to become closer to each other and therefore easier to agglutinate

A

Zeta potential

163
Q

what particular component makes up the matrix of the umbilical cord

A

hyaluronic acid

164
Q

blood group whose genes are located in the X-chromosome

A

Xg blood group

165
Q

what Xg blood group is seen in greates frequency among females than males

A

Xga antigen

Blood Banking (1 decks)

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