Definition Flashcards

1
Q

Nervous system

A

Is composed of two types of cells neurons in neuroglia.
Is the body’s control center and communications net work. It performs these functions.
1) stimulates movement
2) senses changes both within and outside the body
3) provides us with thought, learning, and memory
4) maintains homeostasis (a dynamic equilibrium of the internal environment of the body) along with the help of the hormonal system.

Is the net work of structures, that activates, coordinates, and controls all functions of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Receptors

A

Detect changes inside and outside the body
Sensory nerve endings that respond to stimuli are called……

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Integrative functions

A

Creates sensations, produce, thoughts and memory, and make decisions,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Motor

A

Enable us to respond to stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Nervous
Neutral

A

Means pertaining to a nerve or nerves, but the nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord, as well as the nerves 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

To principal divisions of the nervous system page 479

A

1) Central Nervous System (CNS): Brain and spinal cord

2) Peripheral Nervous System (PNS): Various nerves and nerve masses that connect the brain and spinal cord with receptors, muscles, and glands
Is made up of nerves that take impulses away from and toward the CNS to receptors, muscles, and glands,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Two divisions of the CNF

A

Brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Two systems of the PNS

A

The sensory or afferent system and the motor or efferent system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Afferent system

A

Conveys information from the receptors to the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Efferent system

A

Conveys information from the CNS to muscles and glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neurons

A

Conduct impulses either to or from the CNS
If a neuron is destroyed, it cannot replace itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Neuroglia or glia cells

A

Provide special support and protection

are the supporting structure of the nervous system (provide support and protection)

Are the supporting structures of nervous tissue

Neuroglia are far more numerous, the neurons, and, because they can reproduce, are the only source of primary malignant brain tumors, those are originating in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Neuron or
nerve cell

A

Is the basic unit of the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Neurons

A

Carry out the function of the nervous system by conducting nerve impulses. Each neuron has a cell body, a single axon, and one or more dendrites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Axon and
dendrites

A

Are cytoplasmic projections, or processes, that extend from the cell body. They are sometimes called nerve fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Axon

A

Carries impulses from the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dendrites

A

Transmit impulses to the cell body.
Is a cytoplasmic projection and has numerous branches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Myelin sheath

A

Is a white lipid covering that surrounds axons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

White matter

A

Myelinated axons appear whitish and are called ….

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Gray matter

A

The axons that are not myelinated appear grayish and are called grey matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Myelinated fibers

A

The nerve impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next and results in a faster rate of conduction, then in an unmyelinated nerve fiber. If the myelin sheath becomes damaged, as it does in certain diseases (such as multiple sclerosis.)(MS), conduction of the impulse is impaired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Node of Ranvier

A

One of several constrictions in the myelin sheath of a nerve fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Axon hillock

A

Is its point of attachment to the nerve cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Basic parts of a neuron

A

The cell body, a single axon, and several dendrites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Synapse

A

The region of communication between one neuron and another is called

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Synaptic bulb

A

An axon terminates in several short branches that together form a synaptic bulb. The synaptic bulb releases a chemical neurotransmitter that either inhibits or enhances a nervous impulse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Some of the best known neurotransmitters are

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)
Epinephrine
Dopamine
Serotonin
Endorphins
to prevent prolonged reactions, a neurotransmitter is quickly in activated by an enzyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Neuromuscular

A

Means concerning both nerves and muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

neuromuscular junction

A

Is the area of contact between a neuron and a joining skeletal muscle.

When a nerve impulse reaches the neuromuscular junction. ACh is released, which leads to contraction of the muscle. ACh acts rapidly on muscle tissue, and most of it is then promptly in activated by an enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
Certain drugs can block transmission of impulses to the skeletal muscle. The transmission is blocked at the neuromuscular junction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Reflex arc

A

Conduction of nervous impulses is often described as
The reflex arc involves two types of neurons: a sensory neuron in a motor neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Reflex

A

Is an automatic, involuntary response to some change, which is either inside or outside the body.
Reflexes help, maintain hemostasis by making constant adjustments to our blood pressure, breathing rate, and pulse.
A common reflex is that of quickly removing your hand from a hot object.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Deep tendon reflex DTR

A

Brisk muscular contraction in response to stimuli

Is one way of assessing the reflex arc. For example, a sharp tap on the tendon just below the kneecap normally causes extension of the leg at the knee. This is called the pay teller response or knee-jerk response.

A bicep reflects. The examiner elicits the biceps reflex by placing the thumb over the biceps tendon and striking the thumb with a hammer.

Patellar reflex. This reflects is elicited by striking the patellar tendon just below the kneecap. The normal response is extension of the leg.

Deep tendon reflex and superficial reflects, are used to assess neurologic and muscular damage. The DTR, a brisk contraction of a muscle in response to a sharp tap by a finger or a rubber hammer on a tendon, is often helpful in diagnosing a stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Patellar response or knee-jerk response

A

A sharp tap on the tendon just below the kneecap normally causes extension of the leg at the knee. A normal response indicates an intact reflex arc between the nervous system and the muscles that are involved in the response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Sensory neuron

A

Transmit nerve impulses toward the spinal cord and the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Motor neurons

A

Transmit nerve impulses from the brain to the spinal cord

Motor neurons causes the muscle to contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acetylcholinesterase

A

Is an enzyme that in activates acetylcholine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Conceptual example of the reflex arc

A

A receptor detects the stimulus, the tap on the patellar tendon with the reflex hammer. The sensory neuron transmits the nerve impulse to the spinal cord. The motor neuron conducts a nervous impulse that causes the quadriceps muscle to contract. Extension of the leg at the knee, also called knee-jerk, is the normal patellar response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Brain

A

Is that part of the CNS contained within the skull. This soft mass of tissue weighs approximately 1360 g. (3 lbs) in the average adult, receive thousands of bits of information, and integrates all the data to determine the approximate response. The brain is surrounded by the cranium(skull), and the spinal cord is protected by the vertebrae. in addition to the skull and vertebrae, the brain and spinal cord are protected by three membranes called meninges and circulating cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The singular form of men meninges is meninx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cranium

A

Skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

meninges and circulating cerebrospinal fluid CSF

Singular form meninx

A

Three membranes that protect the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CSF
cerebrospinal fluid

A

Protects the brain and spinal cord by acting as a shock absorber

CSF is formed in the ventricles, which are four cavities in the brain. The fluid circulates through the ventricles, the subarachnoid space, and the central canal of the spinal cord.

In addition to the protection offered by the meninges, CSF surrounds and cushions the spinal cord and brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

meninges

A

Enclose the brain and the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

meningeal

A

Means pertaining to the meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Three meningeal layers

A

1) dura mater, tough outer layer, lies just inside the cranial bones and lines the vertebral canal. Lies just inside the skull.
2) arachnoid, the middle layer, a thin layer with numerous threadlike strands that attach it to the innermost layer. Resembles a cobweb.
3) pia mater, the innermost layer, is thin and delicate, and its tightly attached to the surface of the brain and spinal cord. it is so tightly bound to the brain that it cannot be removed without damaging the surface.

Channels of Web like fibers exist between the meninges for the fluid circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The brain stem

A

The brain stem consist of the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla. It’s lower end is a continuation of the spinal cord. The diencephalon is above the brain stem, and consist of the thalamus and hypothalamus. The cerebrum is about 7/8 of the total weight of the brain and spreads over the diencephalon. The cerebellum is inferior to the cerebrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Subdural

A

Means below, or beneath the dura mater, so it refers to the area between the dura mater and the arachnoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

subdural space

A

The potential space between these two membranes ( dura mater & the arachnoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The brain

A

Consists of several parts:
Cerebrum
Diencephalon
Brainstem
Cerebellum: lies just under the cerebrum, the largest portion of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

thalamus and
hypothalamus

A

Are parts of the diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla

A

Are parts of the brain stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Medulla

A

Is continuous with the spinal cord at an opening in the skull called the foreman magnum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Foramen magnum

A

The opening in the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes from the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cerebrum

A

Is the largest and upper most portion of the brain. The cerebrum is concerned with interpretation of impulses and all voluntary muscle activities. It is the center of high mental faculties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cerebral

A

Means pertaining to the cerebrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Craniocerebral

A

refers to the brain and cranium (skull)

Means pertaining to the cranium(skull) and the cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Cerebral hemispheres

A

Longitudinal fissure almost completely divides the cerebrum into two cerebral hemispheres. The surface of each hemisphere (right and left) is covered with a convoluted layer of gray matter called the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Cerebral cortex

A

Convoluted layer of gray matter, which is the covering of each hemisphere. division of the cortex into lobes provides useful reference points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Frontal lobe (thought process, personality, emotion, voluntary movement, behavior, intellectual functions)

A

The load that is located near the front of the cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Temples

A

The regions of the head in front of the ears are known as

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Temporal lobes (hearing, speech, memory, learning)

A

The parts of the cerebrum that are located in the areas of the temples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Occipital

A

Is an adjective that means concerning the back part of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Occipital lobes (vision)

A

The lobe that is located at the back of the head, just behind the temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Parietal lobe (language, 3 dimensional perception, general function of the body sensations)

A

Lobe just above the occipital lobe,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Insula (projected to surface)

A

The lobe deep within the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Spinal nerves

A

31 pairs of spinal nerves
8 Cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Spinal cord

A

Is a cylindric structure located in the canal of the vertebral column. 31 pairs of spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord and are named and numbered according to the region and level of the spinal cord from which the emerge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

1)intrathecal

2)intrathecal injection

A

1) Means within a sheath (such as the spinal canal)

2) Is an injection into the subarchnoid space ( between the arachnoid and pia mater membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Cerebrospinal

A

Means pertaining to the brain and the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Cerebral ventricles

A

Cavities in the brain that produce CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cerebellar

A

Pertains to the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Peripheral nervous system PNS

A

Is that portion of the nervous system that is outside the CNS (central nervous system)
Is located away from the nervous system control center
*The PNS forms the communication networks between the CNS and the rest of the body
* the PNS connects with both somatic and autonomic tissues.
The PNS consists of the nerves that branch out from the brain and spinal cord, which communicate with the rest of the receptors, muscles, and glands. It is further divided into the sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent) systems. Special sense organs (for example, the eyes, ears, and nose.) have receptors that detect sensations, and then sensory neurons transmit the information to the CNS. Motor neurons carry impulses that initiate muscle contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Peripheral

A

Means located away from the center.

The peripheral nervous system forms the communication between the CNS and the rest of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Sciatic nerve

A

Is actually two nerves bound together by a common sheath of connective tissue, collectively called the sciatic nerve. It is often considered to be the largest nerve in the body arising from spinal nerves on either side.
It’s supplies, the entire musculature of the leg and foot. Irritation or injury to this nerve causes pain, often from the thigh down its branches into the toes. Neuralgia along the course of the sciatic nerve is called sciatica.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Neuralgia

A

Along the course of the sciatic nerve is called

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Receptors

A

Are sensory nerve endings that respond to various kinds of stimulation. That awareness that results from the stimulation is what we know as sensation. The major senses are sight hearing smell, taste, and touch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

somatic

A

The PNS consists of nerves that connect with somatic tissues, (skin and muscles that are involved in conscious activity) and also nerves that link the CNS to autonomic tissues.

The PNS connects with both somatic and autonomic tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

autonomic tissues

A

Self-controlling; functionally independent

The visceral organs, such as the stomach and heart, which function without conscious effort.

*The PNS connects with both somatic and autonomic tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Autonomic system

A

Regulates and coordinates visceral activities without our conscious effort. This helps maintain a stable internal environment. The autonomic system has two divisions, the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system’s.

In general, impulse is transmitted by the nerve fibers of one division, stimulate an organ, whereas impulses from the other division, either decrease or halt organ activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

sympathetic division

A

Activation of the sympathetic division causes a series of psychological responses, called the fight or flight response.
These a little bit better I would say a little bit more do a minute yet responses increase the heart and breathing rates and prepare the body for fighting off danger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

parasympathetic system

A

When dangerous past this system would counteract these responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Sympathetic and parasympathetic, nerve fibers

A

Like other accents of the nervous system, release neural transmitters, and are classified on the basis of the substance produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Cholinergic

A

Fibers release acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Adrenergic

A

fibers release epinephrine also called adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Adrenaline is also called Epinephrine

A

hence the term adrenergic
Adrenergic fibers release epinephrine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

consciousness

A

The various stages of response of the mind to stimuli are called the levels of consciousness.

Is responsiveness of the mind to the impressions made by the senses.

A change in the level of consciousness may be the first indication of it decline in CNS function.

Levels of consciousness are a cognitive function involving arousal mechanisms of the brain. The levels of consciousness include alert wakefulness (normal); Response to stimuli, although it may be slow; drowsines; stupor (patient is vaguely aware of the environment); and coma (patient does not appear to be aware of the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

memory

A

Another means of assessing neurologic function, is classified as long-term, recent, and immediate memory.
Loss of memory is often an early sign of neurological problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Glasgow coma scale

A

It’s a standardized system of assessing the degree of conscious impairment in the critically ill (especially those with head injuries) especially those with head injuries, and for predicting the duration and ultimate outcome of coma.
The system involves determination of the degree of eye-opening, verbal response and motor response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

X-ray studies of the skull and spine

A

Are often helpful in diagnosing fractures, abnormal curvature’s, or other bony abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Assess structural changes of the brain and spinal cord

A

Computer tomography (CT)
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

CT is particularly helpful and detecting, intracranial, bleeding, lesions, and cerebral edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Encephalography

A

Is radiography of the brain. It is accomplished by withdrawal and replacement of the CSF by a gas. Because of the risks involved, it is generally used only when results of CT and MRI are not definitive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

sleep apnea

A

Sleep studies are not invasive and are used to diagnose sleep orders such as.………. Which is a sleep order characterized by short periods in which respiration is absent.
These tests are performed in a sleep laboratory where the patient is monitored electronically, including (electroencephalography) (EEG) and heart and respiration rates while sleeping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Positron emission tomography (PET)

A

is a computerized nuclear medicine technique that uses radioactive substances to assess the function of various body structures, particularly the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The PET equipment

A

constructs color-coded images that indicate the intensity of metabolic activity.
The patient either inhales or is injected with radioactive material. The positrons of the injected material are absorbed by body cells, and the equipment constructs color-coded images of the gamma rays that result. The radioactivity used in PET is short-lived, so patients are exposed to only small amounts of radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

PET positron emission tomography

A

An important advantage of PET is that it assesses functions, whereas most radiographic imaging studies of the brain assess structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

superficial reflex

A

Is evaluated By stimulation of the skin, such as stroke in the sole of the foot to evaluate the response

Superficial plantar reflex is tested by stroke in the lateral side of the foot from the heel to the ball, and then curving across the ball of the foot to the medial side. Plantar flexion of all toes, should occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Lumbar puncture LP

A

The pressure of the CSF can be measured and a sample of fluid may be withdrawn for analysis, (measurement of protein, glucose, and other chemicals, RBCs, WBS’s, or detection of microorganisms, as well as tumor cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

CSF

A

cerebrospinal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Brain scans
Imaging of the brain using radioisotopes

A

Include CT, MRI, and PET scans.
Using contrast materials, both CT and MRI provide images of the brain and spinal cord.
PET scans are especially helpful in detecting malignancies and evaluating brain abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Doppler ultrasound studies

A

Are helpful in starting blood flow in the intracranial arteries, as well as the carotids, which supply blood to the head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

cerebral angiography
Visualization of blood vessels of the brain

A

A radiographic procedure used to visualize the vascular system of the brain after injection of a radiopaque contrast medium; not used as often as less invasive CT, but can be used to diagnose abnormalities, such as an aneurysm, which is a ballooning out of the wall of a vessel.

is used to study intracranial circulation, and is especially helpful in visualizing, aneurysms and vascular occlusions. A contrast medium is used that outlines the vessels of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Aneurysm

A

Is a ballooning out of the wall of a vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Echoencephalography

A

Use of ultrasound to study brain structure

The use of ultrasound to study intracranial structures. The record produced is an encephalogram.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Electroencephalography EEG

A

Is the process of recording that electrical activity of the brain using an electroencephalograph.
The record produced is an electroencephalogram and is sometimes required for the diagnosis of brain death, generally defined as loss of brain function.

This procedure is painless, but the patient must be quiet during the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Myelography

A

Radiography of the spinal cord

radiography of the area around the spinal cord after injection of a contrast medium into the subarachnoid spaces; record produced is a myelogram; can be useful in studying, spinal lesions, spinal injuries, or disc disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

polysomnography

A

Recording and measurement during sleep of a number of functions, Recording and measurement during sleep of a number of functions, (e.g., cardiac, brain, muscular, ocular, and respiratory); to assess sleep disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Insula

A

The lobe deep within the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Dyslexia

A

impairment of the ability to read, spell, and write, despite recognizing letters. It is caused by a variety of pathologic conditions.

Condition of difficulty with reading

In ability to read, spell, and write words

is an impairment of the ability to read, spell, and write words; it results from a variety of pathologic conditions, some of which are associated with the nervous system dyslexic persons often reverse letters, and words, cannot adequately distinguish the louder sequences, in written words, and have difficulty determining right from left.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

sciatica

A

Is inflammation of the sciatic nerve, they marked by pain and tenderness along the course of the nerve through the thigh and leg. This may arise from problems in the lower back as a result of a herniated intervertebral disk or arthritis, and is accompanied by lower back pain (LBP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

alges/ia
algesia

A

Pain/pertaining to
refers to sensitivity to pain and is also used as a suffix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

hyper/alges/ia
Hyperalgesia

A

Increased/pain/pertaining to
Is increased sensitivity to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Hypalgesia or hypoalgesia
Hyp/ages/ia hypo/alges/ia

A

decrease/pain/pertaining to
means a decrease in sensation in response to stimulation of the sensory nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

dyskinesia
dys/kines/ia

A

bad or difficult/movement/pertaining to
impairment of the ability to execute voluntary movements

Impairment of voluntary movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

neur/algia
neuralgia

A

nerve/pain
Pain of a nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

poly/neur/algia
polyneuralgia

A

many/nerve/pain
Is a type of neuralgia that affects many nerves simultaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Par/esthesia
paresthesia

A

abnormal/feeling
subjective sensation, experienced as numbness, tingling, or pins and needles feeling, often in the absence of an external stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

poly/neuro/pathy
polyneuropathy

A

many/nerve/disease
A condition in which many peripheral nerves are affected. An example is poly/neur/itis
Polyneuritis
many/nerve/inflammation of inflammation of many nerves simultaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

pseud/esthes/ia
pseudesthesia

A

is a sensation occurring in the absence of a stimuli (an imaginary sensation)

false/feeling or sensation/condition of
imaginary or false sensation; a sensation occurring in the absence of the appropriate stimulus, which can occur in a lost arm or leg after amputation; also known as pseudoesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Three types of headache

A

muscle contraction headache
cluster headache
Migraine headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

headache

A

Which is a pain in the head from any cause, it’s a symptom. Most headaches do not indicate serious disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

cephalagia shortened to cephalgia

A

Is the synonym for headache?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Most common types of headache or pain related to the eyes, ears, teeth, and paranasal structures for example, sinus headache

A

Other kinds of headaches include tension headaches ( muscle contraction headaches), cluster headaches, and migraine headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

muscle contraction headaches (tension headaches)

A

Result from the long sustained contraction of skeletal muscles around the scalp, face, neck, and upper back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

cluster headaches

A

Characterized by intense, unilateral pain; very painful, occurring in clusters, and do not last long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

migraine headaches

A

Characterized by recurrent, throbbing headaches, often accompanied by loss of appetite, photophobia, fear; abnormal sensitivity, to light, and nausea, with or without vomiting; vascular disorder
occur more often in females than males, and sometimes begin in childhood.
The classic migraine Begins with depression, irritability, restlessness, and perhaps loss of appetite. There may also be a transient neurologic disturbances, including visual problems, (flashes of light, distorted, or double vision, seeing spots), dizziness, and nausea. The headache increases in severity until it becomes intense and may last a few hours or up to several days, if not treated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Cephalalgia
cephal/algia

A

Head/pain

Headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Photophobia

A

Sensitivity to or fear of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Craniocerebral trauma

A

is commonly called head trauma or head injury. It is a traumatic insult to the brain caused by an external physical force that may produce a diminished or altered state of consciousness. It may result in impairment of cognitive abilities, (perception, reasoning, judgment, and memory) or physical functions and may be temporary or permanent. Head trauma is either open or closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Head trauma is either opened or closed

A

Open head trauma: skull fractures or gunshot wounds that disrupt the integrity of the skin

Blunt trauma as seen in motor vehicle accidents, or athletic injuries, can lead to concussions, contusions, (bruises), or tearing of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

cerebral concussion

A

Usually causes loss of consciousness. A concussion is an injury to the brain, resulting from violent, jarring or shaking, such as a blow or an explosion.
repeated concussions may contribute to the development of symptoms that mimic Lou Gehrig disease, which is a devastating, degenerative disease named after the baseball great who was its being this victim.

130
Q

Conscious

A

A person who is responsive to signals, received by the census is said to be conscious

131
Q

semi conscious

A

Is only partially aware of his or her surroundings

132
Q

coma

A

It’s a profound unconsciousness from which the patients cannot be aroused.

133
Q

semicoma

A

means a partial or mild coma from which the patient can be aroused

134
Q

spinal cord injury, SCI

Page 491

A

Head injuries can also result in a spinal cord injury
Forceful injuries to the vertebral column can damage the spinal cord and lead to neurological problems. Injuries to the vertebral column that can result in damage to the spinal cord include excessive rotation, hyper extension, hyper flexion, and vertical compression.

135
Q

encephalomyelopathy

A

Is any disease involving the brain and the spinal cord

136
Q

Hyperflexion injury of the cervical spine (vertebrae)

Close, spinal cord injury

A

A car hitting a tree, forcing you forward and down
Anterior dislocation, ruptured, posterior longitudinal ligament, damage to spinal cord.

137
Q

hyperextension injury of the cervical spine (vertebrae)

Close spinal cord injury

A

One car rear ending another car force pushing forward
ruptured anterior longitudinal ligament compression of spinal cord

138
Q

compression fracture of the lumbar spine and cervical spine.

Closed spinal cord injury. Pg 491

A

Someone falls backward onto their butt. The force from falling to the ground fracture
someone diving into a pool, headfirst and hitting their head on the bottom of the pool. Compression fracture of the cervical spine.
Closed Spinal Cord Injuries - Fractures and dislocations to the vertebral column can result in injury to the spinal cord. These types of vertebral injuries occur most often at points where a relatively mobile portion of the spine meetsa relatively fixed segment.

139
Q

peripheral neuropathy

A

Is any disease of the peripheral nerves. Those of the extremities are commonly affected. An example is wrist drop, in which nerve damage results in the hand, remaining in a flexed position at the wrist, and it cannot be extended.

140
Q

carpoptosis

A

wristdrop

141
Q

aphasia or dysphasia

A

Absence of speech

And abnormal condition in which language function is absent or disordered, because of an injury to certain area of the cerebral cortex can result in………..

142
Q

Dysarthria

A

Difficult, poorly articulated speech, usually caused by damage to a Central or peripheral motor nerve

143
Q

Three types of hematomas are associated with head injuries

A

Epidural Hematoma: accumulation of blood in the epidural space. Epidural mean situated on or outside the dura mater. The hematoma compresses the dura mater and thus compresses the brain.
Subdural Hematoma; accumulation of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid; it is often the result of an arachnoid tear associated with the head injury.
Intracerebral Hematoma: bleeding within the brain itself, associated with a cerebral tear; it has a high mortality rate, but fortunately, this type is less common than the other two types.

144
Q

strokes
Are either ischemic or hemorrhagic

A

Are caused by either in adequate blood flow to the brain or rupture of a cerebral artery

145
Q

cerebrovascular accident CVA

A

It’s also called stroke or stroke syndrome

Normal blood supply to the brain has been disrupted in CVA
CVA results in in the significant oxygen to brain tissue, caused by hemorrhage, occlusion (closing), vasospasm, or constriction of the blood vessels that normally supply oxygen to the brain.

146
Q

Ischemic strokes

A

Results from an adequate blood flow to the brain caused by partial or complete occlusion of the cerebral artery. Ischemic strokes are generally preceded by warning signs, such as a transient ischemic attack TIA.

147
Q

Transient ischemic attack TIA

A

Is brief interruption of blood flow to the brain that sometimes occurs before a stroke

caused by a brief interruption in the cerebral blood flow. TIA symptoms often include disturbance of normal vision, dizziness, weakness, and numbness.

148
Q

Thrombotic strokes

A

are caused by plaque deposits that buildup on the interior of a cerebral artery

149
Q

embolic strokes

A

Are caused by cerebral embolus, which is a plug of matter (usually a blood clot) brought by the blood to the cerebral artery.

150
Q

hemorrhagic strokes

A

Are caused by the rupture of a cerebral artery. This may be preceded by a cerebral aneurysm.

151
Q

cerebral aneurysm

A

Which is an abnormal localized dilation of a cerebral artery that can rupture and produce a cerebral hemorrhage.

152
Q

Paralysis

A

is the loss of muscle function, loss of sensation, or both and is a sign of an underlying problem. Paralysis may be caused by trauma, disease, or poisoning. Injury to a different area of the spinal cord results in different types of paralysis.

153
Q

Paraplegia

A

The upper limbs are not affected. Paraplegia is paralysis of the lower portion of the body and both legs. The prefix para- means near, beside, or abnormal. Some interpretation is needed in the term paraplegia.

154
Q

Bell palsy ( facial paralysis)

A

Is the neuropathy that drastically affects the body image. The cause is unknown; the onset is acute and is characterized by a drawing sensation with paralysis of all facial muscles on the affected side. Bell palsy is acute paralysis of a cranial nerve affecting one side of the face.
Often resulting in an ability to close the eye on that affected side.

155
Q

Types of strokes

A

embolic (emboliitic) stroke
normal vessel
thrombotic stroke
Hemorrhagic stroke

156
Q

Three types of paralysis

A

Hemiplegia: affecting one side of the body
Paraplegia: affects only the lower portion of the body.
Quadriplegia: affects all four of your extremities, waist down

157
Q

di/plegia
diplegia

A

two/paralysis
paralysis of similar parts on both sides of the body

158
Q

hemi/plegia
hemiplegia

A

half/paralysis
Paralysis of one side of the body

159
Q

mono/plegia
monoplegia

A

one/paralysis
Paralysis of one limb

160
Q

quadri/plegia
quadriplegia

A

four/paralysis
Paralysis of all four extremities

161
Q

Meningocele

A

is hernial protrusion of meninges through a defect in the skull or vertebral column

May result in residual motor and sensory deficits

162
Q

meningomyelocele

A

is hernial protrusion of parts of the meninges and spinal cord through a defect in the vertebral column.
is generally repaired by surgery, but may result in residual motor and sensory deficits

163
Q

cerebral palsy

A

Is a motor function disorder caused by a permanent, non-progressive brain defect present at birth or occurring shortly there after. It may result in spastic paralysis in various forms, seizures, and varying degrees of impaired speech, vision, and hearing. It is often associated with asphyxia during birth.

164
Q

Huntington disease also called Huntington chorea

A

Is a hereditary disorder that affects both genders equally. Symptoms begin between 30 and 50 years of age. The main two signs and symptoms are progressive mental status changes leading to dementia and rapid jerk movements in the trunk, facial muscles and extremities. Neurotransmitters have been implicated in the symptoms of this hereditary disorder.

165
Q

Infections of the CNS include the following diseases

A

botulism
cerebellitis
encephalitis
encephalomeningitis
encephalomylitis
meningitis
poliomyelitis
rabies
hydrophobia
shingles
tetanus
ventriculitis

166
Q

Botulism

A

An often fatal form of food poisoning, most often from improperly canned food, caused by the toxin of a bacterium, clostridium botulism, which is toxic to nervous tissues and causes paralysis of both voluntary and involuntary motor activity. Symptoms usually appear 12 to 36 hours after eating contaminated food.

167
Q

cerebellitis

A

Inflammation that is confined to the cerebellum.

168
Q

Encephalitis

A

Inflammation of the brain tissue, often caused by a virus, usually having gained access to the bloodstream from a viral infection elsewhere in the body.

169
Q

Encephalomeningitis

A

Inflammation of the brain and its coverings

170
Q

encephalomyelitis

A

Inflammation of the brain and spinal cord

171
Q

Meningitis

A

Inflammation of the meninges of the brain and spinal cord, usually caused by bacterial or viral organisms.

172
Q

poliomyelitis

A

An acute viral disease that attacks the gray matter of the spinal cord and parts of the brain; can be asymptomatic, mild, or paralytic; can be prevented by immunization; informally called polio, (G. Polios, gray).

173
Q

rabies

A

an acute, often fatal, disease of the CNS transmitted to humans by infected animals. Without medical intervention and possibly the use of vaccine, coma and death are likely; obsolete name is hydrophobia, the name given, after observation that rabid animals avoid water (because paralysis prevents them from being able to swallow)

174
Q

Shingles

A

an acute infection caused by reactivation of the latent chickenpox virus. This infection mainly affects adults. The cause of reactivation is not known, but it is linked to aging immune impairment, and stress; herpes zoster.

These painful skin eruptions follow the underlying route of cranial or spinal nerves that are inflamed by the virus. Painful blisters follow the underlying route of cranial or spinal nerves inflamed by the virus.

175
Q

tetanus

A

And a cute, potentially fatal infection of the CNS caused by the toxins of an anaerobic bacillus. Clostridium tetani, which attacks the nervous system and results in muscle rigidity and spasms; also known as lockjaw, taking its name from the resulting rigidity of the jaw; easily preventable through immunization.

176
Q

ventriculitis

A

Inflammation of the ventricles of the brain

177
Q

Chickenpox

A

Those who have had chickenpox are at risk for shingles, and the risk increases as one ages. The most common complication of shingles is long-term pain called postherpetic neuralgia. Vaccination to prevent shingles is recommended.

178
Q

Gila cells

A

Are the only source of primary malignant brain tumors
The tumors are called glimoas

179
Q

primary brain tumors

A

Arise within the brain structures, and rarely spread outside the brain.

180
Q

glioma

A

A primary tumor of the brain, which is composed of the nerve cell neuroglia.

Tumor of glial cells

181
Q

meningioma

A

Is a tumor of the meninges that grows slowly and may invade the skull. Tumors within the skull can invade and compress brain tissue, which generally leads to increased intracranial pressure (ICP), headaches, and many neurologic problems, such as a neurogenic bladder, a dysfunction of the urinary bladder caused by a lesion (a tumor) of the nervous system. normal control of urination and emptying of the bladder is usually absent.

182
Q

neurogenic bladder

A

Dysfunction of the urinary bladder caused by a lesion (a tumor) of the nervous system

183
Q

Intracranial

A

Means within the skull

Pertaining to the area within the skull

184
Q

Apraxia

A

means an impairment in the ability to perform purposeful acts or to manipulate objects without a loss of strength, coordination, or sensation.

185
Q

Motor apraxia

A

Is an inability to handle small objects (although aware of their proper use) or carry out planned movement. This condition results from a lesion in the frontal cortex.

186
Q

apraxia of speech

A

interferes with speech although understanding of speech remains intact

187
Q

hydro/cephalus
hydrocephalus

A

Water/head

Fluid accumulation in the skull

is a pathological condition characterized by an abnormal accumulation of CSF within the skull and is usually accompanied by increased ICP. When this happens in an infant, before the cranial bones fuse, the cranium enlarges. in an older child or adult, the pressure damages is the soft brain tissue.

188
Q

neur/oma
neuroma

A

nerve/tumor
is a benign tumor composed chiefly of neurons and nerve fibers. Although neuromas are benign, they can be painful (For example, Morton neuroma that occurs in the foot) or can compress brain tissue (for example, an acoustic neuroma)

189
Q

Seizure

A

Is an abnormal sudden, excessive discharge of electrical activity within the brain. Seizures are also known as convulsions. This abnormal activity is assessed in EEG. A seizure may be recurrent, such as in a seizure disorder, or transient and acute, such as after a concussion.

190
Q

Convulsions

A

Also known as seizures

191
Q

concussion

A

Is damage to the brain caused by a violent jarring or shaking

192
Q

Epilepsy

A

is a group of chronic neurologic disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of convulsive seizures, sensory disturbances, loss of consciousness, or all of these.

193
Q

narcolepsy

A

recurrent, uncontrollable brief episodes of sleep (or stupor)

Is brief, uncontrollable episodes of sleep. In narcolepsy the person cannot prevent a sudden attack of sleep while performing daytime activities. Its causes unknown, and no pathologic lesions are found in the brain. The person may experience momentary loss of muscle tone. Visual or auditory hallucinations often occur at the onset of sleep. stimulant drugs are often prescribed to prevent the sudden attacks of sleep at inappropriate times.

Sleep episodes and narcolepsy me last a few minutes to several hours.

194
Q

Try again

A

Headache

195
Q

degenerative disorder’s

A

Are those in which there is deterioration of structure or function of tissue.

196
Q

Neurological disorders that affect motor ability or nerve transmission

A

Parkinson’s disease, MS, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), myasthenia gravis

197
Q

involve mental deterioration

A

Dementia and Alzheimer’s disease

198
Q

Parkinson’s disease

occurs in people over 50 years and results from widespread degeneration. I’ll be part of the brain that produces dopamine.

A

Is a slowly progressing, debilitating neurologic disease that affects motor ability. It is characterized by muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor.

latter stage of Parkinson’s disease. Characteristics of this degenerative neurologic disorder include resting tremor, pill rolling of the fingers, muscle rigidity and weakness, a shuffling gait, a masklike and immobile facial expression, and forward flexion of the trunk.

Tremor, stooped posture, arms flexed at elbows and wrists, short shuffling steps .

199
Q

Brady/kinesia
Bradykinesia

A

slow/movement

slowness of all voluntary movement or speech

200
Q

Tremor

A

is rhythmic, purposeless, quivering involuntary movement. A characteristic posture and masklike facial expression are often seen.
A tremor is common in benign essential tumors, such as an involuntary shaking of the hand, head or face; however, no other sign of Parkinson’s disease is present

201
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
A/myo/tropic

Page 498

A

without/muscle/nutrition

is also called Lou Gehrig disease. It is characterized by atrophy (wasting) of the hands, forearms, and legs. The disease results in paralysis and death. The cause of the disease is unknown.

rare degenerative disease of the motor neurons, characterized by weakness and atrophy of the muscles

202
Q

Multiple sclerosis MS

A

It’s a progressive degenerative disease that affects the myelin sheath and conductive pathways of the CNS. This disease that is named for the multiple areas of sclerotic tissue that replace the myelin sheath is_________ ________

Symptoms may include problems with muscular control, balance, speech, or vision.

The myelin sheath deteriorates and is replaced by scar tissue that interferes with normal transmission of the nerve impulse. One of the earliest signs is paresthesia, which is abnormal sensations in the extremities or on one side of the face. The disease is characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation (flare). Disability increases as a disease progresses, and the periods of exacerbation become more frequent.

203
Q

my/asthenia gravis
myasthenia

A

muscle/weakness

Meaning grave muscle weakness, is a chronic neuromuscular disease characterized by muscular weakness and fatigue.
The degenerative condition, results from a defect in the conduction of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction. .

204
Q

dementia

A

Is a progressive mental disorder of the brain
dementia is characterized by confusion, disorientation, deterioration of memory and intellectual abilities, and personality disintegration. Dementia occurs most often in older adults. It is caused by drug intoxication, insulin shock, hydrocephalus, or certain other causes may be reversed by treating the underlying cause. Organic forms of dementia, such as Alzheimer’s disease, are generally considered incurable.

205
Q

agnosia also called agnosis

A

Is a total or partial loss of the ability to recognize familiar objects or persons through sensory stimuli as a result of dementia or organic brain damage

206
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

Is chronic, progressive mental deterioration that is sometimes called dementia, Alzheimer type. this accounts for more than half of the persons with dementia who are older than 65 years of age. It is less common in people in their 40s and 50s. Although the exact cause is not known, both chemical and structural changes occur in the brain. The disease is characterized by confusion, memory, failure, disorientation, inability to carry out purposeful activities, and speech and gait disturbances. It involves irreversible loss of memory. The patient becomes increasingly mentally impaired, severe physical deterioration takes place, and death occurs. This type of dementia is called Alzheimer disease.

207
Q

Amyotrophic

A

Pertaining to a lack of muscle nutrition

208
Q

psychologist

A

Is one who is trained in methods of psychological, analyst, therapy, and research. Medical specialty that deals with the diagnose, treatment and prevention of mental illness is psychiatry.

209
Q

Mental health disorder

A

is a disturbance of emotional equilibrium with impaired functioning, caused by genetic, physical, chemical, biological, and psychological, or social and cultural factors. This is also called a mental illness, emotional illness, or psychiatric disorder.

210
Q

observable pathologic conditions of the brain

A

Dementia and Alzheimer disease

211
Q

neurodevelopmental disorders

A

Are impairments of the growth and development of the brain or CNS (sometimes this category refers to disorders of the brain function that affect emotion, learning ability, and memory that unfold as the individual grows). These include intellectual disabilities, communication disorders, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorders, autism spectrum disorders, and certain motor disorders.

Communication disorders include stuttering, inability to produce certain sounds, and language disorder, (a disruption or inability to understand and/or produce the conventional symbols or words of one’s native language).

212
Q

signs of psychological disorders can appear in a very young child

A

Such is the case with autism an attention deficit disorder.

intellectual disability, autism spectrum disorder, and Tourette syndrome are other disorders that are usually diagnosed in childhood

213
Q

Conduct disorder

A

Is a behavioral pattern occurring primarily in children and adolescents that is characterized by aggression and violations of the rights of others.

214
Q

Autism

A

Is characterized by withdrawal and impaired development in social interaction and communication.

May be characterized by extreme withdrawal.

215
Q

attention deficit disorder ADD
attention deficit, hyperactivity disorder
ADHD

A

These are characterized by several patterns of behavior, such a short attention, span and poor concentration in multiple settings, and, and ADHD, hyperactivity.

216
Q

hyper/kinesia
hyperkinesia or hyperkinesis

A

abnormal increased muscle function or activity (hyperactivity)

Excessive, above normal/movement

Excessive movement

Is also called hyperactivity

217
Q

Anxiety disorders

A

are characterized by anticipation of impending danger and dread, the source of which is largely unknown or unrecognized. An anxiety attack is an acute psychobiologic reaction that usually includes several of the following: restlessness, tension, tachycardia, and breathing difficulty.

218
Q

psychobiological response

A

Involves both the mind and the physical body

219
Q

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

A

is an anxiety disorder characterized by recurrent and persistent thoughts, ideas, and feelings of obsessions or compulsions sufficiently severe to cause distress, consume considerable time, or interfere with the person’s occupational, social, or interpersonal functioning.

-is a pattern of persistent behaviors that involve compulsion to act on an obsession.

220
Q

obsession

A

Is a persistent thought or idea that occupies the mind and cannot be erased by logic or reasoning.

221
Q

Compulsion

A

is an irresistible, repetitive impulse to act contrary to one’s ordinary standards.

222
Q

Schematic of the anxiety cycle

A

A permanent state of nervousness, worry, and apprehension can lead to depression. And anxiety disorder can be a build-up, over time, of everyday stress from problems.

223
Q

Anorexia nervosa

prominent ribs and gone to face

A

lack of appetite, but anorexia nervosa is representative of an emotional disturbance that affects at least two body systems.

is characterized by a prolonged refusal to eat, resulting in emaciation, amenorrhea, emotional disturbance concerning body image, and fear of becoming obese, and it is usually associated with anxiety, irritation, fear, and anger. The condition is seen primarily in adolescents and predominantly in girls.

224
Q

bulimia

A

Is characterized by insatiable craving for food, often resulting in episodes of continuous eating, followed by depression and purging.

225
Q

Phobias

A

are obsessive, irrational, and intense fears of an object, an activity, or physical situation.

226
Q

Agoraphobia

A

A fear of public places

227
Q

Zoophobia

A

Abnormal fear of animals

228
Q

Phobophobia

A

Abnormal fear of acquiring a phobia

229
Q

arachnophobia

A

Morbid fear of spiders

230
Q

spider venom

A

May contain enzymatic proteins that are capable of affecting neuromuscular transmission or cardiovascular function.

231
Q

Acrophobia

A

Means an irrational fear of heights

232
Q

Claustrophobia

A

Is a morbid fear of closed places

claustrophobic individuals generally tolerate open MRI, because they are not enclosed within the magnetic resonance unit, but the scan generally takes longer to complete than a regular MRI.

233
Q

Pyrophobia

A

An abnormal fear of fire

234
Q

Post traumatic stress disorder, PTSD

A

is characterized by an acute emotional response after a traumatic event or situation involving severe environmental stress, such as a physical assault or military combat.

235
Q

Panic attack (panic disorder) Panic attack

A

is an episode of acute anxiety that occurs unpredictably with feelings of intense apprehension or terror, accompanied by dyspnea (difficult breathing), dizziness, sweating, trembling, and chest pain.

236
Q

Dissociative disorder

A

emotional conflicts are so repressed in a disassociative disorder, that a separation or split in the personality occurs, resulting in an altered state of consciousness or a confusion in identity.
An existence within a person of two or more separate identities.

Symptoms may include amnesia, and in this case, the loss of memory is generally caused by severe, emotional trauma

237
Q

Mood disorder

A

Is a variety of conditions characterized by a disturbance in mood as the main feature. In severe cases, they may be a sign of depressive disorder or may be symptomatic of a bipolar disorder.

238
Q

Clinical depression

A

Most persons experience occasional feelings of sadness or discouragement resulting from personal loss or tragedy; however, clinical depression is an abnormal emotional state characterized by exaggerated feelings of sadness, despair, discouragement, emptiness, and hopelessness.

It is important to remember that the feelings of sadness and hopelessness are exaggerated in clinical depression.

239
Q

Mania

A

is an unstable emotional state that includes excessive excitement, elation, ideas, and psychomotor activities. In
an extreme manic episode, a delusion of a grandeur (state of being impressive or awesome) may occur.

240
Q

Megalomania

A

is an abnormal mental state in which one believes one’s self to be a person of great importance, power, fame, or wealth.
-Is excessive preoccupation with greatness.

241
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

is a major mental disorder characterized by the occurrence of manic episodes, major depressive episodes, or mix moods.
The term bipolar in the name indicates that the disorder has two distinct aspects.
Megalomania may occur in an extreme manic episode of bipolar disorder.

242
Q

pyro/mania
pyromania

A

fire/excessive preoccupation,
excessive preoccupation with fire

243
Q

Pyro/maniac
Pyromaniac

A

Has an obsessive preoccupation with fires

244
Q

kleptomania

A

is characterized by an abnormal, uncontrollable, and recurrent urge to steal
(shoplifting for the thrill, rather than for need)
often coexist with other mental disorders, such as OCD or bulimia.

245
Q

Sexual disorders
sexual dysfunction, and paraphilia are classified as________ __________.

A

are those caused at least in part by psychologic factors. Such a disorder, characterized by a decrease or disturbance in sexual desire that is not the result of a general medical condition, is called a sexual dysfunction.
Sexual perversion or deviation, in which the sexual instinct is expressed in ways that are biologically undesirable, socially prohibited, or socially unacceptable, is termed paraphilia.

246
Q

somat/form disorders
somatoform

A

body/shape

are any of a group of disorders characterized by symptoms suggesting physical illness or disease, for which there are no demonstratable organic causes or psychologic dysfunctions.

247
Q

Hypochondriasis
Hypochondria

A

has been replaced by two diagnoses: somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder IAD.
somatic symptom disorder:
patients must have one or more chronic somatic symptoms about which they are excessively preoccupied or fearful.
patients with IAD:
may or may not have a medical condition, but have heightened bodily sensations, are anxious about the possibility of an undiagnosed illness, and devote excessive time and energy to health concerns.

248
Q

Neur/asthenia
neurasthenia

A

nerve/weakness

Is a nervous condition, characterized by chronic weakness, fatigue, and exhaustion

Nervous disorder characterized by muscular weakness

is a nervous disorder characterized by weakness and sometimes nervous exhaustion. It is often associated with a depressed state and is believed by some to be
Psychosomatic (having body symptoms of emotional origin.)

249
Q

pseudo/mania
pseudomania

A

Is a false or pretended mental disorder

250
Q

pseudo/plegia
pseudoplegia

A

Is loss of muscle power without real paralysis

false/paralysis

Is hysterical paralysis. There is loss of muscle power without real paralysis.

251
Q

psychosis or psychotic disorder

A

Major mental disorder

is any major mental disorder characterized by a gross impairment in reality testing. Normal reality is an ego function that enables one to differentiate between external reality and any internal imaginative world and to behave in a manner that exhibits an awareness of excepted norms. Impairment of reality testing is indicative of a disturbance that may lead to psychosis.

252
Q

Schizo/phrenia
Schizophrenia

A

Means split mind and relates to the splitting off of a part of the psyche, which may dominate the psychic life of the patient even though it may express behavior contrary to the original personality. The concept of multiple personalities, two or more distinct subpersonalities, it is not necessarily a characteristic of schizophrenia.

Is any of a large group of psychotic disorders.
Schizophrenia is characterized by gross distortion of reality, hallucinations, disturbances of language and communication, and disorganized or catatonic behavior, (psychologically induced immobility with muscular rigidity that is interrupted by agitation)

253
Q

antisocial behavior

A

Is acting against the rights of others

254
Q

paranoid, personality disorder
(shorten to paranoia)

A

Is characterized by persistent delusions of persecution, mistrust, and combativeness

255
Q

amnesia

A

Loss of memory

256
Q

catatonia

A

Psychologically induced in mobility at times interrupted by agitation

257
Q

defense mechanism, delirium

A

Frenzied excitement

258
Q

delusion

A

persistent belief or perception

259
Q

dementia

A

Persistent organic mental disintegration

260
Q

hallucination

A

sensory perception that does not result from an external stimulus in the waking state

261
Q

illusion

A

False interpretation of an external sensory stimulus

262
Q

libido

A

Psychic energy associated with sexual desire or pleasure

263
Q

somnambulism

ambulate means to walk

A

complex motor activity during sleep, that usually culminates in sleepwalking

264
Q

Substance abuse

A

is the overindulgence in and dependence on a stimulant, depressant, or other chemical substance, leading to the detriment of the individuals, physical or mental health, or the welfare of others.

Terms relating to substance abuse:
intoxication
dependence
Delirium tremens (Dts)
tolerance
harmful use

withdrawal symptoms:
(unpleasant, sometimes life-threatening psychological changes that occur when some drugs are withdrawn after prolonged, regular use)

265
Q

Delirium tremens

A

is an acute and sometimes fatal psychotic reaction caused by abrupt cessation of excessive intake of alcoholic beverages

266
Q

DSM

A

Means diagnostic

267
Q

cranial surgery

A

May be needed for brain, tumors, trauma, brain, abscesses, or vascular abnormalities

268
Q

burr hole

A

A hole drilled into the skull (cranium)
it is particularly used to drain or irrigate an abscess
an opening in to the cranium with a drill, used to remove localize, fluid and blood beneath the dura

269
Q

Craniotomy

A

Any surgical opening into the skull?

Are performed to gain access to the brain, relieve ICP, or control, bleeding inside the skull.

opening into the cranium with removal of a bone flap, and opening of the Dura to remove a lesion, repair a damaged area, drain blood, or relieve increased intracranial pressure I CP

270
Q

Craniectomy

A

Excision into the cranium to cut away a bone flap

Surgical removal of a portion of the skull in order to perform surgery on the brain.
This type of surgery may be necessary to repair the brain or its vessels, remove a brain tumor, or repair an aneurysm.

271
Q

cranioplasty

A

repair of a cranial defect resulting from trauma, malformation, or previous surgical procedure; artificial material is used to replace damage or loss bone

272
Q

shunt procedures

A

Alternate path way to redirect cerebrospinal fluid CSF from one area to another using a tube or implanted device; for example, a ventriculoperitioneal shunt

273
Q

stereotaxis

A

precision localization of a specific area of the brain using a frame or a frameless system based on three-dimensional coordinates; procedure is used for biopsy, radiosurgery, or dissection

274
Q

Aneurysmsectomy

A

Is excision of an aneurysm

275
Q

Cranioplasty

A

Is surgical repair of the skull after surgery or injury to the skull.

276
Q

Cerebrotomy

A

Means incision of the brain

277
Q

Shunts

A

Device used to redirect body fluid to another area

Are used to redirect CSF from one area to another using a tube or an implanted device

278
Q

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

A

(consists of plastic tubing)
Creates a passageway between a cerebral ventricle and the peritoneum for the draining of CSF from the brain in hydrocephalus.

CSF-cerebrospinal fluid

279
Q

Stereotaxis

A

Uses a system of three-dimensional coordinates to locate a site to be operated on or irradiated.

280
Q

Stereotactic surgery

A

The surgeon is assisted by a computer guided apparatus that is used to target a specific area of the brain

281
Q

Stereotactic radiosurgery

A

Involves closed-skull destruction of a target (for example, a tumor) using ionizing radiation. The patient’s head is held in a stereotactic frame.

282
Q

Gamma knife procedure

A

A high dose of radiation is delivered to precisely targeted tour tissue. In naming this procedure, “knife” was used because controlled destructive radiation replaces the surgical knife.

Surgical lasers are also used to destroy tumors

283
Q

Cyberknife system

A

Uses unique robotic mobility and continuous image guidance, which follows the target through the treatment, (eliminating the need for restrictive headframe.)

284
Q

Neurolysis

A

Is destruction of nerves
Has several meanings, but all of them have to do with nervous tissue. The word is used to mean release of a nerve sheath by cutting it longitudinally, loosening of adhesions surrounding a nerve, or disintegrated of nerve tissue.

285
Q

Neuroplasty

A

Surgical repair of a nerve

286
Q

Neurorrhaphy

A

Specifically means suture of the nerve

Suture of a nerve

287
Q

Neurotripsy

A

Surgical crushing of a nerve

288
Q

neurectomy

A

Is excision of a nerve

289
Q

Nerve block anesthesia

A

Pain management may be for a short time (for example, after surgery) or longer (chronic pain) and may include both drug therapy and non-drug treatments. Nerve blocks are used to reduce pain by temporarily or permanently blocking transmission of nerve impulses.
Nerve block anesthesia
Is produced by injecting an anesthetic along the course of the nerve to inhibit the conduction of impulses to and from the area supplied by the nerve.

290
Q

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation TENS

A

Application of electric impulses to the nerve endings

Is used to control low back pain. Electrodes are placed on the skin and attach to a stimulator by flexible wires. That electric impulses black transmission of pain signals to the brain. TENS is not addictive and has no known side effects, but is contraindicated in patients with artificial cardiac pacemakers.

Is a method of pain control by the application of electric impulses to the nerve endings. Pain signals to the brain are blocked by electric impulses generated by a stimulator that is attached to electrodes placed on the skin.
Literal translation of transcutaneous is across or performed through the skin .

291
Q

Sympathectomy

A

It’s a surgical procedure in which one or more sympathetic nerves are severed. This surgery has special uses, including alleviation of pain.

292
Q

Epidural anesthesia

A

Means on or means on or outside the dura mater

Injection of anesthesia to produce numbness in the lower part of the body

Is injection of an anesthetic into the epidural space, which contains spinal fluid and spinal nerves. Epidurals, most commonly performed in the lumbar area, can be tailored to numb an area of the body from the lower extremities to the upper abdomen. They are often used in labor and childbirth. Epidural injections, containing various combinations of cortisone and anesthetics, are used by pain specialist to alleviate chronic pain of the lower back.

293
Q

Hypnotics

A

Are medication’s to induce sleep

Are drugs often used as sedatives to produce a calming effect. Functional activity, irritability, and excitement are decreased by sedatives.

294
Q

Antipyretics

A

Act against fever

295
Q

Thrombolytics

A

Agents used to dissolve blood clots

Dissolve blood clots

It’s a cerebral embolus is caused by a blood clot, a thrombolytic may be used

296
Q

vagotomy

A

Is Severine of various branches of the vagus nerve and is done to reduce the amount of acid secreted in the stomach. This is done to prevent the reoccurrence of an ulcer.

Severing of the vagus nerve

297
Q

Psychoanalysis

A

Is a method of diagnosing and treating disorders of the mind. This is accomplished by ascertaining and studying the facts of the patient’s mental condition.

298
Q

Psychotherapy

A

Is treatment of disorders of the mind by psychologic means rather than by physical means

299
Q

Psychopharmacology

A

Is the study of the action of drugs and functions of the mind

300
Q

Antianxiety drugs

A

Are used to relieve feelings of anxiety

301
Q

Tranquilizers

A

Are prescribed to calm, anxious, or agitated persons, ideally without decreasing their consciousness

302
Q

Narcotic drugs

A

Produce stupor or sleep

303
Q

Analgesics: Relieve pain

A

Narcotic analgesics (also called Opioid analgesics): Potential for addiction or abuse; used for severe pain; may alter one’s perception, or produce tolerance or dependency

codeine (with acetaminophen; Tylenol with
codeine #3)
fentanyl (Duragesic)
meperidine (Demerol)
methadone (Dolophine)
morphine (MS Contin)
oxycodone (OxyContin)
tramadol (Ultram)

304
Q

Nonnarcotic analgesics: No potential for addiction or abuse

A

acetaminophen (Tylenol)
NSAIDs (see below for examples)

305
Q

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): Mild to moderate pain relief

A

aspirin (Bayer)
celecoxib (Celebrex)
ibuprofen (Motrin)
naproxen (Aleve)

306
Q

Antialcoholics: Discourage use of alcohol

A

disulfiram (Antabuse)

307
Q

Anticonvulsants: Treat epilepsy and other seizure disorders

A

carbamazepine (Tegretol)
divalproex (Depakote)
ethosuximide (Zarontin)
gabapentin (Neurontin)
lacosamide (Vimpat)
lamotrigine (Lamictal)
phenytoin (Dilantin)
topiramate (Topamax)

308
Q

Antidepressants: Treat depression and other mental disorders by affecting the balance of neurotransmitters in the brain.Types of antidepressants include tricyclic, tetracyclic, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, serotonin modulators, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SSNRIs), and atypical.

A

amitriptyline (Elavil)
bupropion (Wellbutrin)
citalopram (Celexa)
duloxetine (Cymbalta)
fluoxetine (Prozac)
mirtazapine (Remeron)
phenelzine (Nardil)
trazodone (Oleptro)
venlafaxine (Effexor)
vilazodone (Viibryd)

309
Q

Antimigraine drugs: Treat migraine headach

A

ergotamine (Cafergot, with caffeine) galcanezumab (Emgality)
rizatriptan (Maxalt)
sumatriptan (Imitrex)
zolmitriptan (Zomig)

310
Q

Antiparkinsonian agents: Relieve symptoms of Parkinson disease and parkinsonian syndromes
Types include catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitors, dopamine agonists, and certain anticholinergics

A

amantadine (Symmetrel)
benztropine (Cogentin)
levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet)
pramipexole (Mirapex)
selegiline (Eldepryl)
tolcapone (Tasmar)

311
Q

tipsychotics/neuroleptics: Manage the symptoms of psychoses, such as hallucinations, delusions, or mania

A

aripiprazole (Abilify)
asenapine (Saphris)
chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
clozapine (Clozaril)
haloperidol (Haldol)
lurasidone (Latuda)
olanzapine (Zyprexa)
quetiapine (Seroquel)
risperidone (Risperdal)
thioridazine (Mellaril)

312
Q

Anxiolytics (also called antianxiety drugs): Induce relaxation to relieve anxiety
Many drugs in this class may also be considered hypnotics (promote sleep) or sedatives (depress central nervous system)Some antidepressants and the beta-blocker propranolol are also used to treat anxiety

A

buspirone (BuSpar)
doxepin (Silenor)
hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
meprobamate (Equanil)

313
Q

Benzodiazepines: Sedatives used to treat anxiety

A

alprazolam (Xanax)
chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
clonazepam (Klonopin)
diazepam (Valium)
lorazepam (Ativan)
midazolam (Versed)
temazepam (Restoril)

314
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitors:
Increase levels of acetylcholine to treat cognitive failures associated with dementia

A

donepezil (Aricept)
galantamine (Razadyne)
rivastigmine (Elexon)

315
Q

Mood stabilizers:
Balance neurotransmitters in the brain to prevent severe mood swings (mania and depression) and to treat bipolar disorder

A

lithium (Lithobid)

316
Q

Stimulants:
Increase synaptic activity in the brain to treat attention-deficit disorder, narcolepsy, fatigue, or to suppress the appetite

A

dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine)
methylphenidate (Ritalin)
phentermine (Adipex-P)

317
Q

Intracerebral

A

Refers to within the cerebrum

318
Q

Dura mater (layer of the meninges)

A

is the tough outer layer

arachnoid & the pia mater layers beneath the dura mater

319
Q

Phil(o)

A

Means attraction

320
Q

Paraphilia

A

is sexual perversion or deviation in which the sexual instinct is expressed in ways that are biologically, undesirable, socially prohibited, or socially unacceptable.

321
Q

Phych(o)

A

Mind

322
Q

Echoencephalogram

A

The record produced when ultrasonic waves record structural aspects of the brain