Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Chapter 6 Digestive System > Definition > Flashcards

Definition Flashcards

1
Q

Four Major functions of the digestive system

A

ingestion of food
digestion of food
absorption of nutrients
elimination of wastes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

alimentary tract

A

The digestive system is known by many names, including the digestive tract, the alimentary tract, and the gastrointestinal or G.I. System.

Alimentary tract begins at the mouth and ends at the anus, is basically a lawn, muscular tube several accessory organs (salivary glands, liver,gallbladder, and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

gastro/intestin/al
gastrointestinal

A

Refers to the stomach and the intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

digestive tract

A

Is a long, muscular tube, lined with mucus membrane, that extends from the mouth to the anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

upper G.I. tract (UGI)

A

consist of the mouth (oral cavity), pharynx (throat), esophagus, and stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

lower G.I. tract

A

Is made up of the small and large intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

accessory organs (digestive glands)

A

Salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas secrete fluids that aid in digestion of food and absorption of nutrients
The liver, gallbladder, and pancreas, are located near the other digestive structures within the abdominal cavity. The liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and salivary glands produce substances that are needed for proper digestion and absorption of nutrients, and are considered to be……………. organs of the digestive system.
These organs lie outside the digestive tract, if they produce her store secretions that are convey to the digestive tract by ducts. The secretions aid in the breakdown of food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

nutrition

A

Is the sum of the process involved in the taking in, digestion, absorption, and use of food substances by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

digestive system

A

Provides the body with water, nutrients, and minerals and illuminates undigested food particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nutrition can be divided into four stages

A

The stages from beginning to end can be divided into four separate functions:
ingestion
digestion
absorption
elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stage 1: Ingestion

A

Swallowing, orally, taking substances into the body
How to body takes in nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stage 2: digestion

A

Conversion of food into substances that can be absorbed; actually begins in the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stage 3: absorption

A

digested food molecules pass through the lining of the small intestine into the blood or lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Stage 4: elimination

A

Excretion of undigested food particles (wastes) through the anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

after swallowing

A

Food particles are moved along the digestive tract and mix with enzymes and digestive fluids. Movements are brought about by the contractions of smooth muscles of the digestive system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

peri/stalis
peristalis

A

around/contraction

The presence of food in the digestive tube stimulates a coordinated, rhythmic, muscular contraction called

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Digestion consist of mechanical and chemical processes

A

mechanical digestion begins in the mouth with chewing and continues with churning actions in the stomach.

Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are transformed into smaller molecules through chemical digestion.

The accessory organs contribute digestive fluids to aid this process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

absorption (third stage of digestion)

A

The process in which digested food molecules pass through the small intestine lining into the blood or lymph capillaries

Numerous folds in the small intestine increase the speed of transfer of nutrient molecules in the third stage of digestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

excreted

A

Eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

assimilation

A

Is the process of incorporating nutritive material into living tissue and occurs either after or simultaneously with absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Feces
a.k.a. stool, or fecal material

A

Wastes are excreted (elimated) through the anus in the form of…..

Our body weighs that is discharge from the bowels, by the way of the anus where feces are discharged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

anus

A

Is the opening of the large intestine to the outside.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Elimination of undigested food particles

A

is only one type of elimination of body wastes. Other body wastes include carbon dioxide, excreted by the lungs and excess water, and other substances excreted in the urine and through perspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Alimentation

A

Is the process of providing nourishment, or nutrition, for the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

metabolism

A

good nutrition is essential for metabolism, the sum of all the physical and chemical processes that take place in living organisms and result in growth, generation of energy, illumination of wastes, and other body functions as they relate to the distraction of nutrients in the blood after digestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Providing substances

A

(carbohydrates and fats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

tissue-building compounds

A

(Proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

inorganic chemicals

A

(Water and mineral salts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A balanced diet

A

is one that is adequate in energy-providing substances, tissu-building compounds, inorganic chemicals, vitamins, in certain other substances, such as bulk for promoting movement of the contents of the digestive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The dietary reference intakes (DRIs)

A

Are the levels of daily intake of essential nutrients that are considered adequate to meet nutritional needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

hemostasis, equilibrium of the internal environment of the body

A

Is maintained even though the amounts of various food, substances and water that we take in vary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Three classes of nutrients and their functions

A

1) carbohydrates (includes starches and sugars), the basic source of cell energy
2) proteins ( nitrogenous compounds ), provide amino acids and building material for development, growth, and maintenance
3) fats (lipids), energy reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

glycol/lysis
glycolysis

A

sugar/Destroying, breaking down
the breaking down of sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Gluclose

A

A simple sugar, is the major source of energy for the body‘s cells.
It is found in certain foods, especially fruits, and it is also formed when more complex sugars and starches are broken down by the digestive system.
The concentration of glucose in the blood in healthy individuals is maintained at a fairly constant level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Starches

A

The second type of carbohydrate, breakdown easily, and are eventually reduced to glucose before being absorbed into the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

amylo/lysis
amylolysis

A

Destruction of starch

The digestive process whereby starch is converted into sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

proteo/lysis
proteolysis

A

Breaking down (destruction, digestion) a protein
Proteolysis is necessary for digestion because proteins must be chemically broken down before they can be absorbed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

lipids (fats)

A

serve as energy reserve. When stored in fat cells, they form lipoid tissues, that helps to cushion and insulate vital organs. Although lipids also include steroids, waxes, and fatty acids, lip(o) usually refers to fats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

lip/oid
lipoid

A

Means resembling fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bile

A

Is a digestive chemical that breaks fat into smaller particles, preparing them for further action by lipases and absorption.
Aids in the digestion of fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Calories

A

Are units that are used to denote the energy value of food or the heat expenditure of an organism. Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats contain calories. Having about twice as many calories per gram is carbohydrates and proteins, bats are well-suited for storage of unused calories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Appetite

A

The normal desire for food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

eu/pepsia
eupepsia

A

Normal digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Digestive enzymes

A

Act on food, substances, causing them to break down into simpler compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Enzymes

A

Are usually named by adding -ase to the combining form of the substance on which they act. For example, lip/ase breaks down lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

lip/ase
lipase

A

Breaks down lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

lactase

A

The enzyme that breaks down lactose, the main sugar in the milk of mammals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Lactose intolerance

A

Is a disorder caused by inadequate production of, or defect in, but enzyme lactase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

amylace

A

An enzyme that breaks down starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

preteinase or protease

A

Is an enzyme that breaks down proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Thirst

A

Is the desire for fluid, especially water. Not only does wander serves to transport food in the digestive track, but it is also the principle medium in which chemical reactions occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Carbohydrates

A

The basic source of energy for human cells; includes enclosed and starches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Digestion

A

Conversion of food into substances that can be absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Elimination

A

Removal of undigested food particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Mucosa (mucous membrane)

A

The digestive tract is lined with a mucous membrane, which secretes mucus for lubrication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Muc/oid
Mucoid

A

Means resembling mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Muscular tube portion of the digestive tract

A

Consists of the upper G.I. tract in the lower G.I. tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The accessory organs

A

Salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Schematic of the pathway of food through the digestive tract

A

Digestion begins in the mouth (1). The teeth grind and chew the food before it is swallowed. The mask of chewed food is called a bolus.
The pharynx(2) passes the bolus to the esophagus (3), which leads to the stomach (4), where food is churned and broken down, chemically and mechanically.
The liquid mass, called chyme, is passed to the small intestine, where digestion continues and absorption of nutrients occurs. The three parts of the small intestine are shown: duodenum (5), jejunum (6), ilium (7).
Undigested food passes to the large intestine (8), where much of the water is absorbed. It is stored in the rectum until it is eliminated through the anus (9).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Bolus

A

Mass of chewed food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Esophagus

A

A muscular canal extending from the throat to the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

chyme

A

A liquid mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Three parts of the small intestine

A

1) duodenum
2) jejunum
3) ileum

1) about 25 cm, less than a foot, begins at the pyloric sphincter, and is the shorter section
2) below the duodenum, about 2.4 m (about 8 feet) long and joins the ileum.
The second portion is the jejunum which is continuous with the third portion.
3) is the distal portion of the small intestine. ileum is the longest part of the three parts of the small intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Large intestine
1.5 meters (about 5 ft) long

A

Undigested food passes to the large intestine were much of water is absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Rectum

A

The mass is stored in the rectum until it is eliminated through the anus

The lower part of the large intestine is the rectum, terminates in a narrow, anal canal. This canal intern opens to the exterior at the anus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Summary of the pathway of food through the digestive tract ( upper & lower)

A

Starts with food at the mouth(1) where the salivary glands are, then goes to the pharynx (2) proceeds to the esophagus (3) and onto the stomach (4). Then in line where the Liver, Gallbladder and Pancreas are, the small intestine (5) starts.
A) deudonum
B) jejunum
C) ileum
Which then goes to the
Large Intestine (6)
A) Cecum
B) Ascending Colon
C) Transverse Colon
D) Descending Colon
E) Sigmoid Colon
F) Rectum
Then the Anus (7) then the elimination of feces (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Esophag/eal
Esophageal

A

Pertaining to the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Gastr/ic
Gastric

A

Pertaining to the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Oro/pharyng/eal

A

Pertaining to the mouth and pharynx or pertaining to the oropharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pharyng/eal
Pharyngeal

A

Pertaining to the pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Intestin/al
Intestinal

A

Pertaining to the intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

enter/ic
enteric

A

Pertaining to the intestines

Most medical words concerning the intestines are formed using enter enter(o), but a few terms use enter(o) to specifically mean the small intestines (for example, enter/itis, enteritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Enter/al

A

Means within, by way of, or pertaining to the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Enternal tube feeding

A

Introduce his food directly into the gastrointestinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

colon

A

The structure that comprises most of the large intestine and where much of the water is absorbed as the waste are moved along the rectum.

The colon is only that portion of the large intestine extending from the cecum to the rectum.

The colon makes up most of the 5 feet of large intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Colonic

A

Means pertaining to the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

colic

A

Means pertaining to the large intestine, but it also means spasm in any hollow or tubular, soft organ accompanied by pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Infantile colic

A

Which is colic occurring during the first few months of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Rectum

A

Which is the lower part of the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Anus

A

The outlet of the rectum, and it lives in the fold between the buttocks.
The anal canal is about 4 cm long solid ways are eliminated via the anus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Rectal

A

Pertaining to the rectum, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Anal

A

Means pertaining to the anus, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Enter/itis
Enteritis

A

Inflammation of the small intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Oro/pharyng/eal
Oropharyngeal

A

Pertaining to the mouth and throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Oral cavity

A

Is the beginning of the digestive tract (the oral cavity, esophagus, and the stomach comprise the upper digestive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Mouth structures

A

The mouth is bounded anteriorly by the lips and contains the tongue and teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Roof of the mouth

A

Is the hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Other aspects of the mouth include

A

Gums, the uvula, the oropharynx, and the buccinator muscle (main muscle of the cheek that is involved in chewing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Mandible

A

Lower jaw bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Maxilla

A

Upper jaw bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Palat/ine

A

Pertains to the pallet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Roof of the mouth

A

Is formed by the bony arch of the hard palate and the fibrous soft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

bucc/al cavity
buccal

A

Means pertaining to the area between the teeth and the cheeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Tongue muscle

A

Covered with mucus membrane, is the principal organ of taste, and assist in chewing and swallowing food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Gloss/al Glossal
Lingu/al Lingual

A

Means pertaining to the tongue. Most words involving the tongue who is the combining form gloss(o)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Hypo/glossal hypoglossal
sub/lingual sublingual

A

Mean under the tongue
Beneath the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Gingiva

A

Another name for the gum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Den/ture
Denture

A

Refers to a set of teeth, either natural or artificial, but is ordinarily used to designate artificial ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Den/tal
Dental

A

Pertains to the teeth.
32 teeth in a full set

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Mouth

A

The mouth has a upper and lower dental arch, the curving shape formed by the arrangement of a normal set of teeth in the jaw. 16 teeth in each Dental arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Mandibul/ar
Mandibular

A

Lower jaw/pertaining to

Lower jaw. The 18th on each side of the dental arch make up a quadrant.

Mandibul (structure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Teeth

A

In each quadrant

2 incisors
1 cuspids (canine)
2 bicuspids (premolar)
3 molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Anterior teeth

A

generally fall out and are replaced sooner than posterior ones. The last molars, which is posterior to all teeth, is known as the wisdom teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Primary or deciduous teeth
(Baby teeth)

A

Begin to fall out in to be replaced with permanent teeth when a child is about six years of age. The wisdom teeth are the last two irrupt, usually between 17 and 25 years of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

All teeth consist of two basic parts

A

Crown- portion of the tooth that normally Projects above the gums
The Crown is covered by enamel, the hardest substance in the back.

Rot or roots - embedded in the bony socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Endodontium

A

The soft tissue inside the tooth is the dental pulp also called the……
or tooth pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Peri/odont/ium
Periodontium

A

around/teeth/tissue
The tissue around the teeth

The tissue investing and supporting the teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Peri/odont/al
Periodontal

A

Pertaining to/around/teeth
around the tooth or pertaining to the periodontium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Specialties in dentistry

A

1) endodontics - endodontist
2) orthodontics - orthodontist
3) periodontics - periodontist
4) gerodontics - gerondontist
5) pedodontics - pedodontist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Endodontics

A

Diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the dental pulp, tooth root and surrounding tissues, and the associated practice of root canal therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Orthodontics

A

Diagnose and treatment of the irregularities of the teeth, including straightening.
Orthodontist often uses braces to straighten the teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Periodontics

A

Study and treatment of the periodontium by a periodontist
Practitioner who specializes in the gums and other tissues, that support the teeth.

periodontium the tissues, investing, and supporting the teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

gerodontics

A

Dental, diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of older persons; the specialist is a gerodontist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Pedodontics

A

Study and treatment of children’s dental needs; the specialist is a pedodontist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Dentil

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Denti/lingu/al
Dentillingual

A

teeth/tongue/pertaining to
pertaining to the teeth and tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

gingiv/al
gingival

A

gums/pertaining to
pertaining to the gums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

glosso/pharyng/eal
glossopharyngeal

A

tongue/pharynx/pertaining to
Pertaining to the tongue in pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

inter/dent/al
Interdental

A

between/teeth/pertaining to
pertaining to between the two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

maxill/ary
Maxillary

A

maxilla/pertaining to
pertaining to the maxilla (upper jaw)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Lingu/al
Lingual

A

Tongue/ pertaining to
Pertaining to the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Palat/ine
Palatine

A

Palate/pertaining to the roof of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

inter/dent/al

A

Between/teeth/pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Three pairs of salivary glands

A

Par/otid -
parotid- the largest salivary gland are near the ears
sub/lingual
sublingual- are located under the tongue
Sub/mandibular
Submanibular- are located in the tissue of the lower jaw, rather than beneath it as the name implies

Consist of numerous lobes connected by vessels and ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Salivary glands

A

Which are accessory organs of digestion, secrete saliva into the oral cavity. The mouth taste what we consume and performs other functions of digestion by mixing the food with saliva, chewing, and voluntarily swallowing it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Saliva

A

Contains amylase, which begins digestion of starch in the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Food that is swallowed

A

Passes from the mouth to the pharynx and the esophagus. Both the pharynx and the esophagus are muscular structures that move food along on its way to the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Esophagus

A

Is a muscular canal extending from the pharynx to the stomach.
The esophagus, about 24 cm 9 1/2 inches) long, secretes mucus to facilitate the movement of food into the stomach. Upper and lower esophag/eal (esophageal) sphincters control the movement of food into an out of the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Sphincter

A

(G) that which binds tight) consist of circular muscle that constricts a passage or closes a natural opening in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

post/esophag/eal

A

Means situated behind the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Regions of the stomach

A

Cardiac region
Fundus (round)
The body (middle portion)
Pyloric region or pylorus, which is the small distal end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Cardiac sphincter

A

Guards the opening of the esophagus into the stomach and prevents backflow of material into that esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Pyloric sphincter

A

The stomach ends with the pyloric sphincter, which regulates overflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Rugae

A

The lining of the stomach, the mucosa, is arranged in temporary folds called rugae (visible in the empty stomach), which allow expansion as the stomach fills
The rugae, most apparent when the stomach is empty, allows the stomach to expand as it fills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Structure of the stomach wall

A

Longitudinal, circular, and oblique, smooth muscle lie just beneath the serosa. All stomach layers are richly supplied with blood vessels and nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Gastric glands

A

Secrete, gastric juice through gastric pits, tiny holes in the mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Three layers of smooth muscle (structure of the stomach wall)

A

Oblique
Circular
Longitudinal
These lie just beneath the serosa

Serosa most outer layer
Longitudinal
Circular
Oblique
Blood vessel
Submucosa
Lymph nodes
Gastric glands
Mucosa which ends on the inner side of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Pyloric sphincter

A

The stomach ends with the pyloric sphincter, which regulates the outflow of stomach contents into the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Duodenum

A

The first part of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Mucosa

A

Lines the stomach and is arranged in temporary folds, called the rugae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Ruga (singular for rugae)

A

Means ridge, wrinkle, or fold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Serosa

A

The outer layer, membrane, of the stomach. This type of visceral peritoneum holds the stomach and position by folding back on an over the structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Chyme
(Liquefied food)

A

The stomach is a temporary reservoir for food, and is the first major site of digestion. After digestion, the stomach gradually feeds liquefied food (chyme) into the small intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Gums

A

Gingiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Intestines
Includes the small intestines and the large intestines

A

Make up the lower digestive tract. The intestines are sometimes called the bowels. Extending from the pyloric opening to the anus, the intestinal tract is about 7.5 to 8.5 meters (m) long (about 24 1/2 to 28 feet)

The adult, small intestine, comprising more than 3/4 of the length of the intestines, is 6 to 7 m (about 20 to 23 feet) long. The large intestine is so named because it is larger in diameter than the small intestine, but it is less than 1/4 as long.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Small intestine

A

-Longer than the large intestine
-Finishes the process of digestion
-Absorbs nutrients
-And passes the residue onto the large intestine.

The small intestine is responsible for two successive processes, digestion and absorption, before passing the residue to the large intestine.

Note that the small intestine decreases in diameter from its beginning at the duodenum to its ending at the ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

ile/ac ile/al
ileac. ileal

A

Means pertaining to the ileum (distal portion of the small intestine) (third part of the small intestine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Duodenal
jejunal

A

Means pertaining to the duodenum
means pertaining to the jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Internal structure of the small intestine

A

Is similar throughout its length. The wall has an inner lining of mucosa, two layers of muscle, and an outer layer of serosa. The mesentery, the fan shaped fold of peritoneum, suspends the jejunum and ileum from the dorsal wall of the abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Internal structure of small intestine

A

1) mucosa-innermost membrane. Both mucosa and submucosa have many folds and finger like projections called villi. (function to absorb nutrients.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Villi

A

Manifolds and fingerlike projections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Folds & fingerlike projections

A

Increases the surface area of the mucosa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Large intestine

A

Automatically divided into the cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Location in parts of the large intestine

A

Vermiform Appendix
Cecum
Ascending colon
Transverse colon
Descending colon
Sigmoid colon
Rectum
Anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Distal

A

Refers to distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

ileo/Cecil valve

A

Is located between the ileum and the cecum. Retro/cecal (retrocecal) means behind the cecum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Vermiform appendix

A

Is a worm like structure that opens into the cecum. An appendix simply means an appendage, but its most common usage is in referring to the vermiform appendix just described.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Appendicular

A

Means either pertaining to an appendage or pertaining to the variform appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Sigmoid colon

A

The last part of the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Retro/col/ic
Retrocolic

A

Pertaining to behind the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Peri/col/ic
Pericolic

A

Means pertaining to the tissue around the colon. In this term, “ the tissue around the structure” is implied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Features of the large intestine

A

Cecum
Appendix
Colon
Rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Double set of circular muscles

A

Internal sphincter and external sphincter
Surround the anus and control the discharge of fecal material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Defecation

A

Is the elimination of feces from the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Colo/rectal
Colorectal

A

Means pertaining to or affecting the colon in the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Procto/logist
Proctologist

A

Specializes in treating disorders of the colon, rectum, and anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Gastro/enterology
Gastroenterology

A

Is the study of the stomach and intestines and associated diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Large intestine has several important functions

A

While moving wastes along its length, the large intestine absorbs water, sodium, and chloride. The large intestine is capable of absorbing 90% of water and sodium it receives.
The large intestine, secretes, mucus, which Bynes vehicle particles into a form to mass and lubricates the mucosa.
Bacteria in the large intestine are responsible for the production of several vitamins
Feces are formed and expelled from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

retro/cec/al
retrocecal

A

Pertaining to behind the first portion of the large intestine
Behind the cecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

ile/al

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Liver

A

Major function of producing bile. The bile is then transported to the gallbladder for storage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Liver functions
-most commonly known - the formation and excretion of bile for digestion of fats

A

1) production of bile
2) breakdown of toxic compounds
3) involvement in the regulation of blood glucose
4) lipid metabolism
5) synthesis of plasma proteins
6) storage of iron in certain vitamins
7) filtering of the blood
8) excretion of bile pigment from the breakdown of hemoglobin
9) excretion of hormones and cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

biliary

A

Means pertaining to bile
but chol(e) is used more often to write terms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

biliary tract

A

The organs in the ducts that participate in the secretion, storage, and delivery of bio make up the biliary tract. Bile leave the liver by the hepatic duct and is taken to the gallbladder for storage until it is needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Bile

A

Is stored in the gallbladder and released when fats are ingested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Pancreas

A

Secretes, many substances, including digestive, enzymes, and insulin

Is both digestive and hormonal functions
This elongated gland stretches transversely across the posterior abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Pancreatic juice

A

Place an important role in the digestion of all classes of food.
Pancreatic juice contains lipase, amylase, and several other enzymes that are essential to normal digestion.

The pancreas also produces hormones, including insulin that play a primary role in the regulation of carbohydrate metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Clusters of cells in the pancreas
(the islets of Langerhans)

A

Produce glucagon and insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Glucagon

A

Increases blood glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Insulin

A

Lowers blood glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Blood glucose

A

The two hormones, glucagon and insulin work together to regulate blood glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Hypo/glycemia
Hypoglycemia

A

Is a decreased level of glucose in the blood
Secretion of glucagon is stimulated by hypoglycemia
small amounts of insulin are secreted continuously in the fasting state, but secretion rises in response to the increase in blood glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Hyper/glyc/emia

A

Is greater than normal amount of sugar in the blood. This condition is often associated with diabetes mellitus.(DM),
primarily a result of insufficient production or improper use of insulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

cholecystic

A

Pertaining to the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

cholecystogastric

A

Pertaining to the gallbladder and the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

choleochal

A

Pertaining to the common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

extrahepatic

A

Situated or occurring outside the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Hepatic

A

Pertaining to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Hepatotoxic Sometimes called hypatolytic

A

Destructive to the liver, sometimes called hepatolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Pancreatic

A

Pertaining to the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Suprahepatic

A

Situated about the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Diagnostic test and procedures

Physical assessment of the G.I. system

A

Begins with an examination, the patient’s mouth, pharynx, and abdomen
A systematic assessment of the internal abdominal organs can be made using auscultation , percussion and palpitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Diagnostic test and procedures

Assessment of the intestinal tract

A

Has been greatly facilitated by radiology and endoscopy(direct visualization of internal organs using an endoscope), revealing abnormalities, such as masses, tumors, and obstructions. And abdominal x-ray is usually one of the first radiographic studies performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Diagnostic test and procedures

Computed tomography, sonography, and endoscopic procedure’s

A

Are often used to detect gallstones. Each of the instruments used in endoscopy is specially designed for the examination of particular organs. The instruments used in endoscopy are called endoscopes.
Other instruments can be inserted through the endoscope to remove small pieces of tissue, to collect samples of tissues for the study, to inject agents, or to perform laser surgery.

195
Q

Colonoscopy

A

Direct visualization of the large intestine

Endo scopic examination of the colon using a flexible colonoscopy
Visual examination of the mucosal lining of the colon
Same as colposcopy, but colonoscopy is more common
Instrument used is a colonoscope; tissue, biopsy, specimens, or polyps can often be removed

196
Q

Duodenoscopy

A

Endo scopic examination of the duodenum, using a duodenoscope

197
Q

esophagogastroscopy

A

Endo scopic examination of the esophagus and stomach using a gastroscope

198
Q

esophagogastroduodenoscopy EGD

A

Endo, scopic, examination of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum

If the esophagus is the focus of that examination, the procedure is called esophagoscopy; if the stomach is the focus, the procedure is a gastroscopy.

199
Q

Proctosigmoidoscopy

A

Endoscopic examination of the rectum and sigmoid colon using a sigmoidoscope; also called sigmoidoscopy

200
Q

Pyloroscopy

A

Endoscopic inspection of the opening between the stomach and the duodenum

Endo scopic examination of the pyloric region of the stomach

201
Q

Sonography

A

Is less invasive than endoscopy, and can be used to image soft tissues, such as the liver, the spleen, and the pancreas.

202
Q

Nuclear imaging

A

Can be used to evaluate the size of organs and vessels as well as to detect the presence of tumors or abscesses.
One of the more common tests of this type is a liver scan, which involves intravenous injection of a radioactive compound that is readily absorbed by certain cells of the liver. The radiation emitted by the compound provides information about the size shape, and consistency of the liver.

203
Q

Fluoroscopy

A

Visual examination using a fluoroscope

Permits, both structural and functional visualization of internal body structures is used to provide visualization of the digestive tract with the use of contrast media, the motion of the body part can be viewed, and the image can be permanently recorded. That equipment use and fluoroscopy is a specialized type of x-ray machine called a floor scope

204
Q

Oral cholecystography

A

Radiography of the gallbladder is obtained 12 to 15 hours after ingestion contrast medium. Because nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are fairly common with this means of diagnosing biliary disease. It has been largely replaced by ultrasound.

Is radiography of the major bile ducts, and is useful in demonstrating gall stones and tumors

205
Q

Endoscopic retrograde cholangipancreatography (ERCP)

A

Is a diagnostic and therapeutic combination of endoscopy and fluoroscopy that is used to evaluate the biliary and pancreatic ducts.
Injection of contrast medium facilitates visibility and radiographic images, and stones in the biliary tree can be retrieved via the endoscope.

206
Q

Operative cholangiography

A

Is performed by injecting a contrast medium into the common bile duct through a catheter called a T tube. This allows residual stones in the bile ducts to be seen. This type of angiography is called operative cholangiography.

207
Q

Cholecystography

A

Radiographic examination of the gallbladder accomplished, by rendering the gallbladder and ducts opaque with a contrast medium.
In an oral cholecystogram the patient is given a contrast agent in tablet form.

208
Q

Esophagram

A

X-ray image of the esophagus taken after swallowing a liquid barium suspension; called also an esophagogram or a barium swallow.

209
Q

Pancreatography

A

Visualization of the pancreas by various means, including CT & sonography

210
Q

sialography

A

Radiographic examination of the salivary glands after injection, other radiopaque contrast medium.

211
Q

Upper and lower gastrointestinal series

A

examination of the upper G.I. ( esophagus, stomach, and duodenum) and lower G.I. tract using barium as the contrast medium. A barium meal is ingested in a new G.I. series, also called barium swallow. A barium enema is administered in a lower gastrointestinal series.

212
Q

Small bowel follow-through study (SBFT)

A

Often performed immediately after an upper gastrointestinal series, a small bowel follow through helps identify abnormalities in the small bowel.
This is an x-ray using contrast dyes.

213
Q

Liver function test (LFT)

A

Several blood tests, provide information about functions of the liver, and these are aptly named liver function tests (LFT). Examples include serum, bilirubin, alkaline, phosphatase, aspartate aminotransferase (AST or SGOT), and alanine aminotransferase ( ALT or SGPT). Increases in these laboratory values often indicate liver disease.

214
Q

Hematochezia

A

Presence of blood in the stool

215
Q

Occult blood

A

Is blood that is not obvious on examination, but can be detected by chemical tests.
The presence of occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, finding associated with ulcers, ulcerative, colitis, or cancer.

216
Q

Guanaco test ( hemoccult)

A

And occult blood test of the stool in healthy individuals is usually negative.

217
Q

Stool samples

A

Are test for fat as an indication of pancreatic disease, or malabsorption, impaired absorption.

218
Q

Stool samples

A

Are tested for fats as an indication of pancreatic disease, or malabsorption, impaired absorption.
Stool samples are also tested for ova and parasites to aid in the diet gnosis a parasites infection

219
Q

Fat

A

Is normally absorbed in the small intestine, giving a negative test result for fecal fats
The presence of fat in stool samples is an abnormal finding. Literal translation of malabsorption is poor or bad absorption.

220
Q

esophagogastroscopy

A

Visual examination of the esophagus and stomach

221
Q

Cholecystogram

A

Radiographic record of the gallbladder

222
Q

Nausea (N)
Vomiting (V)

A

Often occur together however, nausea is the urge to vomit, whether or not vomiting occurs

223
Q

malaise

A

a feeling of general discomfort, uneasiness or lack of wellbeing and often the first sign of an infection or other disease.

224
Q

An/orexia
Anorexia

A

Without/appetite

Lack or loss of appetite

225
Q

Anorexia nervosa

A

Is sometimes life-threatening illness that is self induced starvation

Unless there is intervention, anorexia nervosa results in emaciation, excessive leanness caused by disease or lack of nutrition

226
Q

Emaciation

A

Excessive leanness caused by disease or lack of nutrition; a wasted condition of the body

227
Q

adipsia

A

Absence of thirst
Condition of the absence of thirst

228
Q

Bulimia

A

:bous, ox; limos, hunger

Eating disorder that occurs predominantly in females with onset, usually in adolescence or early adulthood; characterized by episodes of binge eating that often and in purging (self induced, vomiting, or the use of laxatives) and depression

229
Q

Celiac disease

A

An inborn error of metabolism, characterized by the inability to digest, gluten, resulting in abdominal distention, vomiting, diarrhea, extreme lethargic, and sometimes lactose intolerance.
Gluten is an insoluble protein found in wheat and other grains. Some individuals have gluten sensitivity or intolerance, but do not have celiac disease.

230
Q

dyspepsia

A

Faulty or painful digestion, and symptomatic of other diseases or disorders; indigestion

231
Q

Dysphagia

A

Difficulty or inability, to swallow ( it’s literal translation is difficult eating

232
Q

Eructation

A

Belching; results from drawing up air from the stomach and expelling it through the mouth. Differs from a hiccup, produced by involuntary contraction of the diaphragm, followed by rapid closure of the glottis.

233
Q

Hematemesis

A

Vomiting of blood; indicates upper G.I. bleeding. Emesis means vomiting.

234
Q

Hyperemesis

A

Excessive vomiting, usually accompanied by nausea

235
Q

Malabsorption syndrome

A

Subnormal absorption of dietary constituents characterized by anorexia, weight, loss, abdominal bloating, muscle cramps, and the presence of fat in stool samples; can be caused by a number of disorders, including several inborn errors of metabolism, such as celiac disease

236
Q

Malnutrition

A

Improper or poor nutrition

237
Q

Polydipsia

A

Excessive thirst, characteristic of several conditions, including diabetes mellitus

238
Q

Polyphagia

A

Excessive eating; if it occurs over a long period, it generally leads to weight gain

239
Q

Emesis

A

Means vomiting

240
Q

Obesity

A

Is an abnormal increase in the proportion of fat cells of the body, and a person is regarded as medically obese if he or she is 20% above desirable body weight for the persons age, sex, height, and body build.

Obesity is defined as a BMI of 30 or greater.
BMI is calculated by dividing a persons weight in kilograms by the square of the persons height in meters.

241
Q

BMI body mass index

A

The calculated body mass index using weight to height ratios is an index of obesity, or altered body fat distribution

242
Q

Exogenous obesity
exo/gen/ous

A

Pertaining to development outside the body

Is caused by a greater caloric intake than that needed to meet the metabolic needs of the body.

243
Q

Endogenous obesity
Endo/gen/ous

A

Originates from within the body, as seen in hormonal disorders, such as uncontrolled diabetes.

244
Q

United States

A

Statistics show that approximately 2/3 of adults and 1/5 of children in the United States, are either overweight or obese, placing them at high absolute risk for mortality from numerous chronic diseases.

245
Q

Diseases of the upper digestive tract

A

Include those diseases or disorders that affect the mouth, the esophagus, and the stomach.

246
Q

Aphagia
A/phag/ia

A

Absence of eating

And inability to swallow as a result of an organic or psychological cause

247
Q

stomatomycosis

A

Any oral disease caused by a fungus

Is a fungal condition of the mouth

Mouth (structure)

248
Q

Candida albicans

A

Is a yeast type of fungus that is part of the normal flora of the oral cavity.

Flora - the term used to describe the microorganisms that exist on or within the human body,

249
Q

Candidiasis

A

Because antibiotic therapy destroys the normal bacteria, that usually prevent fungal infections, candidiasis (An infection caused by candida, usually C. albicans) can result.

Also, patients receiving chemotherapy often develop candidiasis, because chemotherapy diminishes the ability of the immune system to prevent infection.

250
Q

Cheil/itis
Cheilitis

A

lip/inflammation

Inflammation of the lip

Often causing pain when one attempt to eat

251
Q

gingiv/algia
gingivalgia

A

gum/pain
Painful gums

Gums (structure)

252
Q

gingiv/itis
gingivitis

A

gum/inflammation
Inflammation of the gum

253
Q

gingivo/gloss/itis
gingivoglossitis

A

gum/tongue/flammation
Inflammation of the gums and tongue

254
Q

gingivo/stomat/itis
gingivostomatitis

A

gum/mouth/inflammation
Inflammation of the gums and mouth

255
Q

gloss/itis
glossitis

A

tongue/inflammation
Inflammation of the tongue

256
Q

Glosso/pathy
Glossopathy

A

tongue/disease
Any disease of the tongue

257
Q

glosso/plegia
glossoplegia

A

Tongue/paralysis
Paralysis of the tongue

258
Q

glosso/pyr/osis
glossopyrosis

A

Is an abnormal sensation of pain, burning, and stinging of the tongue without a parent, Lucians, or clause.

Tongue (structure)

259
Q

Stomat/itis
Stomatitis

A

mouth/inflammation
Makes eating difficult because the mouth is painful. Inflammation of the mouth.

260
Q

stomato/dynia
stomatodynia

A

Mouth/painful
Painful mouth

261
Q

Ulcers

A

Are defined, crater like lesions.

262
Q

Cold, sores, fever blisters

A

Ulcerations on the lips
Usually caused by the herpes symplex virus HSV

263
Q

cheil/osis
cheilosis

A

It’s a condition of the lips.
In cheilosis there is splitting of the lips and angles of the mouth. Cheilosis is a characteristic of riboflavin deficiency in the diet.

Lips (structure)

264
Q

dent/algia
dentalgia

A

Means to toothache. dentalgia is often caused by caries that have extended into the tooth pulp. Caries means decay.
Tooth (structure)

265
Q

caries

A

Means decay. Neglected, dental, caries, overtime, invade, the flame, pupal tissues.

266
Q

end/odont/itis
endodontitis

A

inside, internal, interior/pulp/inflammation

Inflammation of the endodontium, or the tooth pulp

Tooth (structure)

267
Q

Overbite

A

Protrusion of the upper front teeth

268
Q

Underbite

A

Positioning of the lower front teeth outside the upper front teeth

269
Q

Halitosis (bad breath)

A

Is an offensive breath, resulting from poor oral hygiene, Dental, or oral infection, you some tobacco, ingestion of certain foods(such as garlic) , or some systemic diseases (such as the order of acetone in Diabetes or ammonia in liver disease)

270
Q

Malposition

A

An impacted tooth is one that is unable to irrupt because of crowding by adjacent teeth, or malposition of the tooth

271
Q

Malocclusion (or improper bite)

A

Is abnormal contact of the teeth of the upper jaw, the maxilla, with the teeth of the lower jaw, the mandible

272
Q

Orthodontic braces

A

Are used to move the teeth into alignment, in other words, to straighten the teeth

273
Q

Peri/odont/itis
Periodontitis

A

around/teeth/inflammation
Inflammation of the periodontium, the structure that supports the teeth

Tooth (structure)

274
Q

Pyorrhea

A

pus/discharge
Discharge of pus

Is one type of periodontal disease. Pyorrhea is an inflammation of the gingiva and the periodontal ligament, the fibrous connective tissue that anchors the tooth to the base

275
Q

TMJ temporo/mandibular/joint
Temporomandibular joint

A

TMJ pain dysfunction syndrome is an abnormal condition that interferes with eating and is believed to be caused by a defective or dislocated temporomandibular joint (one of a pair of joints, connecting the mandible (lower jaw) to the skull

276
Q

TMJ syndrome

A

This condition is characterized by facial pain and clicking sounds while chewing. Malocclusion, ill, fitting, dentures, and a variety of conditions can cause TMJ syndrome.

277
Q

Oral cancer

A

The mouth is examined for oral cancer during a routine dental examination. Tumors of the oral cavity can cause pain and change aspects of talking, swallowing, or chewing. Oral tumors can be classified as pre-malignant, malignant, or benign.

278
Q

Leukoplakia

A

Slowly developing change in the buccal mucosa (cheek), characterized by white, sharply circumscribed patches, is a pre-cancerous lesion

Is a pre-cancerous, slowly developing change in a mucous membrane, characterized by white patches with sharply defined edges that are slightly raised. Leukoplakia may occur on the genitals, or the lips and buccal mucosa.

279
Q

Cleft lip

A

Cleft lip in the upper lip is bilateral, but the congenital defect may be unilateral, median, or bilateral, and may be accompanied by cleft palate

280
Q

Buccal mucosa

A

Is the mucous membrane that lines the insides of the cheeks?

281
Q

Parotitis

A

Is inflammation of the parotid gland. epidemic or infectious parotitis is another name for the mumps, which is a contagious, viral disease, that can generally be prevented by immunization

282
Q

Months

A

Is an acute viral infection that is characterized by swelling of the parotid glands and me affect one or both glands. The parotid gland is a salivary gland, located near the ear.

283
Q

Cleft palate

A

Often associated with cleft lip is a congenital defect in which there is a division of the pallet, resulting from the failure of the two sides of the palate to fuse during development.

Failure of the two sides of the pallet to fuse during development results in cleft palate

284
Q

Esophagus

A

Is susceptible to a variety of inflammatory, structural, and neoplastic disorders

285
Q

Esophageal achalasia

A

Is an abnormal condition in which the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax properly in response to swallowing It is characterized by dysphagia. Regurgitation, the return of swallowed food into the mouth may also occur. changes in diet and certain drugs may be helpful, but dilation of the esophagus with progressively larger sizes of dilators is also used.

286
Q

Esophageal atresia

A

Usually a congenital abnormality, is an esophagus that ends in a blind pouch, or narrows so much that it abstracts continuous passage of food to the stomach

287
Q

Esophageal varices ( singular, varix)

A

Are enlarged and swollen beams at the lower end of the esophagus, which are especially susceptible to hemorrhage

Upper gastrointestinal bleeding is usually caused by esophageal varices, gastritis, ulcerations, or cancer of either the esophagus or stomach

288
Q

Gastroesophageal, reflux, disease (GERD)

A

Pertaining to the stomach and esophagus

Is a dysfunction that involves a backflow of the contents of the stomach into the esophagus
The cause is often a weak counteract sphincter

289
Q

Esophag/itis
Esophagitis

A

Esophagus/inflammation
Inflammation of the mucosal lining of the esophagus caused by infection

Repeated episodes of reflux, can result in esophagitis, stricter (narrowing) of the esophagus, or an esophageal ulcer (craterlike lesion)
Treatment in early stages is elevation of the head of the bed, avoidance of acid, stimulating foods, and use of anti-acids or anti-ulcer medication’s

290
Q

Hiatal hernia

A

Gerd is one of the major symptoms
Protrusion of a portion of the stomach upward through a defect in the diaphragm
Asymptomatic
Diagnosis generally confirmed by radiology, and surgery is seldom necessary

291
Q

Gastritis

A

One of the most common stomach disorders, is inflammation of the lining of the stomach
Causes include medicines, food, allergies, and toxins of micro organisms
Chronic gastritis can be a sign of another disease, such as cancer of the stomach or peptic ulcer

292
Q

Peptic ulcers

A

Occur in the stomach, the Duodenum, and occasionally the esophagus, and are sometimes caused by bacterium,
Helicobacter pylori.
The alterations are breaks in the continuity of the mucous membrane, that comes in contact with the assets of the stomach. That usually occur near the pyloric opening. these types of ulcers cause stomach ache, also called Gastralgia.

293
Q

Gastralgia

A

Pain of the stomach
Most peptic ulcers, eventually heal, and the pain is controlled with drugs, that either neutralize or black secretion of acid

294
Q

Pyloric stenosis

A

Is narrowing of the pyloric sphincter. The condition is a congenital defect, and it interferes with the flow of food into the small intestine

295
Q

Gastric dysfunction

A

Prominent signs and symptoms

Pain, excessive belching, flatulence, nausea, vomiting, blood in the stool, and diarrhea.

296
Q

Flatulence

A

Is excessive gas in the stomach or intestines.

297
Q

Diarrhea

A

Is frequent passage of watery bowel movements, often accompanied by cramping.

298
Q

esophago/dynia esophag/algia
esophagodynia. esophagalgia

A

Esophagus/pain

Pain of the esophagus

299
Q

esophago/malacia
esophagomalacia

A

Esophagus/softening

Morbid softening of the esophagus

300
Q

gastr/ectasia
gastrectasia

A

Stomach/stretching

301
Q

gastr/ic carcin/oma
Gastric carcinoma

A

Stomach/pertaining to cancer/tumor
Cancer of the stomach

302
Q

gastro/malacia
Gastromalacia

A

Stomach/softening
Morbid softening of the stomach

303
Q

gastro/megaly
gastromegaly

A

Stomach/enlargement
Abnormal enlargement of the stomach or abdomen

304
Q

gastro/pathy
gastropathy

A

Stomach/any disease of
Any disease of the stomach

305
Q

Intestinal disorders

A

Can be classified as inflammatory, or non-inflammatory

306
Q

Periton/itis
Peritonitis

A

Is an acute inflammation of the peritoneum (the lining of the abdominal cavity)
Causes
Rupture of abdominal organs, such as the appendix, peptic, ulcers, or perforations of an organ in the G.I. tract.
Without treatment, it becomes a life-threatening illness.

307
Q

Acute inflammatory bowel problems

A

Appendicitis
Gastroenteritis
Dysentery

308
Q

Gastro/enteritis
Gastroenteritis

A

Inflammation of the stomach and intestine (small)
Causes are Food poisoning Irritating food or drink, Viral or bacterial infections and Sometimes psychological factors such as stress

Symptoms
Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, and possibly fever. The feces may contain blood, mucus, pus, or excessive amounts of fat.

309
Q

dys/enter/y
dysentery

A

Inflammation of the colon that is characterized by abdominal pain and frequent bloody stools

bad/intestine/condition
Inflammation of the intestine, especially the colon. The most common types are caused by bacteria or amebae (parasitic organisms) characterized by frequent and bloody feces. Diarrhea, the frequent passage of loose, watery stools, is it important symptom of dysentery as well as several other disorders.

310
Q

Two disorders of the anorectal area

A

Anal fissures - and ulceration or tear of the lining of the anal canal may be caused by excessive tissue stretching. These tears are very tender and tend to reopen when stool is passed.

Hemorrhoids - three types of hemorrhoids are shown internal external and prolapsed.

311
Q

Internal hemorrhoid

A

Lie above the anal sphincter, and cannot be seen on inspection of the anal area

312
Q

External hemorrhoids

A

Lie below the anal sphincter, and can be seen an inspection of the anal region

313
Q

Prolapsed hemorrhoid

A

Hemorrhoids, that in large, fall down, and protrude through the anus

314
Q

Col/itis
Colitis

A

Large intestine/inflammation
Inflammation of the large intestine
Inflammation of the colon

315
Q

IBS common chronic inflammatory bowel disease

A

Ulcerative colitis
Is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the colon or rectum, characterized by profuse, watery, diarrhea, containing mucus blood and pus. The chronic inflammation means in a loss of the mucosal lining and ulceration or abscess formation. The causes unknown.

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

Crohn disease
is another IBD that can affect any part of the G.I. tract from the mouth to the anus. The lesions of prawn disease are patchy and often extend through all the bold layers.

316
Q

Fistulas

A

An abnormal passage between two internal organs

Abnormal passages between internal organs or abnormal communications leading from internal organs to the body surface are called___________

317
Q

Anal fistula

A

An abnormal opening near the anus

318
Q

fissure

A

Is a cleft or a groove, or a crack like lesion of the skin. A painful alteration or tear at the anal opening is called an anal fissure.

Fissures are sometimes associated with constipation, diarrhea, or chron disease.

319
Q

Hemorrhoids

A

Masses of dilated veins of the anal canal
Masses of dilated veins that are varicose and lie just inside or outside the rectum

A common cause of rectal bleeding, are masses of dilated beans of the anal canal that lie just inside or outside the rectum. Commonly called piles, hemorrhoids are often accompanied by pain and itching.
constipation, straining to defecate (evacuate feces), and prolonged sitting contribute to their development.

320
Q

Food poisoning

A

When a person ingest, toxic substances, or infectious organisms in food, but unlike gastroenteritis, food poisoning cannot be passed directly to another person

Parasites and pathogenic, bacteria or viruses can invade the G.I. tract.

321
Q

Common types of bacteria, food poisoning

A

Staphylococcal infection
Escherichia coli ( called E. coli) infection, botulism, and Salmonell/osis, caused by the bacterium salmonella

322
Q

duodenal ulcer (most common type of peptic ulcer)

A

Is one that occurs in the duodenum

323
Q

duodentitis

A

Inflammation of the duodenum

324
Q

Ileitis

A

Inflammation of the ileum

325
Q

Gastroduodenitis

A

Inflammation of the stomach and duodenum

326
Q

Colonic polyps (small tumor - like growths)

A

Can arise from the mucosal surface of the colon; they are best considered as premalignant, and are thus removed. Some types of colonic polyps are closely linked to colorectal cancer, and, for this reason, should be removed when observed during colonoscopy

327
Q

Common causes of gastrointestinal bleeding

A

Diverticulitis/diverticulosis
Ulcerative colitis
Polyps
Colon cancer
Rectal cancer
Hemorrhoids

328
Q

Polyp/ectomy
Polypectomy

A

Removal of a polyp, can be performed during a colonoscopy. Small tumor-like growths on the colons will causal surface are called colonic polyps

329
Q

Non-inflammatory intestinal disorders

A

Malignant diverticulosis
Tumors
Obstructions
Malabsorption
Trauma

330
Q

Irritable bowel syndrome,(IBS)

A

Also called spastic colon, spastic bowel, and mucous colitis
Is a common chronic non-inflammatory, intestinal disorder.
Cause unknown
motility of the intestines, diarrhea, and pain in the lower abdomen.
Women affected more than men
IBS is a non-inflammatory condition with no specific treatment is required .
Roll out more serious conditions such as dysentery, lactose intolerance, and the inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn disease)

331
Q

Diverticular disease

A

Diverticulitis - inflammation of one or more diverticula

Diverticulosis - if diverticula are present in the colon without inflammation or symptoms, the condition is called…….

Diverticulum is a poached like herniation through the muscular wall of a tubular organ. A diverticulum. (plural is diverticula.) is most commonly present in the colon but also can occur in the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine.

332
Q

Diverticula

A

Abnormal out poaching in the wall of the intestine

333
Q

Impaction

A

An accumulation of hardened feces in the rectum or sigmoid colon that the individual cannot expel
Impaction leads to colonic stasis, also called interostasis

334
Q

Interior/stasis

A
335
Q

entero/stasis
enterostasis

A

Intestine/stoppage or standing

Delay, or stopping of movement of food in the intestinal tract

There is a delay or a stopping of the movement of food in the intestinal tract

336
Q

Inguinal hernias

A

Developed because of the weakness in the abdominal muscle wall, or a widened space at the inguinal ligament

337
Q

Strangulated hernia

A

A hernia in which the blood vessels are constricted by the neck of the hernial sac.

The blood vessels become so constricted by the neck of the hernial sack. That circulation is stopped in the constricted area. Surgical intervention is necessary.

338
Q

Intussusception

A

The telescopic folding back of one part of the intestine into itself

Is a telescopic folding back of the bowel into itself. mesenteric occlusion is a building, or closing off of a segment of the intestine by the mesentry, the peritoneum that suspends the intestines from the abdominal wall.

339
Q

Volvulus

A

The twisting of the bowl

340
Q

Bowl obstructions

A

Adhesion
Strangulated inguinal hernia
ileocecal intussusception
Polyp and intussusception
Mesenteric occlusion
Neoplasm
Volvulus of the sigmoid colon

341
Q

Neoplasms or tumors

A

A new or abnormal growth either benigh or malignant

Are the most common cause of obstruction of the large intestine. Surgery is usually necessary to correct obstructions of the bowl.

342
Q

Malabsorption syndrome

A

Is a disorder in which one or multiple nutrients are not digested or absorbed. The nutrient that is not absorbed, well depends on which abnormality exists. Various deficiencies can lead to malabsorption of fats, various vitamins, lactose, or iron.

343
Q

Lipo/penia
Lipopenia

A

Fats/deficiency

Is a deficiency of fats

344
Q

Appendic/itis
Appendicitis

A

Appendix/inflammation
Inflammation of the vermiform appendix

345
Q

Diverticulosis

A

The presence of diverticula in the colon without inflammation

346
Q

Liver

A

Is one of the most vital internal organs. Degeneration of the liver may lead to severe consequences, including ascites (accumulation of abdominal fluid), defects in coagulation of the blood, jaundice, neurologic symptoms, and hepatic and renal failure.

The liver is often able to regenerate its tissue, but severe hepatitis may lead to chronic liver dysfunction

347
Q

Hepato/renal syndrome
Hepatorenal syndrome

A

Liver/renal(kidney) failure

Is a type of kidney failure that is associated with hepatic failure. In hepatic failure, the liver cannot perform its vital functions for the body. Hepatorenal syndrome failure has poor prognosis, because both the kidneys and liver fail.

348
Q

Hepato/pathy
Hepatopathy

A

Liver/disease

Any disease of the liver

349
Q

Hepato/spleno/megaly

A

Liver/spleen/enlargement
Enlargement of the liver and spleen

350
Q

Hepatoma

A

Tumor of the liver
This term is usually reserved for a specific type of primary liver carcinoma

351
Q

Hepat/ic carcinoma
Hepatic carcinoma

A

Liver/pertaining to/cancer/tumor

Tumors of the liver may be benign or malignant.
Malignancy in the liver that is spread from another source (metastasis) is many times more common than primary tumor of the liver

352
Q

Hepat/itis
Hepatitis

A

Inflammation of the liver it is characterized by jaundice, hepatomegaly, anorexia, abnormal liver function, clay, colored stools, and tea colored urine.

353
Q

Hepato/megaly
Hepatomegaly

A

Liver/enlarged

Enlarged liver

354
Q

Jaundice

A

Is a yellow discoloration of the skin, the mucous membranes, and the whites of the eyes, caused by greater than normal amounts of bilirubin (a yellow-orange pigment of the bile) in the blood

355
Q

Five major types of viral hepatitis and their associated viruses

A

Hepatitis A (hepatitis A virus(HAV))
Hepatitis B (hepatitis B virus(HBV))
Hepatitis C (hepatitis C virus (HCV))
Hepatitis D (hepatitis D virus(HDV))
Hepatitis E (hepatitis E virus(HEV))

356
Q

Hepatitis A
Hepatitis

A

Can be acquired by ingestion of contaminated food, but the other types are acquired only by contact with an infected person or infected materials.
most of the latter types can be acquired by contaminated blood, sexual contact, or the use of contaminated needles and instruments.

357
Q

Cirrhosis

A

Chronic degeneration of liver cells

Severe hepatitis may lead to cirrhosis, a chronic, progressive liver disease that is characterized by degeneration of liver cells with eventually increased resistance to flow of blood through the liver

358
Q

Alcoholic cirrhosis

A

Occurs in approximately 20% of chronic alcoholics. Unless alcohol is avoided, coma, gastrointestinal, hemorrhage, and kidney failure may occur. Nutritional deficiencies, poisons, toxic drugs, some types of heart, disease, and prior viral hepatitis, can also lead to cirrhosis.

359
Q

Bile

A

Is produced by the liver, stored in the gallbladder, and released into the duodenum via the common bile duct when needed for digestion. Anything that interferes with the flow of bio interferes with digestion.

360
Q

Chole/stasis
Cholestasis

A

Is stoppage or suppression of bile flow. Obstruction of bio flow can cause inflammation of the gallbladder, the liver, or the pancreas.

361
Q

Chol/angitis
cholangitis

A

Is inflammation of a bile vessel or duct

362
Q

Chole/lith/iasis
Cholelithiasis

A

Gallbladder/stone/condition

Is the presence of gall stones in the gallbladder

363
Q

Cholecyst/itis
Cholecystitis

A

Gallbladder/inflammation
Inflammation of the gallbladder is usually caused by gall stones.
His surgery is not perform to remove the gallbladder, perforation (opening or whole.) in its wall may occur.

364
Q

Choledoch/itis
Choledochitis

A

bile duct/inflammation

Inflammation of the common bile duct

365
Q

Choledocho/lith/iasis
Choledocholithiasis

A

Calculus in the common bile duct

common bile/stone/condition
Is the presence of a calculus (stone) in the common bile duct. Stones may remain in the gallbladder, may pass into the common bile duct, or pass into the duodenum.

366
Q

Cholangitis
Pancreatitis

A

Can occur as complications of cholecystitis, resulting from the back of the file through the biliary tract

367
Q

Pancreat/itis
Pancreatitis

A

Pancreas/inflammation of
inflammation of the pancreas. Acute pancreatitis can be life-threatening, resulting in destruction of the organ by its own enzymes.

368
Q

Pancreatolysis

A

Destruction of pancreatic tissue

369
Q

Factors that contribute to acute pancreatitis

A

Alcoholism
Gall stones
Trauma
Tumors
Peritonitis
Viral infections
Drug toxicity

370
Q

Pancreatic abscess

A

A collection of pus in or around the pancreas, is the serious complication of pancreatitis

371
Q

Pancreato/lithiasis

A

Is the presence of calculi in the pancreas, or pancreatic duct

372
Q

Pancreato/lith
Pancreatolith

A

Means a pancreatic calculus (stone)

373
Q

Pancreatic obstructions

A

Stones, tumors, or sis can cause

374
Q

Pancreatic carcinoma

A

Is one of the most deadly malignancies. The cancer is usually discovered in the late stages, and the prognosis is poor.

375
Q

Gallbladder carcinoma

A

Like pancreatic carcinoma, the prognosis of cancer of the gallbladder is poor. However, cancer of the gallbladder is rare.

376
Q

Sialadenitis
Sialolithiasis

A

Two of the more likely disorders of the salivary glands
Tumors of the salivary glands are not common

377
Q

sialadenitis

A

Inflammation of the salivary glands, can be caused by an infectious microorganism, an allergic reaction, or radiation therapy

378
Q

sialolithiasis

A

The presence of salivary stones, either within the gland itself, or in the salivary ducts, may cause few symptoms, unless the duct becomes obstructed.

379
Q

Ascites

A

Accumulation of abdominal fluid

380
Q

Gastroentrologist

A

Physician specializing in G.I. tract

381
Q

Gastrocele

A

Herniation of the stomach

382
Q

Diabetes mellitus

A

Is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism characterized by hyperglycemia and glycosuria resulting from inadequate production or use of insulin.

it’s a carbohydrate metabolism disorder due to the lack of insulin production

A disease characterized by resistance to install or lack of insulin secretion

Results primarily from either a deficiency or lack of insulin, secretion by the pancreas, or a resistance to insulin. Some forms of diabetes are treated with diet, exercise, and weight control; other forms require glucose lowering agents. (oral agents or insulin by injection)

383
Q

Gingiv/ectomy
Gingivectomy

A

Gums/excision, cutting out, removal

Surgical removal of all loose and diseased gum, tissue, is performed by a dentist or periodontist to arrest the progress of periodontal disease

384
Q

Cheilo/plasty
Cheiloplasty

A

lip/surgical repair
Surgical repair of the lip

385
Q

cheilo/rrhaphy
cheilorraphy

A

Lip/suture
Suture of the lip bless you

386
Q

Gloss/ectomy
Glossectomy

A

tongue/excision, or removal
Excision of the tongue

387
Q

Glosso/plasty
Glossoplasty

A

Tongue/surgical repair
Surgical repair of the tongue

388
Q

Glosso/rrhaphy
Glossorrhaphy

A

Tongue/suture
Suture of the tongue

389
Q

Stomato/plasty
Stomatoplasty

A

Mouth/surgical repair
Surgical repair of the mouth

390
Q

Cheilo/stomato/plasty
Cheilostomatoplasty

A

Lip/mouth/surgical repair
Surgical repair of the lips and mouth

391
Q

Esophagectomy

A

Surgical excision of all or part of the esophagus
The surgical procedure may be required to treat, severe bleeding of the esophagus or esophageal cancer

392
Q

Esophago/myo/tomy
Esophagomyotomy

A

esophagus/muscle/incision
Is an incision into the muscle of the lower part of the esophagus, performed to expedite the passage of food in esophageal achalasia, an abnormal condition, characterized by the inability of the muscle to relax

393
Q

Enternal nutrition

A

Patients who can digest and absorb nutrients, but need nutritional support, may receive “Enternal nutrition” (provision of liquid nutrients through the G.I. tract when the patient cannot ingest, to, or swallow food, but can digest and absorb nutrients; it is accomplish using an enternal feeding tube)

394
Q

Naso/gastr/ic NG
nasogastric

A

nose/stomach/pertaining to

Means pertaining to the nose and stomach, and nasal gastric internal feeding uses nasogastric tube that is inserted through the nose and into the stomach

395
Q

Nasogastric tube NG tube

A

A nasogastric internal feeding uses a nasogastric tube (NG tube) that is inserted into the stomach

396
Q

Esophago/stomy esophagoscopy
Gastro/stomy Gastrostomy
Jejuno/stomy jejunostomy

A

These are terms for surgical procedures, to establish this means of feeding by placement of the Enternal tube directly into the esophagus, stomach, or jejunum.

Which means formation of a new opening into these structures.

397
Q

Jejunum

A

The portion of the small intestine that extends from the duodenum to the ileum

398
Q

Par/enternal

A
399
Q

Parenteral

A

Injection into the body, not through the alimentary canal, a place to give nutrients.
Means not through the alimentary tract, but through some other route; in other words, by injection

400
Q

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) this method of feeding has several names

Intravenous alignmentation
Hyperalimentation,

A

Is the administration of all nutrition through an indwelling catheter in to the vena cava or other main vein.

401
Q

Hyper/alimentation
Hyperalimentation

A

Excessive/nutrition
1) meaning is the administration of all nutrition through an indwelling catheter into the vena cava or other main vein
2) meaning of overfeeding, or the ingestion or administration of an amount of nutrients that exceeds the demands of the body. Over feeding on one’s own can lead to obesity.

402
Q

Bariatrics

A

Focuses on obesity

Is the field of medicine that focuses on the treatment and control of obesity

403
Q

Three options available for managing obesity

A

1) lifestyle modification (alterations in diet and physical activity)
2) Pharmacotherapy (anorexiants are drugs or other agents that suppress appetite)
3) bariatric surgery

404
Q

Anorexiants

A

Drugs or other agents that suppress my appetite

405
Q

Surgical procedures for limiting nutrient intake

A

1) adjustable, gastric band system
2) gastric bypass
4) complex bariatric surgery; removing much of the stomach (creating a smaller “ gastric sleeve”) and linking it to a very short part of the duodenum.

406
Q

Gastro/plasty
Gastroplasty

A

Stomach/surgical repair/replace
Any surgery performed to reshape or repair the stomach

407
Q

Lipectomy
Liposuction

A

Procedures that are performed to remove an slightly flabby folds of fat tissue or to improve body contours.

Both procedures are performed for cosmetic reasons rather than weight reduction.

408
Q

Lipectomy

A

Is excision of subcutaneous fat

Excision of a mass of subcutaneous adipose (pertaining to fat, fat deposits beneath the skin ) tissue

409
Q

Lipo/suction
Liposuction

A

Fats/suction
Remove fat with a suction pump device

Surgical removal of localized, fat deposits, using high-pressure vacuum, applied by means of a sub dermal cannula

410
Q

Esophago/stomy
Esophagostomy

A

Esophagus/surgical formation of a new opening

Creation of an opening into the esophagus

411
Q

Gastro/stomy
Gastrostomy

A

Stomach/surgical formation of a new opening

Surgical creation of an artificial opening in the stomach through the abdominal wall

412
Q

Jejuno/stomy
Jejunostomy

A

jejunum/surgical formation of a new opening
Surgical creation of a permanent opening between the GGM and the surface of the abdominal wall; also, the opening it creates

413
Q

Lavage

A

Is irrigation or washing out of an organ, such as the stomach or bowel

414
Q

Gastric/lavage
Gastriclavage

A

Stomach/washing out

Washing out of the stomach, which is performed to remove irritants or toxic substances, and it’s done before or after surgery on the stomach

415
Q

Colonic irrigation

A

Flushing of the inside of the colon.

Maybe use to remove any material high in the colon.

416
Q

Enema

A

Introduction of a solution into the rectum, either for cleansing the rectum, or as a treatment for constipation

417
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

A bacterium that causes ulcers in the stomach, esophagus and duodenum. They can’t be treated with antibiotics.

418
Q

Gastric ulcers

A

Treatment:
antibiotics, change of a suspected medication, dietary management, and anti-acids to counteract the acidic gastric contents

419
Q

Hyper/acidity
Hyperacidity

A

Excessive/acid
Excessive acid in the stomach. Treatment is necessary.
Gastric hyperacidity may lead to ulcers

420
Q

Gastr/ectomy
Gastrectomy

A

Stomach/excision
Which is excision/removal or part of the stomach

Persons with ulcers, who do not respond to medical treatment or who developed complications (perforation or hemorrhage) may require partial gastrectomy

Is also done to remove malignancy

421
Q

Vagotomy

A

Severing of certain branches of the vagus nerve, vagotomy, is sometimes done to reduce the amount of gastric secretion and lessen the chance of recurrence of gastric ulcer.

Severing of vagus nerve branches to reduce stomach acid

422
Q

Anastomosis

A

A connection between two organs

Means a connection between two vessels. It may be created by surgical, traumatic, or pathologic means between two normal, distinct organs or spaces.
The communication (union) it’s self is also called anastomosis.

423
Q

Anastomose

A

The verb that means to join the structures

424
Q

Esophagojejunostomy

A

Means surgical anastomosis of the esophagus to the jejunum.

A total gastrectomy requires anastomosis of the esophagus to the small intestine

425
Q

Esophago/duodeno/stomy
Esophagoduodenostomy

A

Esophagus/duodenum/formation of a new opening

Anastomosis is between the esophagus and the duodenum

426
Q

Esophagogastrostomy

A

A trauma or tumor in the cardiac region of the stomach may necessitate creation of a new opening between the esophagus and stomach

427
Q

Jejuno/ileo/stomy
Jejunoileostomy

A

Jejunum/ilium/formation of a new opening
Formation of an opening between the jejunum and ileum
Trauma or tumor of the gym or ileum may require anastomosis

Is formation of an opening between the gym and the ileum

428
Q

Proximal organ

A

In writing terms pertaining to anastomosis, the term begins with the proximal Oran (Organ nearest the place where nutrition begins)

429
Q

Gastro/entero/stomy
Gastroenterostomy

A

Stomach/small intestine formation of a new opening
the body of the stomach is joined with some part of the small intestine, often the jejunum

430
Q

Gastro/duodeno/stomy
Gastroduodenoatomy

A

Stomach/duodenum/formation of a new opening
Anastomosis of the gastric stump with the duodenum, same as gastroduodenal Anastomosis

Anastomosis of the stomach and the duodenum

The lower portion of the stomach is removed, and the remainder is anastomosed to the duodenum. It doesn’t have to be exactly like that but you wanna be able to make it look like that fruit yeah.

431
Q

Gastro/jejuno/stomy
Gastrojejunostomy

A

Anastomosis of the gastric stump with the jejunum; same as gastrojejunal anastomosis
The lower portion of the stomach is removed, and the remainder is anastomosed to the jejunum. The remaining dual Dino stop is closed.

432
Q

Gastroduodenal anastomoses
Gastrojejunal anastomoses

A

Note that in both, the lower portion of the stomach is removed before the gastric stump is joint to some part of the small intestine

433
Q

Pyloro/plasty

A

Pyloric sphincter/surgical repair

It may be done when other methods of treating peptic ulcers have not been effective. Play, Laura plasty consists of surgical enlargement of the pyloric sphincter to facilitate the easy passage of the stomach contents to the duodenum.

434
Q

Esophago/gastro/plasty
Esophagogastroplasty

A

Esophagus/stomach/surgical repair

Surgical repair of the esophagus and stomach in the area of the cardiac sphincter

435
Q

Gastro/pexy
Gastropexy

A

Stomach/surgical fixation

Surgical fixation of the stomach that involves suturing the stomach to the abdominal wall to prevent displacement

436
Q

Gastro/rrhaphy
Gastrorrhaphy

A

Stomach/suture

Suture of the stomach

437
Q

Pyloro/tomy
Pylorotomy

Phyloro/myo/tomy
Phyloromyotomy

A

Pylorus/incision

Incision of the pylorus; often called
Pylorus/muscle/incision
Pyloromyotomy, which is incision of the muscles of the pylorus, and has done to expedite the passage of food from the stomach

438
Q

Colo/stomy
Colostomy

A

Is generally performed after partial colectomy. Colostomy is surgical creation of an artificial anus on the abdominal wall, by drawing the colon out to the surface or, in other words, creating an artificial opening (stoma) from the colon on the abdominal surface.
permanent or temporary
Colostomy irrigation is used to clear the bowel of fecal matter

439
Q

Laparoscopy

A

Of the abdominal cavity is performed for both diagnostic and surgical procedures. In cases of acute appendicitis, laparoscopic appendectomy may be performed.

440
Q

Append/ectomy
Appendectomy

A

Appendix/excision or removal

Removal (excision) of the appendix

441
Q

Ceco/ileo/stomy
Cecoileostomy

A

Cecum/ileum/artificial opening

Formation of a new opening between the cecum and the ileum

442
Q

Col/ectomy
Colectomy

A

Large/excision

Excision of all, or a part, of the:

443
Q

Hemi/col/ectomy
Hemicolectomy

A

Half/large intestine/excision
Is excision of approximately half of the colon and is sometimes referred to as either left hemicolectomy or right hemicolectomy

444
Q

Diverticul/ectomy
Diverticulectomy

A

Diverticulum/excision
surgical excision of a diverticulum; it may be performed if repeated bouts of diverticulitis result in obstruction of the colon

445
Q

Duodeno/tomy
Duodenotomy

Duodeno/stomy
Duodenostomy

A

Duodenum/incision
Surgical incision of the Duodenum

Duodenum/artificial opening
Formation of a new opening into the duodenum

446
Q

Ileo/stomy
Ileostomy

A

Ileum/artificial opening
Forming of an ideal stoma onto the surface of the abdomen - this is necessary if all of the colon is removed; fecal material drains from the ileum into a bag worn on the abdomen

447
Q

Jejuno/tomy
Jejunotomy

A

Jejunum/incision

Surgical incision of the jejunum.

448
Q

laparo/entero/stomy
Laparoenterostomy

A

Abdominal wall/small intestine/artificial opening

449
Q

Palato/pharyngo/plasty
Palatopharyngoplasty also called

Uvulo/palato/pharyngo/plasty
Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty

A

Pallet/pharynx/surgical repair
Surgical excision of palatal and oropharyngeal tissue; may be performed to remove obstructions, thought to be causing, snoring, or sleep apnea, also called uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
Uvula/palate/pharynx/surgical repair

450
Q

Procto/plasty
Proctoplasty

A

Anus and rectum/surgical repair
Surgical repair of the rectum and anus

451
Q

Topi/cal
Topical

A

Place/pertaining to
A particular place on the surface.

452
Q

Topical anesthetic

A

Is to alleviate pain on a particular area of the skin

453
Q

Hemorrhoidectomy

A

Exception of the hemorrhoids

Surgical methods are available if symptoms, persist, and treatment is determined by the type of hemorrhoid. Treatments include elastic band like ation and hemorrhoidectomy. If elastic band ligation, the hemorrhoids are bound with rubber bands, and become necrotic, and eventually slough off.

454
Q

Gallstones

A

Are a common disorder of the gallbladder and bile ducts, and are usually associated with Cholecystitis. Several non-surgical approaches are available, including oral drugs, that dissolve stones, laser lithotripsy, and extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)

455
Q

ESWL Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy

A

A lithotriptor uses high energy shockwave to disintegrate the stone. The patient is positioned over a shock wave generator. (lithotriptor) by means of a table that moves up word and downward, forward and backward, and side to side. Particle slough off the gallstone as the lithotriptor expired, and the particles pass through the biliary ducts and are eliminated. 

456
Q

Lithotriptor

A

The name of the shockwave generator in biliary lithotripsy

457
Q

Lithotripsy

A

It’s a non-surgical management of gall stones, and can sometimes be an alternative to cholecystectomy, surgical removal of the gallbladder

458
Q

Cholecystectomy

A

Surgical removal of the gallbladder. The gallbladder stores bile, but is not essential for life, because bile is produced continuously.

459
Q

Endoscopic sphincterotomy

A

Endoscopic removal of biliary stones, because the endoscope is passed to the duodenum, and then the sphincter muscle is incised to reach and retrieve the stones

460
Q

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

A

Removal of the gallbladder through four small incisions in the abdominal wall, is currently preferred to open cholecystectomy whenever possible. This is commonly done as an outpatient surgery. The surgical site is exposed to four small portals, inserted into the abdominal wall, allowing the gallbladder to be exercised and removed easily.

461
Q

Cholecystotomy

A

Surgical incision of the gallbladder monitor. This new term means incision of the gallbladder for the purpose of exploration, drainage, or removal of stones.

462
Q

Laparo/cholecysto/tomy
Laprocholecystotomy

A

Means incision into the gallbladder through the abdominal wall

463
Q

Choledocho/litho/tripsy
Choledocholithotripsy

A

Means the mechanical crushing of gall stones in the common bile duct

464
Q

Choledochostomy

A

Formation of an opening into the common bile duct

Is surgical formation of an opening into the common bile duct through the abdominal wall? This is commonly done for temporary drainage of the duct after cholecystectomy.

465
Q

Choledochojejunostomy

A

Is surgical formation of a new opening between the common bile duct and the jejunum.

466
Q

Hepatic lobectomy

A

Excision of the lobe of the liver

467
Q

Getting the books

A
468
Q

Hitting the books

A
469
Q

Hepato/tomy
Hepatotomy

A

Liver/surgical incision
Surgical incision of the liver

470
Q

Hepat/ectomy
Hepatectomy

A

Liver/excision

Excision of part of the liver
Liver transplant may be performed in some cases, usually for liver disease related to chronic viral hepatitis

471
Q

Pancreato/tomy
Pancreatotomy

A

Pancreas/incision
Incision of the pancreas

472
Q

Pancreato/lith/ectomy
Pancreatolithectomy

A

Pancreas/stones/excision or removal
Removal of pancreatic stones

473
Q

Pancreatectomy

A

Removal of all, or part of the pancreas

474
Q

Treatment of infected salivary glands

A

Includes antibiotics
Warm compresses
if the floor of saliva is obstructed by a storm, the ducts. They may be dilated and massaged. If these measures fail, surgery may be necessary to remove the store.

475
Q

Tumors of the salivary glands

A

Either benign or malignant are excised. However, radiation therapy may be used for highly malignant or very large, tumors, or for recurrence of tumor after surgery.

476
Q

Litho/tripsy
Lithotripsy

A

Stone/surgical crushing
Surgical crushing of a stone

477
Q

Pancreato/lith/ectomy
Pancreatolithectomy

A

Surgical removal of a stone from the pancreas

478
Q

Antidiarrheals

A

Medication’s to treat diarrhea

479
Q

Gastric bypass

A

A type of gastroplasty

480
Q

Enternal

A

Pertaining to the small intestine

481
Q

Dental caries

A

Means the same as tooth decay

482
Q

Enteral

A

Pertains to the intestines

483
Q

Gastric hypertrophy

A

Gastromegaly is the term for………

Chapter 6 Digestive System (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions